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CANPC practice questions

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Question 1Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Under the ASA physical status classification, a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is assigned which class?

  1. ASA IV Correct answer.
  2. ASA III
  3. ASA II
  4. ASA I

Explanation

ASA IV designates severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction, ongoing ischemia, or severe valve dysfunction. ASA III is severe disease that is not incapacitating, and ASA II is mild systemic disease.

Question 2Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which ASA class is assigned to a patient who is brain-dead and being evaluated as an organ donor?

  1. ASA IV
  2. ASA V
  3. ASA VI Correct answer.
  4. ASA III

Explanation

ASA VI is reserved for a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes. ASA V describes a moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation.

Question 3Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin. Which preoperative action is most appropriate?

  1. Give a small test dose of penicillin in the preoperative holding area
  2. Premedicate with an antihistamine and proceed with penicillin
  3. Administer a cephalosporin without further evaluation
  4. Document the allergy and avoid beta-lactam antibiotics unless a structured evaluation supports use Correct answer.

Explanation

A documented anaphylactic reaction to penicillin requires avoidance of beta-lactams unless a structured allergy evaluation (such as testing or desensitization) supports their use. Cephalosporins carry cross-reactivity risk and should not be given reflexively.

Question 4Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which laboratory value most directly determines the need to check a preoperative INR?

  1. Platelet count
  2. Serum potassium
  3. Hemoglobin A1c
  4. Current warfarin therapy Correct answer.

Explanation

INR is used to monitor warfarin anticoagulation and to guide perioperative management of bleeding risk. Potassium, A1c, and platelet count do not measure the coagulation cascade targeted by warfarin.

Question 5Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which finding is the most important predictor of perioperative pulmonary complications on preoperative assessment?

  1. Current smoking status Correct answer.
  2. Body mass index of 31
  3. History of asthma
  4. Prior postoperative nausea

Explanation

Current smoking is a leading modifiable risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications, including atelectasis and pneumonia. Smoking cessation before surgery reduces this risk.

Question 6Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which airway finding on preoperative evaluation most strongly suggests a difficult mask ventilation or intubation?

  1. Interincisor opening greater than 4 cm
  2. Mallampati class IV Correct answer.
  3. Mallampati class I
  4. Thyromental distance greater than 6.5 cm

Explanation

Mallampati class IV, in which the soft palate is not visible, is associated with difficult laryngoscopy and intubation. Adequate mouth opening and thyromental distance suggest an easier airway.

Question 7Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient scheduled for elective surgery reports a recent upper respiratory infection with fever and productive cough. What is the most appropriate preoperative action?

  1. Cancel surgery permanently
  2. Give antibiotics and proceed immediately
  3. Consider postponing elective surgery until symptoms resolve Correct answer.
  4. Proceed as scheduled regardless of symptoms

Explanation

Active respiratory infection increases the risk of bronchospasm, atelectasis, and pneumonia under anesthesia, so elective procedures are typically postponed until symptoms resolve. Urgent procedures may still proceed with optimized management.

Question 8Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which preoperative instruction is standard for a patient undergoing elective surgery to reduce aspiration risk?

  1. All oral intake should stop 24 hours before surgery
  2. Solid food may be eaten up to 6 hours before surgery
  3. Clear liquids may be taken up to 2 hours before induction Correct answer.
  4. Water should be withheld for 12 hours before surgery

Explanation

Current fasting guidelines permit clear liquids up to 2 hours before anesthesia in most elective patients. Solids generally require about 6 to 8 hours, and prolonged fasting is discouraged.

Question 9Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia susceptibility requires general anesthesia. Which agent should be avoided?

  1. Rocuronium
  2. Propofol
  3. Succinylcholine Correct answer.
  4. Remifentanil

Explanation

Succinylcholine and volatile anesthetics are triggering agents for malignant hyperthermia and must be avoided in susceptible patients. Propofol, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, and opioids are considered safe.

Question 10Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient on chronic beta-blocker therapy is scheduled for surgery. What is the recommended perioperative approach?

