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ABPTS OCS study materials
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ABPTS OCS practice questions

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Question 1Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient reports lateral elbow pain that worsens with resisted wrist extension. Which provocation test is most appropriate to confirm this finding?

  1. Mill test
  2. Finkelstein test
  3. Cozen test Correct answer.
  4. Phalen test

Explanation

Cozen test resists wrist extension with the elbow flexed and forearm pronated, stressing the common extensor origin at the lateral epicondyle. Lateral elbow pain reproduced by this maneuver supports lateral epicondylalgia.

Question 2Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During a knee examination, the therapist performs the Lachman test. Which structure is primarily being assessed?

  1. Medial collateral ligament
  2. Posterior cruciate ligament
  3. Anterior cruciate ligament Correct answer.
  4. Lateral meniscus

Explanation

The Lachman test applies an anterior tibial translation force with the knee slightly flexed to assess anterior cruciate ligament integrity. It is considered highly sensitive for ACL rupture.

Question 3Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient presents with insidious onset of shoulder pain and a positive drop arm test. Which structure is most likely involved?

  1. Pectoralis major tendon
  2. Long head of biceps tendon
  3. Supraspinatus tendon Correct answer.
  4. Subscapularis tendon

Explanation

The drop arm test assesses the ability to control the arm in abduction and lowering, and a positive result suggests a supraspinatus tear. Inability to smoothly lower the arm reflects dysfunction of the rotator cuff, particularly supraspinatus.

Question 4Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with suspected cervical radiculopathy at C6 reports weakness. Which motion is most likely impaired?

  1. Elbow flexion Correct answer.
  2. Shoulder abduction
  3. Finger abduction
  4. Elbow extension

Explanation

The C6 myotome primarily innervates the biceps brachii and brachioradialis, contributing to elbow flexion. C6 radiculopathy typically produces weakness in elbow flexion and wrist extension.

Question 5Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient demonstrates a positive Spurling test. Which finding does this test most directly support?

  1. Vertebral artery insufficiency
  2. Upper cervical ligamentous laxity
  3. Cervical facet joint instability
  4. Cervical nerve root compression Correct answer.

Explanation

The Spurling test combines cervical extension, sidebending, and axial compression to narrow the intervertebral foramen. Reproduction of radicular symptoms suggests nerve root compression.

Question 6Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During gait observation, a patient demonstrates excessive hip hiking and circumduction on the right. Which finding is most consistent with this pattern?

  1. Hip flexor contracture
  2. Leg length discrepancy
  3. Knee hyperextension
  4. Foot drop Correct answer.

Explanation

Foot drop from dorsiflexor weakness prevents the patient from clearing the foot during swing, so compensatory hip hiking and circumduction are used. These strategies increase ground clearance.

Question 7Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A therapist observes a patient with a Trendelenburg sign on the left during single-limb stance. Which muscle group is most likely impaired?

  1. Left hip abductors Correct answer.
  2. Right hip flexors
  3. Left hip adductors
  4. Right hip extensors

Explanation

The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the stance-limb hip abductors, primarily the gluteus medius. Inability to stabilize the pelvis results in contralateral pelvic drop.

Question 8Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient reports anterior knee pain that is worse with prolonged sitting and descending stairs. Which examination finding is most consistent with patellofemoral pain syndrome?

  1. Positive varus stress test
  2. Positive posterior drawer
  3. Positive McMurray test
  4. Positive Clarke sign Correct answer.

Explanation

Clarke sign (patellar grind) reproduces retropatellar pain by compressing the patella against the femur during quadriceps contraction. It supports patellofemoral pain when clinical features align.

Question 9Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

Which finding on examination most strongly suggests an upper motor neuron lesion rather than a lower motor neuron lesion?

