I85PREP
⌘ K
ABS General Surgery study materials
ABS General Surgery study resources

ABS General Surgery practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ABS General Surgery understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Alimentary Tract

A 24-year-old man has periumbilical pain that migrates to the right lower quadrant over 12 hours, with anorexia, low-grade fever, and tenderness at McBurney's point. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Acute cholecystitis
  2. Acute diverticulitis
  3. Acute appendicitis Correct answer.
  4. Small bowel obstruction

Explanation

Pain that begins periumbilically (visceral, midgut-derived) and localizes to the right lower quadrant when parietal peritoneum is irritated is the classic migration pattern of appendicitis. Associated anorexia and low-grade fever support this.

Question 2Alimentary Tract

Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of acute pancreatitis?

  1. Elevated carcinoembryonic antigen
  2. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase
  3. Elevated serum lipase greater than three times the upper limit of normal Correct answer.
  4. Elevated D-dimer

Explanation

Lipase elevation more than three times the upper reference limit is a recognized diagnostic criterion for acute pancreatitis. It is more specific than amylase and remains elevated longer.

Question 3Alimentary Tract

A patient has a firm, painless mass in the right colon and iron-deficiency anemia. Which diagnosis should be highest on the differential?

  1. Ischemic colitis
  2. Acute appendicitis
  3. Ulcerative colitis
  4. Colorectal adenocarcinoma Correct answer.

Explanation

Right-sided colon cancers often grow as bulky masses and bleed chronically, producing iron-deficiency anemia without obstruction because the right colon lumen is wide. Painless mass with anemia is the typical presentation.

Question 4Alimentary Tract

Which organism is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease in the absence of NSAID use?

  1. Campylobacter jejuni
  2. Helicobacter pylori Correct answer.
  3. Clostridioides difficile
  4. Giardia lamblia

Explanation

Helicobacter pylori colonizes gastric mucosa and is the leading infectious cause of peptic ulcer disease. Eradication reduces ulcer recurrence.

Question 5Alimentary Tract

A patient presents with painless jaundice, a palpable distended gallbladder, and weight loss. Which diagnosis does this triad suggest?

  1. Pancreatic head carcinoma Correct answer.
  2. Viral hepatitis
  3. Choledocholithiasis
  4. Acute cholecystitis

Explanation

Courvoisier's sign-a palpable, nontender gallbladder with jaundice-suggests malignant obstruction of the distal common bile duct, classically pancreatic head cancer. Chronic stone disease usually fibroses the gallbladder and prevents distension.

Question 6Alimentary Tract

A 55-year-old man has left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. CT shows a pericolic abscess adjacent to the sigmoid colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Crohn disease of the terminal ileum
  2. Ischemic colitis of the right colon
  3. Acute diverticulitis with abscess Correct answer.
  4. Acute appendicitis

Explanation

Diverticulitis typically affects the sigmoid colon in older adults, producing LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis. Pericolic abscess is a common complication seen on CT.

Question 7Alimentary Tract

Which finding best distinguishes mechanical small bowel obstruction from paralytic ileus?

  1. Nausea and vomiting
  2. Presence of abdominal distension
  3. Absent bowel sounds with diffuse constant distension
  4. High-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds with colicky pain Correct answer.

Explanation

Mechanical obstruction produces hyperactive, high-pitched bowel sounds as the bowel works against a blockage, along with colicky pain. Ileus is characterized by absent or hypoactive bowel sounds and constant discomfort.

Question 8Alimentary Tract

A 30-year-old woman reports dysphagia to solids and liquids together with Raynaud phenomenon and skin tightening of the fingers. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Achalasia
  2. Diffuse esophageal spasm
  3. Scleroderma esophagus Correct answer.
  4. Esophageal cancer

Explanation

Scleroderma produces smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis of the distal esophagus, causing dysmotility and reflux, and is part of the CREST syndrome with Raynaud and skin changes. Dysphagia to both solids and liquids points to a motility disorder.

Question 9Alimentary Tract

Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of a strangulated hernia?

  1. The blood supply to the herniated bowel is compromised, risking ischemia and necrosis Correct answer.
  2. The hernia is reducible but enlarges over time
  3. The hernia sac contains only omentum
  4. The hernia reduces spontaneously with rest

Explanation

Strangulation occurs when the neck of the hernia compresses the mesentery and blood supply, leading to ischemia and potential necrosis. It is a surgical emergency.

Question 10Alimentary Tract

A 68-year-old smoker has progressive solid-food dysphagia and unintentional weight loss. Which diagnostic step should follow initial evaluation?