  1. Abruptly discontinue the beta-blocker on the day of surgery
  2. Hold the beta-blocker for 3 days before surgery
  3. Continue the beta-blocker through the perioperative period Correct answer.
  4. Replace the beta-blocker with a calcium channel blocker

Explanation

Chronic beta-blockers should generally be continued perioperatively because abrupt withdrawal can precipitate tachycardia, hypertension, or ischemia. New beta-blocker initiation solely for surgery is not routinely recommended.

Question 11Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which preoperative assessment finding is most consistent with undiagnosed obstructive sleep apnea in a surgical candidate?

  1. Elevated serum calcium
  2. Body mass index of 22
  3. Reported loud snoring with witnessed apneas Correct answer.
  4. Chronic diarrhea

Explanation

Loud snoring with witnessed apneas, daytime somnolence, and obesity raise suspicion for obstructive sleep apnea, which increases perioperative airway and respiratory risk. A low BMI and unrelated symptoms do not suggest OSA.

Question 12Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with type 1 diabetes is scheduled for morning surgery. Which preoperative plan best reduces the risk of hypoglycemia?

  1. Give the full usual dose of rapid-acting insulin despite fasting
  2. Omit all insulin and check glucose after induction
  3. Continue the usual long-acting insulin with adjusted dosing and monitor glucose Correct answer.
  4. Start a sliding-scale insulin only after surgery

Explanation

Patients with type 1 diabetes require continued basal insulin to prevent ketoacidosis, with adjustments for fasting and frequent glucose monitoring. Omitting all insulin risks ketoacidosis, while full prandial dosing during fasting risks hypoglycemia.

Question 13Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which preoperative medication history most increases the risk of intraoperative bleeding?

  1. Daily vitamin D
  2. Inhaled corticosteroid
  3. Recent use of clopidogrel Correct answer.
  4. Chronic aspirin for secondary prevention

Explanation

Clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits platelet P2Y12 receptors and increases bleeding risk; perioperative timing depends on thrombotic risk and procedure. Aspirin is generally continued in many patients, and vitamin D and inhaled steroids do not affect hemostasis.

Question 14Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports a prior difficult intubation. Which preoperative step is most important?

  1. Order a chest radiograph as the sole evaluation
  2. Cancel all elective surgery
  3. Reassure the patient that prior difficulty does not recur
  4. Obtain prior anesthetic records and plan an airway strategy Correct answer.

Explanation

Documented prior difficult intubation is a strong predictor of future difficulty, so prior records should be reviewed and an airway management plan prepared, including alternative devices and backup plans. Reassurance alone is unsafe.

Question 15Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which preoperative condition most warrants an electrocardiogram before elective surgery in an asymptomatic patient?

  1. Known coronary artery disease Correct answer.
  2. Prior appendectomy
  3. Mild seasonal allergies
  4. Age 30 with no comorbidities

Explanation

Known coronary artery disease is a significant cardiac risk factor that supports preoperative ECG evaluation. Routine ECG is not recommended for young asymptomatic patients without risk factors.

Question 16Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with severe aortic stenosis is scheduled for elective noncardiac surgery. What is the most appropriate preoperative consideration?

  1. Obtain cardiology evaluation and optimize before elective surgery Correct answer.
  2. Proceed without further evaluation
  3. Delay only if the patient is symptomatic on the day of surgery
  4. Give a fluid bolus and proceed

Explanation

Severe aortic stenosis carries high perioperative risk, and elective noncardiac surgery should be deferred until the valve is evaluated and managed, often with cardiology input. Optimization before elective surgery reduces mortality risk.

Question 17Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient is taking a direct oral anticoagulant (apixaban) for atrial fibrillation and requires elective surgery. What is the most appropriate preoperative approach?

  1. Continue apixaban without interruption for all procedures
  2. Give vitamin K the night before surgery
  3. Discontinue apixaban for an appropriate interval based on renal function and bleeding risk Correct answer.
  4. Switch to aspirin on the day of surgery

Explanation

Direct oral anticoagulants are typically held for a procedure-specific interval that accounts for renal function and bleeding risk, and bridging is usually not required. Vitamin K does not reverse apixaban, and aspirin is not an equivalent substitute.

Question 18Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative electrolyte abnormality is most likely and requires attention?

