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Question 1Infection Prevention and Control

A client-care item is described as a critical item. Which level of processing does it require?

  1. Cleaning with soap and water only
  2. High-level disinfection
  3. Low-level disinfection
  4. Sterilization Correct answer.

Explanation

Critical items enter sterile tissue or the vascular system, so any microbial contamination, including bacterial spores, creates a high risk of infection. Sterilization is the only process that reliably destroys all microorganisms including spores. Disinfection cannot guarantee spore elimination.

Question 2Infection Prevention and Control

Which action is the single most effective routine practice for preventing transmission of infectious agents in healthcare settings?

  1. Wearing gloves for every client contact
  2. Performing hand hygiene at the correct moments Correct answer.
  3. Disinfecting the floor daily
  4. Placing signage on the client's door

Explanation

Hands are the most common vehicle for transmitting pathogens between clients and the environment, so hand hygiene at the indicated moments interrupts transmission most effectively. Gloves, signage, and environmental cleaning support but do not replace hand hygiene.

Question 3Infection Prevention and Control

Under standard precautions, gloves are indicated for which situation?

  1. Anticipating contact with blood or body fluids Correct answer.
  2. Walking through a client's room
  3. Reading a client's chart at the desk
  4. Shaking hands with a client

Explanation

Gloves are worn when contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions, non-intact skin, or mucous membranes is anticipated. Routine social or administrative activities without such contact do not require gloves.

Question 4Infection Prevention and Control

A client with an active infection is placed on airborne precautions. Which combination of personal protective equipment is required on entry to the room?

  1. Surgical mask and goggles
  2. N95 or higher respirator plus gloves and gown as indicated Correct answer.
  3. Gloves and gown only
  4. Face shield alone

Explanation

Airborne precautions require a fit-tested N95 or higher-level respirator to protect against inhalation of small droplet nuclei that remain infectious over distance. Gloves and gown are added per standard precautions when contact with body substances is anticipated.

Question 5Infection Prevention and Control

When should a gown be removed during client care?

  1. After leaving the client's room and entering the hallway
  2. Only when it becomes visibly soiled
  3. Before leaving the client's room, avoiding contact with the environment Correct answer.
  4. At the end of the shift

Explanation

Contaminated PPE must be removed in the room before exiting to prevent carrying pathogens into the surrounding environment. Removal should avoid contact with the contaminated outer surface.

Question 6Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement correctly describes the role of alcohol-based hand rub?

  1. It should be used when hands are visibly soiled with blood
  2. It is less effective than plain soap at reducing transient flora
  3. It replaces handwashing after using the restroom
  4. It is preferred for routine hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled Correct answer.

Explanation

Alcohol-based hand rub is the preferred method for routine hand hygiene when hands are not visibly dirty because it is fast, less drying, and highly effective against transient flora. When hands are visibly soiled or contaminated with proteinaceous material, soap and water are required.

Question 7Infection Prevention and Control

A needlestick from a contaminated hollow-bore needle occurs. What is the first action?

  1. Report to the supervisor before any first aid
  2. Apply a caustic antiseptic immediately
  3. Squeeze the wound to express blood
  4. Wash the site with soap and water Correct answer.

Explanation

Immediate first aid for a percutaneous exposure is washing the site with soap and water; mucous membranes are flushed with water. Squeezing, scrubbing, or applying caustic agents is not recommended because it can increase tissue damage. Reporting and post-exposure evaluation follow first aid.

Question 8Infection Prevention and Control

Which practice is correct for handling used linen?

  1. Shake the linen to remove debris before bagging
  2. Hold linen away from the body and bag it at the point of use Correct answer.
  3. Sort linen by hand before laundering
  4. Carry linen through the hallway to a central bag

Explanation

Used linen should be handled with minimal agitation and bagged at the point of use to avoid dispersing microorganisms into the air and onto surfaces. Holding it away from the body reduces contamination of clothing.

Question 9Infection Prevention and Control

A client is colonized with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. Which precaution category applies in addition to standard precautions?

  1. Droplet precautions
  2. Contact precautions Correct answer.
  3. No additional precautions
  4. Airborne precautions

Explanation

MRSA is spread primarily by direct and indirect contact, so contact precautions (gloves and gown on room entry, dedicated equipment) are added to standard precautions. Airborne and droplet transmission routes do not apply to MRSA.