  1. Esophageal manometry
  2. Upper endoscopy with biopsy Correct answer.
  3. Trial of proton pump inhibitor
  4. Barium swallow alone

Explanation

Endoscopy with biopsy is the diagnostic standard for suspected esophageal malignancy, allowing direct visualization and tissue confirmation. Barium studies and empiric therapy do not provide a tissue diagnosis.

Question 11Alimentary Tract

Which feature is most consistent with a diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischemia?

  1. Bloody diarrhea with tenesmus
  2. Pain out of proportion to physical findings Correct answer.
  3. Painless jaundice
  4. Right upper quadrant pain after fatty meals

Explanation

Early acute mesenteric ischemia classically causes severe pain with a relatively benign abdominal exam because ischemia precedes transmural infarction. Later findings include peritonitis and metabolic acidosis.

Question 12Alimentary Tract

A 42-year-old man has bright red blood per rectum and a soft, painless perianal mass that reduces after defecation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Anal fissure
  2. Internal hemorrhoids Correct answer.
  3. Fistula-in-ano
  4. Perianal abscess

Explanation

Internal hemorrhoids arise above the dentate line, are insensate, and characteristically cause painless bright red bleeding with prolapse that may reduce. Pain suggests an alternative diagnosis.

Question 13Alimentary Tract

Which finding on CT is most suggestive of acute appendicitis?

  1. A dilated appendix greater than 6 mm with periappendiceal fat stranding Correct answer.
  2. A gallbladder with wall thickening
  3. A sigmoid colon with diverticula
  4. A collapsed appendix with air in the lumen

Explanation

Appendiceal diameter greater than 6 mm with periappendiceal inflammation and fat stranding is the CT hallmark of acute appendicitis. Nonvisualization or a collapsed lumen argues against it.

Question 14Alimentary Tract

A patient with cirrhosis has hematemesis and hypotension from suspected variceal bleeding. Which pharmacologic agent is used to reduce portal pressure acutely?

  1. Octreotide Correct answer.
  2. Metoclopramide
  3. Ondansetron
  4. Norepinephrine

Explanation

Octreotide, a somatostatin analog, causes splanchnic vasoconstriction and reduces portal venous pressure in acute variceal hemorrhage. It is given alongside resuscitation and endoscopic therapy.

Question 15Alimentary Tract

Which is the most appropriate initial management for a hemodynamically stable patient with a first episode of uncomplicated sigmoid diverticulitis?

  1. Outpatient oral antibiotics and a liquid or low-residue diet Correct answer.
  2. Percutaneous drainage
  3. Intravenous steroids
  4. Immediate sigmoid colectomy

Explanation

Uncomplicated diverticulitis in a stable outpatient is managed with bowel rest and oral antibiotics, with surgery reserved for complications or recurrent severe disease. Abscesses require drainage.

Question 16Alimentary Tract

A 60-year-old woman has a 2-cm firm mass in the left colon and a carcinoembryonic antigen level of 18 ng/mL. What does the CEA level most appropriately serve as?

  1. A marker of acute inflammation
  2. A diagnostic test confirming malignancy
  3. A screening test for colorectal cancer
  4. A prognostic marker and tool for postoperative surveillance Correct answer.

Explanation

CEA is not sensitive or specific enough for screening or diagnosis but is useful for prognosis and for monitoring recurrence after resection. Rising values after surgery suggest recurrence.

Question 17Alimentary Tract

A patient develops a fistula draining enteric contents after abdominal surgery. Which principle best guides initial management of a stable, low-output enterocutaneous fistula?

  1. Bowel rest, nutritional support, and control of sepsis with drainage Correct answer.
  2. Immediate surgical closure of the fistula
  3. Oral antibiotics alone
  4. High-fiber diet to bulk the effluent

Explanation

Most enterocutaneous fistulas are managed initially with sepsis control, bowel rest, and adequate nutrition, allowing many to close spontaneously. Surgery is delayed unless complications mandate earlier intervention.

Question 18Alimentary Tract

Which statement about the blood supply of the colon is correct?

  1. The cecum is supplied by the left colic artery
  2. The splenic flexure is a watershed area between the middle and left colic arteries Correct answer.
  3. The transverse colon is supplied only by the inferior mesenteric artery
  4. The rectum is supplied solely by the inferior mesenteric artery

Explanation

The splenic flexure (Griffiths point) lies at the junction of the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial territories and is vulnerable to ischemia. The rectum has a dual supply from the IMA and internal iliac branches.