  1. Fasciculations
  2. Hyperreflexia Correct answer.
  3. Hyporeflexia
  4. Muscle atrophy

Explanation

Upper motor neuron lesions produce increased deep tendon reflexes, spasticity, and pathologic reflexes. Lower motor neuron lesions produce hyporeflexia, atrophy, and fasciculations.

Question 10Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with acute low back pain reports pain radiating below the knee and paresthesia in the lateral foot. Which nerve root is most likely involved?

  1. L5
  2. S1 Correct answer.
  3. L4
  4. L3

Explanation

The S1 nerve root supplies the lateral foot and sole, and its compression commonly produces paresthesia in that distribution. The Achilles reflex may be diminished.

Question 11Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During a shoulder examination, the therapist notes pain and weakness with resisted external rotation and a positive Hornblower sign. Which structure is most likely involved?

  1. Teres minor Correct answer.
  2. Biceps long head
  3. Subscapularis
  4. Supraspinatus

Explanation

The Hornblower sign assesses the teres minor, which assists external rotation. Weakness or inability to maintain external rotation suggests teres minor dysfunction.

Question 12Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient presents with a positive FABER test reproducing posterior hip pain. What does this finding most suggest?

  1. Adductor strain
  2. Hip labral or sacroiliac pathology Correct answer.
  3. Greater trochanteric bursitis
  4. Femoral neck fracture

Explanation

The FABER (Patrick) test flexes, abducts, and externally rotates the hip, stressing the anterior hip and sacroiliac region. Posterior pain may indicate sacroiliac or posterior hip pathology, while anterior pain suggests hip joint involvement.

Question 13Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During cranial nerve screening, a patient is unable to shrug the shoulders against resistance. Which cranial nerve is most likely impaired?

  1. CN XII
  2. CN XI Correct answer.
  3. CN VII
  4. CN IX

Explanation

Cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory) innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid, which elevate and rotate the scapula and shrug the shoulders. Weakness against resistance indicates CN XI dysfunction.

Question 14Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient demonstrates a positive Ober test. Which structure is most likely shortened?

  1. Iliopsoas
  2. Iliotibial band and tensor fasciae latae Correct answer.
  3. Hamstrings
  4. Rectus femoris

Explanation

The Ober test assesses the iliotibial band and tensor fasciae latae by abducting and extending the hip and allowing the limb to drop. Failure to adduct indicates tightness of these structures.

Question 15Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome reports night pain and numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Which test is most specific for confirming this diagnosis?

  1. Phalen test
  2. Two-point discrimination
  3. Tinel sign at the wrist
  4. Durkan compression test Correct answer.

Explanation

The Durkan (carpal compression) test applies direct pressure over the carpal tunnel and has high sensitivity and specificity for carpal tunnel syndrome. It produces symptoms by compressing the median nerve.

Question 16Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient reports shoulder pain with overhead activity and has a positive Neer impingement sign but negative Hawkins-Kennedy test. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. Findings indicate adhesive capsulitis
  2. Findings support subacromial impingement
  3. Findings are inconsistent and suggest alternative diagnosis Correct answer.
  4. Findings confirm full-thickness rotator cuff tear

Explanation

A positive Neer sign with a negative Hawkins-Kennedy test produces mixed evidence for subacromial impingement. When special tests conflict, the clinician should consider alternative diagnoses and correlate with other findings.

Question 17Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with suspected lateral ankle sprain has swelling and tenderness over the anterior talofibular ligament. Which test is most appropriate to assess ligament integrity?

  1. Talar tilt test
  2. Anterior drawer test Correct answer.
  3. Squeeze test
  4. External rotation stress test

Explanation

The anterior drawer test assesses the anterior talofibular ligament by translating the talus anteriorly relative to the tibia. Increased translation suggests ATFL rupture.

Question 18Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient presents with a positive Thessaly test at 20 degrees of knee flexion. Which structure is most likely involved?

  1. Medial collateral ligament
  2. Patellar tendon
  3. Meniscus Correct answer.
  4. Anterior cruciate ligament

Explanation

The Thessaly test loads the knee in flexion with rotation and is designed to reproduce meniscal pathology. A positive result supports meniscal injury.