Question 10Infection Prevention and Control

Which organism requires airborne precautions?

  1. Clostridioides difficile
  2. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus
  3. Neisseria meningitidis
  4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted by droplet nuclei that remain infectious over distance, so airborne precautions with a respirator and negative-pressure room are required. C. difficile and VRE require contact precautions; N. meningitidis requires droplet precautions.

Question 11Infection Prevention and Control

Which infection requires droplet precautions?

  1. Scabies
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. Norovirus
  4. Influenza Correct answer.

Explanation

Influenza is transmitted by large respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions with a surgical mask and spatial separation are indicated. Scabies and norovirus require contact precautions, and hepatitis B is bloodborne and managed with standard precautions.

Question 12Infection Prevention and Control

A client with an active pulmonary tuberculosis infection is in a negative-pressure room. Which principle explains why this room design is used?

  1. It reduces the need for respiratory protection
  2. It filters all air to sterility before recirculation
  3. It creates positive pressure to protect the client from outside pathogens
  4. It keeps air flowing into the room so contaminated air does not escape to adjacent areas Correct answer.

Explanation

A negative-pressure room maintains airflow into the room from surrounding spaces, so airborne droplet nuclei are contained and exhausted or filtered before reaching other areas. Respiratory protection is still required, and the room does not create a sterile environment.

Question 13Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) is accurate?

  1. They are eliminated by routine low-level disinfection of all surfaces
  2. They are transmitted mainly by hands and contaminated surfaces, so hand hygiene and contact precautions are key Correct answer.
  3. They are harmless colonizers that never cause infection
  4. They are only transmitted by airborne route

Explanation

MDROs spread predominantly through contact, especially via hands and contaminated environmental surfaces and equipment, so hand hygiene, contact precautions, and cleaning are central. They can cause serious infection and are not reliably eliminated by low-level disinfection alone.

Question 14Infection Prevention and Control

Which action is correct when preparing a sterile field?

  1. Reach across the sterile field with a nonsterile arm
  2. Consider the outer edge of the sterile wrapper sterile
  3. Hold sterile items below waist level
  4. Keep the sterile field in view and above waist level at all times Correct answer.

Explanation

The sterile field must remain in continuous view and above waist level because areas below waist level and out of sight are considered contaminated. The outer wrapper edge is not sterile, and reaching over the field contaminates it.

Question 15Infection Prevention and Control

A client is on contact precautions for a wound infection. Which practice best supports preventing transmission during care?

  1. Share the client's thermometer with the next client after wiping it once
  2. Wear gloves only when visible drainage is present
  3. Leave the door open and remove the gown in the hallway
  4. Dedicate equipment such as a stethoscope to that client Correct answer.

Explanation

Dedicating equipment to a client on contact precautions prevents indirect transmission via contaminated items. Equipment that must be shared requires appropriate cleaning and disinfection between clients.

Question 16Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization is correct?

  1. Cleaning is unnecessary if a high-level disinfectant is used
  2. Disinfection destroys all microbial life including spores
  3. Sterilization is required for all noncritical items
  4. Cleaning removes organic and inorganic soil and must precede disinfection and sterilization Correct answer.

Explanation

Cleaning removes soil and reduces bioburden, and residual organic matter can interfere with the effectiveness of disinfectants and sterilants, so cleaning must precede these processes. Sterilization destroys spores; disinfection does not.

Question 17Infection Prevention and Control

Which of the following is an example of a noncritical item?

  1. A urinary catheter
  2. An endoscope entering a body cavity
  3. A blood pressure cuff Correct answer.
  4. A surgical scalpel

Explanation

A blood pressure cuff contacts intact skin only and is therefore a noncritical item requiring cleaning or low-level disinfection. Scalpels and catheters are critical items, and endoscopes entering body cavities are semicritical or critical depending on use.

Question 18Infection Prevention and Control

Which action is appropriate for a client on droplet precautions who must be transported?

  1. Remove all PPE before transport and use no barriers
  2. Transport during peak hallway traffic without notification
  3. Have the client wear an N95 respirator only
  4. Have the client wear a surgical mask during transport Correct answer.