Question 19Alimentary Tract

A patient has a painful, fluctuant perianal swelling with fever. What is the most appropriate treatment?

  1. Incision and drainage Correct answer.
  2. Oral antibiotics alone
  3. Topical corticosteroids
  4. Sitz baths alone

Explanation

An anorectal abscess requires prompt incision and drainage to relieve pain and prevent progression to sepsis or fistula. Antibiotics are adjunctive, not definitive.

Question 20Alimentary Tract

Which clinical feature most strongly suggests a diagnosis of achalasia?

  1. Odynophagia with oral ulcers
  2. Dysphagia to solids only, progressing over months
  3. Regurgitation of undigested food with halitosis only
  4. Dysphagia to both solids and liquids from the onset Correct answer.

Explanation

Achalasia is a motility disorder of the lower esophageal sphincter and body, so dysphagia affects both solids and liquids early. Mechanical obstruction typically causes dysphagia to solids first.

Question 21Alimentary Tract

A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation develops sudden severe abdominal pain and an elevated lactate, with a relatively unremarkable exam. Which imaging study is most appropriate?

  1. Abdominal ultrasound
  2. Upper gastrointestinal series
  3. CT angiography of the abdomen and pelvis Correct answer.
  4. Plain abdominal radiograph

Explanation

Suspected acute mesenteric ischemia from an embolic source requires CT angiography to identify arterial occlusion and assess bowel viability. Plain films are nonspecific and may be normal early.

Question 22Alimentary Tract

Which risk factor is most strongly associated with the development of gastric adenocarcinoma?

  1. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
  2. Chronic Helicobacter pylori infection Correct answer.
  3. Chronic constipation
  4. Lactose intolerance

Explanation

Chronic H. pylori infection causes atrophic gastritis and intestinal metaplasia, which are key steps in gastric carcinogenesis. It is a major modifiable risk factor.

Question 23Alimentary Tract

A patient has a deep, chronic anal fissure failing conservative therapy. Which surgical treatment is most appropriate?

  1. Hemorrhoidectomy
  2. Seton placement
  3. Fistulotomy
  4. Lateral internal sphincterotomy Correct answer.

Explanation

Chronic anal fissure results from internal anal sphincter hypertonia; lateral internal sphincterotomy relieves spasm and promotes healing when medical therapy fails.

Question 24Alimentary Tract

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden severe epigastric pain, board-like rigidity, and free air under the diaphragm. Which complication has occurred?

  1. Perforated peptic ulcer Correct answer.
  2. Penetration into the pancreas
  3. Bleeding peptic ulcer
  4. Gastric outlet obstruction

Explanation

Free intraperitoneal air with a rigid abdomen indicates a perforated viscus, most often a perforated peptic ulcer in this setting. This is a surgical emergency requiring operative repair.

Question 25Alimentary Tract

Which finding best supports a diagnosis of Crohn disease rather than ulcerative colitis?

  1. Pseudopolyps confined to the mucosa
  2. Crypt abscesses confined to the mucosa
  3. Skip lesions with transmural inflammation and perianal involvement Correct answer.
  4. Continuous mucosal disease beginning at the rectum

Explanation

Crohn disease is characterized by transmural, segmental inflammation with skip lesions, and often perianal fistulas or fissures. Ulcerative colitis is continuous and mucosal, beginning in the rectum.

Question 26Alimentary Tract

Which anatomic landmark is used to define the junction between the foregut and the midgut in the adult gastrointestinal tract?

  1. The hepatopancreatic ampulla Correct answer.
  2. The pectinate line
  3. The ligament of Treitz
  4. The ileocecal valve

Explanation

The foregut extends to the level of the major duodenal papilla (hepatopancreatic ampulla), where the midgut begins; this boundary determines arterial supply (celiac versus superior mesenteric) and lymphatic drainage. The ligament of Treitz and ileocecal valve lie within the midgut, and the pectinate line marks the anorectal transition.

Question 27Alimentary Tract

A 45-year-old man has a 3-cm firm mass in the right colon. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. Which lymph node group is the primary echelon of spread for this tumor?

  1. Deep inguinal nodes
  2. Left gastric nodes along the lesser curve
  3. Epicolic and paracolic nodes along the draining vessels of that segment Correct answer.
  4. Internal iliac nodes

Explanation

Colonic lymphatics drain first to epicolic and paracolic nodes adjacent to the bowel wall, then to intermediate and principal nodes along the named arteries. Inguinal, left gastric, and internal iliac basins are not first-echelon drainage for a right colon cancer.