  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hyperkalemia Correct answer.
  3. Hypercalcemia
  4. Metabolic alkalosis

Explanation

Chronic kidney disease impairs potassium excretion and commonly causes hyperkalemia, which increases the risk of perioperative arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia and hypernatremia are less typical, and CKD more often causes metabolic acidosis than alkalosis.

Question 19Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports a history of pseudocholinesterase deficiency. Which anesthetic agent should be avoided?

  1. Succinylcholine Correct answer.
  2. Propofol
  3. Sevoflurane
  4. Rocuronium

Explanation

Succinylcholine is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase; deficiency causes prolonged paralysis. Non-depolarizing blockers and other agents are not dependent on this enzyme for termination of effect.

Question 20Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

Which preoperative screening question is most relevant to assessing a patient's risk for perioperative aspiration?

  1. History of seasonal rhinitis
  2. History of eczema
  3. History of migraine
  4. History of gastroesophageal reflux or hiatal hernia Correct answer.

Explanation

Gastroesophageal reflux and hiatal hernia increase aspiration risk and may prompt rapid-sequence induction or other precautions. Allergic, neurologic, and dermatologic histories do not directly affect aspiration risk.

Question 21Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative concern is most significant?

  1. Reduced risk of infection
  2. Increased risk of withdrawal and cross-tolerance to anesthetics Correct answer.
  3. Improved hepatic drug metabolism
  4. Decreased need for postoperative analgesia

Explanation

Chronic alcohol use can cause tolerance to anesthetics, increased postoperative withdrawal risk, and hepatic dysfunction, complicating dosing and recovery. It does not reduce analgesic needs or infection risk.

Question 22Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with a pacemaker is scheduled for surgery using electrocautery. Which preoperative consideration is most important?

  1. Confirm the device type and programmed mode and plan intraoperative monitoring Correct answer.
  2. Remove the pacemaker before surgery
  3. Ignore the device if the patient is asymptomatic
  4. Disable all monitoring during electrocautery

Explanation

Knowing the pacemaker type, programmed mode, and magnet response allows the team to plan monitoring and mitigate electromagnetic interference from electrocautery. Removing the device is not routine, and monitoring must continue.

Question 23Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with a hereditary angioedema history requires airway manipulation. Which preoperative precaution is most appropriate?

  1. Prophylactic C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma as guided by specialist input Correct answer.
  2. No specific precaution
  3. Routine antihistamine only
  4. Proceed with awake fiberoptic intubation without any prophylaxis

Explanation

Hereditary angioedema can cause life-threatening airway swelling triggered by stress and instrumentation; specialist-guided prophylaxis with C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma reduces risk. Antihistamines alone are inadequate.

Question 24Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient with severe pulmonary hypertension is scheduled for elective surgery. Which preoperative assessment is most important?

  1. Ordering a routine chest radiograph alone
  2. Proceeding if the patient can walk across the room
  3. Checking only the white blood cell count
  4. Assessing functional status and right ventricular function with specialist input Correct answer.

Explanation

Severe pulmonary hypertension carries high perioperative risk driven by right ventricular dysfunction and pulmonary vascular crises; functional assessment and specialist input guide risk stratification and optimization. A single simple test or walking distance alone is insufficient.

Question 25Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports a prior episode of postoperative delirium after major surgery. Which preoperative strategy is most appropriate?

  1. Plan for deep sedation postoperatively
  2. Avoid all preoperative documentation of the history
  3. Reassure the patient that delirium will not recur
  4. Identify and optimize modifiable risk factors and plan delirium prevention Correct answer.

Explanation

Prior postoperative delirium is a strong risk factor for recurrence; preoperative identification of modifiable contributors and a prevention plan (such as avoiding deliriogenic drugs and promoting orientation) improve outcomes. Deep sedation may worsen risk.

Question 26Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A 58-year-old man with a history of stable angina is scheduled for elective hernia repair. His last dose of clopidogrel was 5 days ago. Which preoperative laboratory test is most appropriate to assess his bleeding risk?