Explanation

A client on droplet precautions should wear a surgical mask during transport to contain respiratory droplets, and the receiving area should be notified. This reduces exposure of others in shared spaces.

Question 19Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette is correct?

  1. It includes covering the mouth and nose when coughing and performing hand hygiene afterward Correct answer.
  2. It replaces standard precautions
  3. It requires a respirator for all persons in the waiting room
  4. It applies only to clients with a confirmed diagnosis

Explanation

Respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette are source-control measures that include covering the mouth and nose, using tissues, and performing hand hygiene after contact with respiratory secretions. They supplement rather than replace standard precautions and apply to anyone with respiratory symptoms.

Question 20Infection Prevention and Control

A client is admitted with suspected norovirus gastroenteritis. Which precaution and cleaning approach is most appropriate?

  1. Airborne precautions with a respirator
  2. Standard precautions only, with alcohol rub as the sole hand hygiene method
  3. Contact precautions with attention to environmental disinfection and handwashing Correct answer.
  4. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask

Explanation

Norovirus spreads by contact with contaminated surfaces and is resistant to alcohol, so contact precautions with soap-and-water handwashing and thorough environmental disinfection are indicated. Airborne and droplet precautions do not match the transmission route.

Question 21Infection Prevention and Control

A client with a draining wound is on contact precautions. Which sequence reflects correct PPE removal after care?

  1. Remove gown, then gloves, then perform hand hygiene
  2. Perform hand hygiene, then remove gloves, then remove gown
  3. Remove gloves and gown together, then remove the mask in the hallway
  4. Remove gloves, then gown, then perform hand hygiene Correct answer.

Explanation

Gloves are removed first because they are the most contaminated, followed by the gown, and hand hygiene is performed after PPE removal. Removing the gown first can contaminate the hands with material from the gloves.

Question 22Infection Prevention and Control

Which situation best illustrates indirect transmission of infection?

  1. A caregiver's contaminated hands transfer organisms to a client's intravenous site Correct answer.
  2. A mosquito bite transmits a pathogen
  3. A person inhales droplet nuclei from a coughing client
  4. A pregnant person transmits a pathogen to the fetus across the placenta

Explanation

Indirect transmission involves a vehicle or intermediate object, such as contaminated hands or equipment, transferring organisms to a susceptible host. Direct transmission involves immediate transfer from an infected person or source without an intermediate.

Question 23Infection Prevention and Control

Which element is essential to break the chain of infection at the portal of entry?

  1. Allowing drainage to remain on the skin
  2. Covering a client's skin breakdown and protecting invasive device sites Correct answer.
  3. Encouraging the reservoir to remain moist
  4. Increasing the number of susceptible hosts

Explanation

The portal of entry is the route by which a pathogen enters a susceptible host, so protecting breaks in skin and invasive device sites prevents entry. Measures aimed at other links do not address the portal of entry.

Question 24Infection Prevention and Control

A client is colonized with a multidrug-resistant organism but has no signs of infection. Which approach is correct?

  1. Apply the appropriate transmission-based precautions and perform hand hygiene to prevent spread Correct answer.
  2. Use airborne precautions for all colonized clients
  3. No precautions are needed because colonization is not infection
  4. Discontinue all precautions because colonization cannot be transmitted

Explanation

Colonized clients can transmit organisms to others even without signs of infection, so the transmission-based precautions appropriate to the organism and hand hygiene are used. Colonization does not eliminate the need for precautions.

Question 25Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about sterilization monitoring is correct?

  1. Chemical indicators alone confirm that sterilization was achieved
  2. Sterilization is verified only by the absence of visible soil
  3. Visual inspection of packaging is sufficient verification
  4. Biological indicators using resistant spores provide the most reliable verification of sterilization Correct answer.

Explanation

Biological indicators containing highly resistant spores are the most reliable means of verifying that the sterilization process was effective. Chemical and physical indicators provide process monitoring but do not alone confirm sterility.

Question 26Infection Prevention and Control

Which factor most directly determines whether a microorganism can cause an infection after entering a host?

  1. The color of the organism under Gram stain
  2. The size of the organism's genome
  3. The geographic region where the organism is commonly found
  4. The organism's ability to adhere to and invade host tissue Correct answer.