Question 28Alimentary Tract

A 58-year-old woman has a 2.5-cm submucosal gastric mass with normal overlying mucosa on endoscopy. Endoscopic ultrasound shows a hypoechoic lesion arising from the muscularis propria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Gastric adenocarcinoma
  2. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor Correct answer.
  3. Gastric lymphoma
  4. MALT lymphoma

Explanation

A well-circumscribed submucosal gastric mass with intact mucosa that arises from the muscularis propria on EUS is characteristic of a gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). Adenocarcinoma and lymphoma typically produce mucosal ulceration or diffuse thickening rather than a discrete subepithelial lesion.

Question 29Alimentary Tract

Which finding best supports a diagnosis of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis on CT?

  1. Portal venous gas
  2. Pericolic fat stranding with colonic wall thickening Correct answer.
  3. Pneumatosis intestinalis
  4. Free intraperitoneal air under the diaphragm

Explanation

Uncomplicated diverticulitis shows segmental colonic wall thickening with pericolic inflammatory fat stranding, often with diverticula. Free air, portal venous gas, and pneumatosis suggest perforation or ischemia rather than uncomplicated disease.

Question 30Abdomen and its Contents

A 24-year-old man has right lower quadrant pain, fever, and tenderness at McBurney's point. Which structure is the base of the appendix most commonly attached to?

  1. The terminal ileum, at the ileocecal valve
  2. The cecum, at the convergence of the taeniae coli Correct answer.
  3. The anterior surface of the sacrum
  4. The posterior wall of the ascending colon

Explanation

The appendix arises from the posteromedial aspect of the cecum where the three taeniae coli converge, roughly 2 cm below the ileocecal valve. This landmark is used to locate the appendix during surgery.

Question 31Abdomen and its Contents

Which peritoneal structure normally contains the left gastric vessels and forms the superior border of the omental bursa?

  1. The gastrocolic ligament
  2. The gastrosplenic ligament
  3. The hepatoduodenal ligament
  4. The gastrohepatic (lesser omentum) ligament Correct answer.

Explanation

The lesser omentum connects the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach; its free edge is the hepatoduodenal ligament, while the gastrohepatic portion carries the left gastric vessels along the lesser curvature. It forms the anterior wall of the omental bursa.

Question 32Abdomen and its Contents

A patient has a direct inguinal hernia. Through which region does it protrude?

  1. The femoral canal, medial to the femoral vein
  2. The Hesselbach triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric vessels Correct answer.
  3. The obturator canal, through the obturator membrane
  4. The deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels

Explanation

Direct inguinal hernias bulge through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal in Hesselbach's triangle, which is bounded medially by the rectus sheath, laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament. Indirect hernias instead enter the deep ring lateral to those vessels.

Question 33Abdomen and its Contents

Which artery supplies the midgut, including the cecum, ascending colon, and proximal transverse colon?

  1. The internal iliac artery
  2. The celiac trunk
  3. The superior mesenteric artery Correct answer.
  4. The inferior mesenteric artery

Explanation

The superior mesenteric artery supplies the midgut from the distal duodenum to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut from the distal transverse colon to the upper rectum.

Question 34Abdomen and its Contents

Which structure lies immediately anterior to the aorta at the level of the L1 vertebra and crosses it?

  1. The left renal vein Correct answer.
  2. The inferior vena cava
  3. The superior mesenteric artery
  4. The portal vein

Explanation

The left renal vein passes anterior to the aorta between the SMA and the aorta to reach the IVC. Its longer course and anterior position make it vulnerable during aortic surgery.

Question 35Abdomen and its Contents

A 45-year-old woman has epigastric pain, and imaging shows a stone impacted at the ampulla of Vater. Which structure is most directly obstructed at this site?

  1. The main pancreatic duct only
  2. The cystic duct
  3. The common bile duct and main pancreatic duct, which share a common channel Correct answer.
  4. The left hepatic duct

Explanation

The ampulla of Vater is where the common bile duct and main pancreatic duct join and enter the second part of the duodenum. An impacted stone there obstructs both ducts, causing jaundice and pancreatitis.

Question 36Abdomen and its Contents

Which part of the duodenum is retroperitoneal and crosses anterior to the inferior vena cava and aorta?

  1. The second part
  2. The fourth part
  3. The first part
  4. The third part Correct answer.

Explanation

The third part of the duodenum runs horizontally across the vertebral column, anterior to the IVC and aorta, and is retroperitoneal. The first part is intraperitoneal, while the second and fourth parts are retroperitoneal but vertically oriented.