  1. Complete blood count with platelet count
  2. Platelet function assay Correct answer.
  3. Activated partial thromboplastin time
  4. Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio

Explanation

Clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12 platelet receptor, and its effect can be assessed with a platelet function assay. Standard coagulation tests (PT/INR, aPTT) do not evaluate platelet function. A CBC only quantifies platelet number, not function.

Question 27Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A 45-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled asthma is scheduled for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Which preoperative intervention is most appropriate to reduce the risk of perioperative bronchospasm?

  1. Continue her inhaled corticosteroid and beta-agonist medications up to the day of surgery Correct answer.
  2. Obtain a chest radiograph
  3. Start a 5-day course of oral prednisone
  4. Obtain pulmonary function tests

Explanation

Patients with well-controlled asthma should continue their controller and rescue inhalers perioperatively to maintain bronchodilation and reduce the risk of bronchospasm. Routine chest radiographs and pulmonary function tests are not indicated when the patient is asymptomatic and well controlled. Systemic corticosteroids are reserved for patients with recent exacerbations or severe disease.

Question 28Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A 70-year-old man with a history of heart failure and an ejection fraction of 30% is scheduled for elective knee arthroplasty. Which preoperative medication adjustment is most appropriate?

  1. Continue angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers up to the morning of surgery
  2. Withhold beta-blockers on the morning of surgery
  3. Withhold diuretics on the morning of surgery Correct answer.
  4. Discontinue all cardiac medications 24 hours before surgery

Explanation

Diuretics are often withheld on the morning of surgery to avoid intravascular volume depletion and hypotension during anesthesia, especially in patients with heart failure. Beta-blockers should generally be continued to avoid rebound tachycardia and ischemia. ACE inhibitors and ARBs are often held on the morning of surgery due to the risk of refractory hypotension, and cardiac medications should not be discontinued altogether.

Question 29Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for elective surgery. She reports a history of anaphylaxis after eating shellfish. Which preoperative preparation is most important?

  1. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids
  2. Refer for allergy testing before surgery
  3. Ensure epinephrine is immediately available and avoid known cross-reactive agents Correct answer.
  4. Obtain a serum tryptase level

Explanation

For patients with a history of anaphylaxis, the priority is to ensure that epinephrine and resuscitative equipment are immediately available and to avoid agents that may cross-react and trigger anaphylaxis. Routine preoperative corticosteroids or allergy testing are not standard for preventing anaphylaxis in this setting. Serum tryptase is used to diagnose anaphylaxis after an event, not preoperatively.

Question 30Preoperative Assessment and Preparation

A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is scheduled for elective open abdominal surgery. His baseline oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Which preoperative intervention is most likely to reduce his risk of postoperative pulmonary complications?

  1. Schedule surgery as soon as possible without further optimization
  2. Prescribe a short course of high-dose systemic corticosteroids
  3. Instruct him in incentive spirometry and deep breathing exercises Correct answer.
  4. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics

Explanation

Preoperative education in incentive spirometry and deep breathing exercises helps patients maintain lung expansion and clear secretions postoperatively, reducing the risk of atelectasis and pneumonia. Prophylactic antibiotics are not indicated solely for COPD, and high-dose corticosteroids are not routinely recommended. Delaying surgery without optimization is not a strategy; rather, optimization should occur.

Question 31Anesthesia and Sedation

A patient receives general anesthesia for a procedure lasting 45 minutes. Under CPT anesthesia coding, how is the anesthesia time unit calculated?

  1. One unit for the first 15 minutes plus one unit per additional 15-minute increment
  2. One unit per each full 30-minute block of anesthesia
  3. One unit per hour of anesthesia with partial hours dropped
  4. One unit per each started 15-minute increment rounded up Correct answer.

Explanation

Anesthesia time units are counted in 15-minute increments, and any remaining partial 15-minute interval is rounded up to a full unit. Time begins when the anesthesia provider starts preparing the patient and ends when the provider is no longer in personal attendance.

Question 32Anesthesia and Sedation

Which component of the anesthesia CPT code set reflects the relative complexity of the procedure and is added to the time units?