Explanation

Pathogenicity depends on virulence factors such as adhesion, invasion, toxin production, and immune evasion. Staining characteristics, genome size, and geography do not by themselves determine infectivity.

Question 27Infection Prevention and Control

An infection preventionist is reviewing a new disinfectant. Which property is most important to confirm before using it on a blood-contaminated surface?

  1. It is effective at a neutral pH only
  2. It is available in a large-volume concentrate
  3. It is registered with an appropriate regulatory body as a hospital disinfectant Correct answer.
  4. It has a pleasant fragrance for staff comfort

Explanation

Disinfectants used in healthcare must be approved or registered for that intended use and have documented activity against relevant pathogens. Fragrance, packaging, and narrow pH conditions are not indicators of appropriate efficacy.

Question 28Infection Prevention and Control

A nurse is about to insert a peripheral IV catheter. Which action best reduces the risk of introducing organisms at the insertion site?

  1. Inserting the catheter through a previously used site
  2. Cleaning the skin with an appropriate antiseptic and allowing it to dry fully Correct answer.
  3. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment before puncture
  4. Wiping the site with sterile water only

Explanation

Antisepsis of intact skin followed by adequate drying time reduces the microbial burden at the puncture site. Water alone is not an antiseptic, and reusing a puncture site increases risk.

Question 29Infection Prevention and Control

Which practice best protects healthcare personnel from bloodborne pathogen exposure during a procedure likely to generate splashes?

  1. Wearing gloves alone with sleeves rolled up
  2. Wearing a fluid-resistant gown, mask with eye protection, and gloves Correct answer.
  3. Wearing a cloth apron over street clothes
  4. Wearing a surgical mask only

Explanation

Splash-generating procedures require barriers covering mucous membranes, skin, and clothing. Gloves alone, cloth aprons, or a mask alone leave eyes and skin unprotected.

Question 30Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about the chain of infection is correct?

  1. Colonization always progresses to symptomatic infection
  2. An infectious agent cannot survive outside a living host
  3. A reservoir must support microbial growth and multiplication Correct answer.
  4. Removing a susceptible host from exposure interrupts the chain at the reservoir link

Explanation

A reservoir is a place where organisms can survive and multiply, whether animate or inanimate. Removing a susceptible host addresses the host link, some organisms survive in the environment, and colonization does not always lead to infection.

Question 31Infection Prevention and Control

A client has Clostridioides difficile infection. Which hand hygiene approach is most appropriate after contact with the client or their environment?

  1. Alcohol-based hand rub alone
  2. Hand sanitizer foam only when hands are visibly soiled
  3. Alcohol-based hand rub followed by a water rinse
  4. Soap and water washing Correct answer.

Explanation

Alcohol-based rubs do not reliably inactivate C. difficile spores, so soap and water washing is preferred for spore-forming organisms. Rubs are not a substitute when spores are a concern.

Question 32Infection Prevention and Control

Which action is correct when a sharps container reaches the marked fill line?

  1. Compress the contents to make more room
  2. Close and replace it according to facility policy before it is overfilled Correct answer.
  3. Recap needles before placing them in the container
  4. Transfer contents into a larger container by hand

Explanation

Sharps containers must be closed and replaced when they reach the fill line to prevent injury. Compressing contents, recapping, or manually transferring sharps creates avoidable puncture hazards.

Question 33Infection Prevention and Control

Which immunologic principle explains why vaccination protects a population, not just an individual?

  1. Reduced susceptible hosts limit onward transmission of the pathogen Correct answer.
  2. Vaccines confer immediate lifelong immunity in all recipients
  3. Vaccination eliminates the need for hand hygiene
  4. Vaccines sterilize the environment of the pathogen

Explanation

Herd immunity works because fewer susceptible hosts interrupt transmission chains. Vaccines do not sterilize the environment, replace hygiene, or guarantee immediate lifelong immunity.

Question 34Infection Prevention and Control

A client is admitted with a suspected infectious diarrhea. Which specimen collection practice best supports accurate diagnosis?