Question 19Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A therapist performs the empty can (Jobe) test on a patient. Which motion is being resisted?

  1. Shoulder external rotation
  2. Shoulder abduction in internal rotation Correct answer.
  3. Shoulder flexion
  4. Shoulder adduction

Explanation

The empty can test resists shoulder abduction with the arm in internal rotation (thumb down), isolating the supraspinatus. Pain or weakness suggests supraspinatus pathology.

Question 20Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During examination, a patient has pain with active and passive cervical rotation to the right and reports dizziness. Which condition should be ruled out before continuing?

  1. Cervical facet arthropathy
  2. Cervical radiculopathy
  3. Thoracic outlet syndrome
  4. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency Correct answer.

Explanation

Dizziness with cervical rotation may indicate vertebrobasilar insufficiency, which requires screening before further cervical manipulation or testing. The vertebral artery test assesses for this.

Question 21Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient demonstrates a positive Thomas test with the knee extending during the test. Which structure is most likely tight?

  1. Rectus femoris Correct answer.
  2. Gastrocnemius
  3. Hamstrings
  4. Iliopsoas

Explanation

Knee extension during the Thomas test indicates rectus femoris tightness because the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee. Hip flexor tightness alone would not produce knee extension.

Question 22Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient reports weakness when lifting the arm overhead and has a positive lift-off test. Which structure is most likely impaired?

  1. Teres minor
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Subscapularis Correct answer.
  4. Supraspinatus

Explanation

The lift-off test assesses the subscapularis by having the patient internally rotate and lift the hand off the back. Inability to do so suggests subscapularis dysfunction.

Question 23Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient presents with a positive Phalen test and thenar atrophy. Which nerve is most likely compressed?

  1. Ulnar nerve
  2. Posterior interosseous nerve
  3. Radial nerve
  4. Median nerve Correct answer.

Explanation

Phalen test compresses the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, and thenar atrophy reflects advanced median nerve compression. These findings support carpal tunnel syndrome.

Question 24Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with suspected sacroiliac joint dysfunction has pain with the thigh thrust test. What is the primary force applied during this test?

  1. Posterior shear of the ilium on the sacrum Correct answer.
  2. Anterior-to-posterior force through the femur
  3. Lateral compression of the pelvis
  4. Distraction of the pubic symphysis

Explanation

The thigh thrust test applies a posterior shear force through the femur to stress the sacroiliac joint. Reproduction of familiar pain suggests SI joint involvement.

Question 25Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with a suspected Achilles tendon rupture demonstrates a positive Thompson test. Which finding is expected?

  1. Plantar flexion occurs with calf squeeze
  2. Inversion occurs with calf squeeze
  3. No plantar flexion occurs with calf squeeze Correct answer.
  4. Dorsiflexion occurs with calf squeeze

Explanation

The Thompson test squeezes the calf; an intact Achilles tendon produces plantar flexion. Absence of plantar flexion indicates Achilles tendon rupture.

Question 26Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A therapist is evaluating a patient with shoulder pain. To assess for subscapularis pathology, which test is most appropriate?

  1. Drop arm test
  2. Empty can test
  3. Hawkins-Kennedy test
  4. Lift-off test Correct answer.

Explanation

The lift-off test specifically assesses the subscapularis by having the patient internally rotate the arm behind the back and lift the hand off the lumbar spine. The other tests assess different structures: empty can for supraspinatus, Hawkins-Kennedy for impingement, and drop arm for rotator cuff tear (often supraspinatus).

Question 27Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During a knee examination, a therapist performs the Lachman test. Which structure is primarily being assessed?

  1. Medial collateral ligament
  2. Posterior cruciate ligament
  3. Anterior cruciate ligament Correct answer.
  4. Lateral meniscus

Explanation

The Lachman test evaluates the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) by assessing anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur with the knee slightly flexed. It is considered highly sensitive for ACL tears.