  1. The qualifying circumstance code
  2. The base unit value Correct answer.
  3. The physical status modifier
  4. The conversion factor

Explanation

The anesthesia CPT code carries a base unit value that reflects the complexity of the procedure and the anesthetic management required. Total anesthesia units equal base units plus time units, adjusted by modifiers.

Question 33Anesthesia and Sedation

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is assigned which ASA physical status?

  1. ASA 3
  2. ASA 2
  3. ASA 4 Correct answer.
  4. ASA 5

Explanation

ASA 4 designates a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. ASA 3 is severe systemic disease without the constant threat, and ASA 5 is a moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation.

Question 34Anesthesia and Sedation

Which modifier is appended to the anesthesia code to report that anesthesia was provided to a patient in an extreme emergency situation?

  1. Physical status modifier P4
  2. Qualifying circumstance modifier 99100
  3. Physical status modifier P5
  4. Qualifying circumstance modifier 99140 Correct answer.

Explanation

Modifier 99140 reports anesthesia complicated by emergency conditions, an extreme emergency situation. It is a qualifying circumstance code added to the anesthesia service.

Question 35Anesthesia and Sedation

An anesthesia provider personally performs a preanesthetic evaluation and then medically directs a certified registered nurse anesthetist who administers the anesthetic. Which modifier set reflects medical direction of one anesthesia case?

  1. AA
  2. QY
  3. QK Correct answer.
  4. QX

Explanation

Modifier QK indicates medical direction of two, three, or four concurrent anesthesia procedures by a physician. Modifier AA indicates the anesthesiologist personally performed the case.

Question 36Anesthesia and Sedation

An anesthesiologist medically directs a single anesthesia case performed by a CRNA. Which modifier applies to the physician's claim?

  1. AD
  2. QY Correct answer.
  3. QK
  4. QX

Explanation

Modifier QY is used when an anesthesiologist medically directs one anesthesia case. QK applies when directing two to four concurrent cases.

Question 37Anesthesia and Sedation

Which modifier indicates that an anesthesiologist medically supervises more than four concurrent anesthesia procedures?

  1. QZ
  2. QK
  3. QY
  4. AD Correct answer.

Explanation

Modifier AD reports medical supervision of more than four concurrent anesthesia procedures. In that situation the physician typically bills only the base units for supervision.

Question 38Anesthesia and Sedation

A patient requires monitored anesthesia care for a colonoscopy. Which statement best describes how MAC is reported?

  1. MAC is reported using the same anesthesia CPT codes with base and time units as general anesthesia Correct answer.
  2. MAC is reported with a single flat fee regardless of duration
  3. MAC is reported with surgical codes plus modifier 47
  4. MAC is reported with evaluation and management codes only

Explanation

Monitored anesthesia care is reported using the appropriate anesthesia CPT code for the procedure, with base and time units calculated the same way as for general anesthesia. The anesthesia code selected depends on the procedure and the provider's involvement.

Question 39Anesthesia and Sedation

Which qualifying circumstance is reported with modifier 99100?

  1. Anesthesia complicated by emergency conditions
  2. Anesthesia for a patient of extreme age, under 1 year or over 70 years Correct answer.
  3. Anesthesia complicated by utilization of total body hypothermia
  4. Anesthesia for a patient with a controlled disease state

Explanation

Modifier 99100 reports anesthesia for a patient of extreme age, defined as under 1 year or over 70 years. It is added as a qualifying circumstance to the anesthesia code.

Question 40Anesthesia and Sedation

Anesthesia is provided for a procedure and the provider also documents that the patient received total body hypothermia during the case. Which qualifying circumstance code is added?

  1. 99100
  2. 99135
  3. 99116 Correct answer.
  4. 99140

Explanation

Modifier 99116 reports anesthesia complicated by utilization of total body hypothermia. It is a qualifying circumstance added to the base anesthesia code.

Question 41Anesthesia and Sedation

A surgeon requests that the anesthesia provider intentionally lower the patient's blood pressure during a procedure. Which qualifying circumstance code reflects this?

  1. 99135 Correct answer.
  2. 99100
  3. 99140
  4. 99116

Explanation

Modifier 99135 reports anesthesia complicated by controlled hypotension. It is distinct from hypothermia (99116) and emergency conditions (99140).