  1. Collect the specimen after antibiotics have been started
  2. Store the specimen at room temperature for a shift before transport
  3. Collect the specimen early and transport it promptly in the appropriate container Correct answer.
  4. Collect a specimen only if the client has a fever

Explanation

Early collection before antimicrobials and prompt transport preserve pathogen viability and diagnostic yield. Delayed transport or collection after antibiotics reduces sensitivity.

Question 35Infection Prevention and Control

A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action most reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

  1. Maintaining a closed drainage system and unobstructed flow Correct answer.
  2. Disconnecting the tubing daily for cleaning
  3. Keeping the drainage bag above bladder level
  4. Irrigating the catheter routinely with antiseptic solution

Explanation

A closed, unobstructed system prevents retrograde migration of organisms. Routine irrigation, daily disconnection, and bag placement above the bladder all increase infection risk.

Question 36Infection Prevention and Control

Which intervention is most effective for preventing central line-associated bloodstream infection?

  1. Bundled insertion practices with daily review of line necessity Correct answer.
  2. Routine replacement of central lines every 72 hours
  3. Using the line for routine blood draws when convenient
  4. Applying antibiotic ointment at the exit site daily

Explanation

Prevention bundles, including aseptic insertion and prompt removal when no longer needed, reduce CLABSI. Scheduled routine replacement, routine ointment, and unnecessary access increase risk.

Question 37Infection Prevention and Control

A client with an airborne infection is placed in a room with negative pressure relative to the corridor. Which additional requirement is essential?

  1. Staff enter without respiratory protection
  2. The room pressure is checked only at admission
  3. The door remains open to improve airflow
  4. Air is exhausted or filtered before recirculation to other areas Correct answer.

Explanation

Airborne infection isolation rooms require negative pressure with exhaust or high-efficiency filtration before recirculation. Doors should stay closed, monitoring should be ongoing, and respiratory protection is required.

Question 38Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about reprocessing flexible endoscopes is correct?

  1. Rinsing with tap water is sufficient after disinfection
  2. High-level disinfection is required and channels must be thoroughly cleaned before disinfection Correct answer.
  3. The scope may be stored wet in its transport case
  4. Cleaning can be deferred until the end of the day

Explanation

Flexible endoscopes are semicritical devices requiring meticulous channel cleaning followed by high-level disinfection. Adequate rinsing, dry storage, and immediate cleaning are all required.

Question 39Infection Prevention and Control

A client with a known infection is transferred between units. Which action best supports continuity of infection prevention?

  1. Removing precaution signage during transport to protect privacy
  2. Communicating the required precautions clearly at handoff and on transfer Correct answer.
  3. Discontinuing precautions during the move
  4. Sharing the client's room with an immunocompromised client on arrival

Explanation

Clear communication of precautions at handoff ensures the receiving unit maintains appropriate measures. Removing signage, discontinuing precautions, or cohorting with a high-risk client undermines prevention.

Question 40Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about healthcare-associated infection surveillance is correct?

  1. Surveillance data are collected only annually
  2. Rates are calculated without adjusting for device use
  3. Standardized case definitions allow comparison of infection rates over time Correct answer.
  4. Surveillance requires reporting only fatal infections

Explanation

Standardized definitions and device-day denominators allow meaningful rate comparison and trend detection. Surveillance is ongoing, not limited to fatal cases or annual review.

Question 41Infection Prevention and Control

A nurse is preparing to suction a client with a tracheostomy. Which action best prevents introducing organisms into the airway?

  1. Wearing gloves without performing hand hygiene
  2. Reusing the same suction catheter for multiple days without cleaning
  3. Using sterile technique for open suctioning and performing hand hygiene before and after Correct answer.
  4. Suctioning only when the client is asleep

Explanation

Sterile technique for open suctioning and hand hygiene protect the lower airway. Reusing uncleaned catheters, timing suction to sleep, or skipping hand hygiene increase contamination risk.

Question 42Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about outbreak investigation in a healthcare setting is correct?

  1. Control measures are withheld until the investigation concludes
  2. Outbreak investigation begins only after the source is identified
  3. Only laboratory-confirmed cases are ever counted
  4. A case definition is established to identify and count affected individuals consistently Correct answer.

Explanation

A case definition standardizes identification of cases for counting and analysis. Investigation proceeds before the source is known, control measures begin early, and probable cases are often included.