Question 28Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient presents with insidious onset of lateral elbow pain. The therapist suspects lateral epicondylalgia. Which examination finding would most support this diagnosis?

  1. Pain with resisted wrist extension Correct answer.
  2. Positive Tinel sign at the cubital tunnel
  3. Decreased sensation in the little finger
  4. Pain with resisted wrist flexion

Explanation

Lateral epicondylalgia involves the common extensor tendon origin, so resisted wrist extension typically reproduces pain. Resisted wrist flexion would stress the medial epicondyle, and cubital tunnel or ulnar nerve findings would suggest a different diagnosis.

Question 29Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A therapist is evaluating a patient with dizziness and suspected benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). Which test is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?

  1. Head thrust test
  2. Dix-Hallpike maneuver Correct answer.
  3. Fukuda stepping test
  4. Romberg test

Explanation

The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is the gold standard for diagnosing posterior canal BPPV, as it provokes vertigo and nystagmus by moving the otoconia. The other tests assess different aspects of balance or vestibular function.

Question 30Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient reports pain in the posterior thigh that worsens with sitting. The therapist performs the slump test, which reproduces the patient's symptoms. What does this finding most likely indicate?

  1. Lumbar disc herniation with nerve root compression Correct answer.
  2. Hamstring strain
  3. Hip osteoarthritis
  4. Sacroiliac joint dysfunction

Explanation

The slump test is a neurodynamic test that assesses the mechanosensitivity of the neuromeningeal tract. A positive test reproducing the patient's symptoms suggests nerve root compression, often from a lumbar disc herniation.

Question 31Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During an examination of a patient with shoulder pain, the therapist notes a positive Speed's test. Which structure is most likely involved?

  1. Supraspinatus tendon
  2. Acromioclavicular joint
  3. Long head of the biceps brachii Correct answer.
  4. Subscapularis muscle

Explanation

Speed's test is used to assess for bicipital tendinopathy or superior labral anterior-posterior (SLAP) lesions by resisting shoulder flexion with the elbow extended and forearm supinated. Pain in the bicipital groove suggests involvement of the long head of the biceps.

Question 32Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A therapist is evaluating a patient with lateral hip pain. The patient has a positive Ober test. Which structure is most likely tight?

  1. Iliotibial band Correct answer.
  2. Hip adductors
  3. Rectus femoris
  4. Hip flexors

Explanation

The Ober test assesses the flexibility of the iliotibial band and tensor fasciae latae. A positive test indicates tightness in these structures, which can contribute to lateral hip pain.

Question 33Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with knee pain has a positive McMurray test with a palpable click on the medial side. What does this finding most likely indicate?

  1. Lateral meniscus tear
  2. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
  3. Medial meniscus tear Correct answer.
  4. Patellofemoral pain syndrome

Explanation

The McMurray test is performed by rotating the tibia and flexing/extending the knee. A click or pain on the medial joint line suggests a medial meniscus tear, while lateral symptoms would suggest a lateral meniscus tear.

Question 34Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During a cervical examination, a therapist performs the Spurling test. Which finding is considered positive?

  1. Increased cervical rotation range of motion
  2. Dizziness and nystagmus
  3. Reproduction of radicular symptoms into the arm Correct answer.
  4. Local neck pain only

Explanation

The Spurling test is performed by extending, sidebending, and rotating the head to the symptomatic side, which narrows the intervertebral foramen. A positive test reproduces radicular symptoms (pain, numbness, tingling) in the corresponding dermatome, suggesting cervical nerve root compression.

Question 35Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with ankle pain has a positive anterior drawer test. Which ligament is most likely injured?

  1. Deltoid ligament
  2. Calcaneofibular ligament
  3. Posterior talofibular ligament
  4. Anterior talofibular ligament Correct answer.