Question 42Anesthesia and Sedation

Which statement about the physical status modifiers is accurate for anesthesia claims?

  1. Physical status modifiers are required only for MAC cases
  2. Physical status modifiers change the base unit value of the anesthesia code
  3. Physical status modifiers are informational and do not alter payment Correct answer.
  4. Physical status modifiers replace the qualifying circumstance codes

Explanation

Physical status modifiers (P1 through P6) describe the patient's condition and are informational; they do not change the base units or payment. Qualifying circumstance codes, by contrast, may affect units.

Question 43Anesthesia and Sedation

An anesthesia provider begins care for a patient who is declared brain dead and is being maintained for organ procurement. Which ASA physical status applies?

  1. ASA 5
  2. ASA 3
  3. ASA 4
  4. ASA 6 Correct answer.

Explanation

ASA 6 is defined as a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes. It is distinct from ASA 5, a moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation.

Question 44Anesthesia and Sedation

A CRNA administers anesthesia without medical direction by an anesthesiologist. Which modifier is reported on the CRNA claim?

  1. QK
  2. AA
  3. QZ Correct answer.
  4. QX

Explanation

Modifier QZ indicates a CRNA service without medical direction. QX indicates a CRNA service with medical direction by a physician.

Question 45Anesthesia and Sedation

Which situation is most consistent with reporting anesthesia using modifier AA?

  1. The anesthesiologist personally performed the entire anesthesia service Correct answer.
  2. The anesthesiologist medically directed a CRNA
  3. The CRNA provided anesthesia without medical direction
  4. The anesthesiologist supervised more than four concurrent cases

Explanation

Modifier AA indicates the anesthesiologist personally performed the anesthesia service without delegating to a CRNA. It reflects the physician's own hands-on administration.

Question 46Anesthesia and Sedation

Which statement correctly describes how the anesthesia time is defined for reporting purposes?

  1. Time begins when the patient enters the operating room
  2. Time begins when the anesthesia provider starts preparing the patient and ends when the provider is no longer in personal attendance Correct answer.
  3. Time includes the entire recovery room stay
  4. Time begins with the first incision and ends with closure

Explanation

Anesthesia time begins when the anesthesia provider starts preparing the patient for anesthesia and ends when the provider is no longer in personal attendance. It does not include the full recovery room stay.

Question 47Anesthesia and Sedation

An anesthesia service is documented as 2 hours and 10 minutes. How many time units are reported (15-minute increments, partial intervals rounded up)?

  1. 9 units Correct answer.
  2. 10 units
  3. 8 units
  4. 7 units

Explanation

Two hours and ten minutes equals 130 minutes. Dividing by 15 gives 8.67, and rounding the partial interval up yields 9 time units.

Question 48Anesthesia and Sedation

A patient undergoing a procedure has mild systemic disease, well controlled. Which ASA physical status is assigned?

  1. ASA 1
  2. ASA 3
  3. ASA 2 Correct answer.
  4. ASA 4

Explanation

ASA 2 designates a patient with mild systemic disease, such as well-controlled hypertension or diabetes without significant impact. ASA 1 is a normal healthy patient.

Question 49Anesthesia and Sedation

Which code range is used to report anesthesia services in CPT?

  1. 00100 through 01999 Correct answer.
  2. 10000 through 19999
  3. 20000 through 29999
  4. 90000 through 99999

Explanation

Anesthesia services are reported with CPT codes in the 00100 through 01999 range, organized by body region and procedure. Surgical codes in other ranges describe the procedure itself, not the anesthesia service.

Question 50Anesthesia and Sedation

When multiple surgical procedures are performed under a single anesthetic, how are anesthesia base units generally handled?

  1. Base units are averaged across the procedures
  2. Only the base units of the procedure with the highest base value are reported Correct answer.
  3. Base units for each procedure are summed in full
  4. Base units are reported only for the first procedure listed

Explanation

For multiple procedures under one anesthetic, anesthesia coding generally reports the base units of the procedure with the highest base value, with additional procedures addressed per payer rules. This avoids inappropriate summing of base units.