Question 43Infection Prevention and Control

A client is receiving a transfusion. Which action most directly reduces the risk of a transfusion-transmitted infection?

  1. Storing the product at room temperature for several hours
  2. Adding medications to the bag before infusion
  3. Warming the product at the bedside for comfort
  4. Verifying that the blood product has been appropriately screened and handled per policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Screened, properly stored and handled products reduce transmission risk. Bedside warming for comfort, adding medications, and prolonged room-temperature storage compromise safety.

Question 44Infection Prevention and Control

Which statement about antimicrobial stewardship is most accurate?

  1. Stewardship means withholding all antibiotics from critically ill clients
  2. Appropriate agent selection, dose, and duration reduce emergence of resistance Correct answer.
  3. Broad-spectrum therapy is preferred for every infection
  4. Stewardship applies only to inpatient settings

Explanation

Stewardship optimizes agent, dose, route, and duration to improve outcomes and limit resistance. It does not mean withholding needed therapy and applies across care settings.

Question 45Infection Prevention and Control

A nurse notices a colleague consistently skipping hand hygiene before donning gloves for client contact. Which response best reflects an effective safety culture?

  1. Speak with the colleague directly and respectfully about the observed lapse Correct answer.
  2. Assume gloves make hand hygiene unnecessary in that situation
  3. Ignore the behavior to avoid conflict
  4. Report the colleague to leadership without any direct conversation

Explanation

A just culture encourages respectful, direct feedback about observed lapses before escalation. Ignoring the behavior or assuming gloves replace hand hygiene perpetuates risk.

Question 46Infection Prevention and Control

A client with a draining wound is placed on contact precautions. Which environmental practice is most appropriate for shared equipment?

  1. Store shared equipment in the client's room indefinitely
  2. Dedicate equipment to the client or clean and disinfect it between clients Correct answer.
  3. Use the same equipment for the next client without cleaning
  4. Clean equipment only when visibly soiled

Explanation

Dedicated equipment or cleaning and disinfection between clients prevents indirect transmission. Cleaning only when soiled or skipping cleaning leaves contamination.

Question 47Infection Prevention and Control

A client is receiving an aerosolized medication in a room without special ventilation. Which precaution consideration is most relevant for staff?

  1. Standard precautions are unnecessary if the door is closed
  2. No precautions are needed because the medication is not infectious
  3. Only hand hygiene is required during administration
  4. Potential for aerosol generation warrants appropriate respiratory protection per policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Aerosol-generating procedures may increase exposure risk and require respiratory protection per policy. Hand hygiene alone or omitting precautions does not address aerosol exposure.

Question 48Infection Prevention and Control

An infection preventionist is evaluating a cluster of surgical site infections caused by the same organism. Which analytic step best tests whether a common exposure is responsible?

  1. Assume the surgeon is the source without data
  2. Compare exposures of affected and unaffected surgical clients Correct answer.
  3. Review only the affected clients' charts
  4. Discontinue surveillance once the cluster is noted

Explanation

Comparing exposures between affected and unaffected clients helps identify a common source. Reviewing only affected charts, premature attribution, or stopping surveillance cannot establish causation.

Question 49Infection Prevention and Control

A client with a highly transmissible respiratory infection is in a multi-bed room. Which action best reduces transmission risk to other occupants?

  1. Share the client's thermometer with other occupants
  2. Keep the curtain partially open for visibility
  3. Move the client to a single room with appropriate ventilation per policy Correct answer.
  4. Allow the client to ambulate in shared hallways without a mask

Explanation

Single-room placement with appropriate ventilation limits airborne and droplet spread. Partial curtains, unmasked ambulation, and shared equipment increase transmission.

Question 50Infection Prevention and Control

A reprocessing area reports that a high-level disinfectant concentration tested below the minimum effective level. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Continue use and document the finding only
  2. Remove the solution from use, replace it, and review monitoring records Correct answer.
  3. Dilute the solution further to extend its use
  4. Increase the soaking time without changing the solution

Explanation

A solution below minimum effective concentration must be discarded and replaced, and monitoring practices reviewed. Diluting, continuing use, or extending soak time cannot restore efficacy.