Explanation

The anterior drawer test of the ankle assesses the integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL). Increased anterior translation of the talus indicates an ATFL sprain, the most common ankle ligament injury.

Question 36Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A therapist is evaluating a patient with suspected thoracic outlet syndrome. Which test is most appropriate to assess for subclavian artery compression?

  1. Roos test
  2. Wright test Correct answer.
  3. Allen test
  4. Adson maneuver

Explanation

The Wright test (hyperabduction maneuver) specifically assesses for compression of the subclavian artery and brachial plexus under the pectoralis minor. The Adson maneuver assesses the scalene triangle, and the Roos test assesses general thoracic outlet syndrome.

Question 37Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient presents with shoulder pain and weakness. The therapist performs the external rotation lag sign, which is positive. Which muscle is most likely involved?

  1. Teres minor
  2. Supraspinatus
  3. Subscapularis
  4. Infraspinatus Correct answer.

Explanation

The external rotation lag sign assesses the infraspinatus and teres minor, but primarily the infraspinatus. A positive test indicates a tear or weakness of the infraspinatus tendon, as the patient cannot maintain external rotation.

Question 38Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with low back pain has a positive prone instability test. What does this finding most likely indicate?

  1. Sacroiliac joint dysfunction
  2. Lumbar flexion instability
  3. Hip flexor tightness
  4. Lumbar extension instability Correct answer.

Explanation

The prone instability test assesses for lumbar extension instability. A positive test (pain provocation with posterior-anterior pressure on the lumbar spine in extension) suggests instability, often associated with spondylolisthesis.

Question 39Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

During a hip examination, a therapist performs the FADIR test (flexion, adduction, internal rotation). A positive test reproducing anterior hip pain is most suggestive of which condition?

  1. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome
  2. Femoroacetabular impingement Correct answer.
  3. Adductor strain
  4. Hip osteoarthritis

Explanation

The FADIR test is highly sensitive for femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and labral tears. It narrows the anterior joint space, reproducing pain in individuals with FAI.

Question 40Musculoskeletal Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnosis

A patient with neck pain and upper extremity paresthesia undergoes the cervical distraction test. Which finding is considered positive for cervical radiculopathy?

  1. Relief of symptoms Correct answer.
  2. Increase in blood pressure
  3. Nystagmus
  4. Reproduction of symptoms

Explanation

The cervical distraction test is positive for cervical radiculopathy when it relieves the patient's radicular symptoms, as it opens the intervertebral foramen and reduces pressure on the nerve root. Reproduction of symptoms would be more consistent with a positive Spurling test.

Question 41Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

A patient is positioned prone with the knee flexed to 90 degrees and the hip in neutral extension during a hamstring flexibility intervention. Which parameter should be documented to track the progression of this stretching technique?

  1. The duration and intensity of the stretch Correct answer.
  2. The patient's resting heart rate
  3. The number of repetitions of active knee flexion
  4. The amount of ankle dorsiflexion

Explanation

Progressive stretching is dosed by parameters such as hold duration, frequency, and intensity (to the point of tolerable stretch). These are the modifiable variables that determine tissue response and should be recorded to guide progression.

Question 42Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

During a joint mobilization graded as a Maitland grade III, which movement characteristic best describes the applied technique?

  1. A large-amplitude oscillation reaching into tissue resistance Correct answer.
  2. A large-amplitude movement through the entire available range
  3. A small-amplitude oscillation at the beginning of range
  4. A small-amplitude oscillation at the end of available range

Explanation

Grade III is a large-amplitude oscillation that moves into tissue resistance but not beyond it. This distinguishes it from grade IV, which is a small-amplitude oscillation at the end of range.

Question 43Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

A therapist performs a posterior-to-anterior glide on the tibia with the patient's knee positioned in slight flexion. What is the primary mechanical effect of this mobilization direction at the knee?

  1. Increases patellar mobility
  2. Increases knee extension range
  3. Increases tibial external rotation
  4. Increases knee flexion range Correct answer.

Explanation

A posterior-to-anterior glide of the tibia on the femur is used to promote knee flexion, because the tibia must move posteriorly on the femur during flexion. The treatment plane and glide direction are chosen to match the arthrokinematic motion being restricted.

Question 44Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

Which intervention is most appropriate in the acute phase after a grade II lateral ankle sprain to limit secondary hypomobility?

  1. High-load plyometric training
  2. Protected range-of-motion exercise within pain limits Correct answer.
  3. Aggressive end-range talocrural stretching
  4. Prolonged immobilization in a cast

Explanation

Early protected motion within a pain-free range helps maintain mobility and limits the development of secondary hypomobility after a ligament injury. Aggressive end-range stress and immobilization are both avoided in the acute phase.

Question 45Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

A patient cannot actively flex the knee against gravity but has full passive knee flexion. Which strengthening approach is most appropriate to initiate quadriceps and hamstring activation?

  1. Active-assisted exercise in a gravity-eliminated position Correct answer.
  2. Eccentric loading against maximal resistance
  3. High-velocity isotonic exercise
  4. Isometric exercise at end-range extension only

Explanation

When a muscle cannot move a joint against gravity, exercise should begin in a gravity-eliminated or active-assisted position to allow successful contraction. Resistance and velocity are progressed only after antigravity control is achieved.

Question 46Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique involves the patient actively contracting the agonist while the therapist applies resistance throughout the movement pattern?

  1. Hold-relax
  2. Rhythmic stabilization
  3. Contract-relax
  4. Agonist reversals Correct answer.

Explanation

Agonist reversals use resisted concentric contraction of the agonist pattern to facilitate and strengthen it. Hold-relax and contract-relax are relaxation techniques applied to the antagonist.

Question 47Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

A therapist applies a mobilization with movement (Mulligan concept) to the shoulder for painful elevation. What is the defining feature of this technique?

  1. A high-velocity thrust is applied at end range
  2. The joint is distracted continuously for several minutes at rest
  3. A sustained accessory glide is maintained while the patient actively performs the painful motion Correct answer.
  4. A passive stretch is held for 30 seconds after the movement

Explanation

Mobilization with movement pairs a sustained accessory glide with active patient motion, ideally producing immediate pain reduction or improved range. It is not a thrust technique and does not rely on post-movement static stretching.

Question 48Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

During soft tissue mobilization of a scar, the therapist notes blanching and the patient reports sharp pain. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Continue at the same pressure to desensitize
  2. Reduce pressure and reassess tissue response Correct answer.
  3. Apply ice directly over the area during treatment
  4. Increase pressure to break adhesions

Explanation

Blanching and sharp pain indicate excessive pressure that may compromise local tissue perfusion. The clinician should reduce force and reassess before continuing, progressing only within tissue tolerance.

Question 49Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

Which mode of therapeutic ultrasound is most appropriate for heating deeper tissues such as the hip joint capsule?

  1. Pulsed 3 MHz
  2. Continuous 1 MHz Correct answer.
  3. Continuous 3 MHz
  4. Pulsed 1 MHz

Explanation

Continuous 1 MHz delivers thermal effects at greater depth, which suits deeper structures like the hip capsule. Higher frequency (3 MHz) heats more superficially, and pulsed modes are used for nonthermal effects.

Question 50Musculoskeletal Interventions and Procedural Techniques

A patient is prescribed cryotherapy after an acute ankle injury. Which physiologic effect is the primary rationale for this intervention?

  1. Reduced local blood flow and pain Correct answer.
  2. Increased collagen extensibility
  3. Vasodilation and increased edema
  4. Increased nerve conduction velocity

Explanation

Cold application produces vasoconstriction, reduces local blood flow, and decreases pain via reduced nerve conduction. These effects support its use in acute injury management.