Question 37Abdomen and its Contents

A patient sustains blunt trauma with a ruptured spleen. Ligation of which vessel is most likely required to control hemorrhage at the splenic hilum?

  1. The superior mesenteric artery
  2. The splenic artery, a branch of the celiac trunk Correct answer.
  3. The left colic artery
  4. The left gastric artery

Explanation

The splenic artery arises from the celiac trunk and travels along the superior border of the pancreas to the splenic hilum. Ligation proximal to the hilum controls hemorrhage while preserving short gastric collaterals.

Question 38Abdomen and its Contents

Which of the following best describes the blood supply to the stomach along the greater curvature?

  1. The right and left gastroepiploic arteries Correct answer.
  2. The right and left gastric arteries
  3. The short gastric arteries alone
  4. The superior mesenteric artery directly

Explanation

The greater curvature is supplied by the right gastroepiploic artery (from the gastroduodenal) and the left gastroepiploic artery (from the splenic). The lesser curvature is supplied by the gastric arteries.

Question 39Abdomen and its Contents

A 60-year-old man has a pulsatile epigastric mass. Which artery is most commonly the source of an aneurysm in this location?

  1. The splenic artery
  2. The abdominal aorta below the renal arteries Correct answer.
  3. The inferior mesenteric artery
  4. The gastroduodenal artery

Explanation

Most abdominal aortic aneurysms occur below the renal arteries, where the aorta is a pulsatile, palpable epigastric structure. Splenic artery aneurysms are the most common visceral aneurysm but are not typically palpable as an epigastric mass.

Question 40Abdomen and its Contents

Which structure separates the greater sac from the lesser sac (omental bursa) posterior to the stomach?

  1. The greater sac lies posterior to the pancreas
  2. The epiploic foramen is the only communication, and the lesser sac lies posterior to the stomach Correct answer.
  3. The lesser sac lies anterior to the stomach
  4. The lesser sac communicates freely with the greater sac

Explanation

The lesser sac is a peritoneal recess posterior to the stomach and anterior to the pancreas. It communicates with the greater sac only through the epiploic foramen (of Winslow).

Question 41Abdomen and its Contents

During a right hemicolectomy, the surgeon must identify the ileocolic artery. From which vessel does it arise?

  1. The inferior mesenteric artery
  2. The internal iliac artery
  3. The superior mesenteric artery Correct answer.
  4. The gastroduodenal artery

Explanation

The ileocolic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery and supplies the terminal ileum and cecum. It is the most distal branch in the SMA arcade on the right side.

Question 42Abdomen and its Contents

A patient develops a fistula between the stomach and the transverse colon after a penetrating ulcer. Which anatomic relationship explains this complication?

  1. The transverse colon lies anterior to the stomach
  2. The stomach is entirely retroperitoneal
  3. The posterior gastric wall lies adjacent to the pancreas and transverse mesocolon Correct answer.
  4. The greater omentum prevents any adhesion

Explanation

A posterior gastric ulcer can penetrate into the pancreas, and a greater-curvature ulcer can adhere to the transverse mesocolon and colon, creating a gastrocolic fistula. These structures are in direct anatomic proximity.

Question 43Abdomen and its Contents

Which nerve is at risk of injury during ligation of the inferior mesenteric artery near its origin, potentially causing sexual dysfunction?

  1. The phrenic nerve
  2. The vagus nerve
  3. The genitofemoral nerve
  4. The superior hypogastric plexus Correct answer.

Explanation

The superior hypogastric plexus lies anterior to the aortic bifurcation and near the origin of the inferior mesenteric artery. Injury during high ligation can impair ejaculation and cause pelvic autonomic dysfunction.

Question 44Abdomen and its Contents

Which of the following is the most reliable landmark for identifying the cystic duct during laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

  1. The round ligament of the liver
  2. The junction of the cystic duct with the common hepatic duct, after clearing the hepatocystic triangle Correct answer.
  3. The infundibulum of the gallbladder alone
  4. The common hepatic duct medial to the gallbladder

Explanation

Safe identification requires clearing the hepatocystic (Calot) triangle to demonstrate the cystic duct and cystic artery entering the gallbladder, then confirming the junction with the common hepatic duct. Relying on the infundibulum alone risks bile duct injury.

Question 45Abdomen and its Contents

A patient has a hernia through the femoral canal. Which structure lies most medial within the femoral sheath?

  1. The femoral nerve
  2. The femoral artery
  3. The femoral canal Correct answer.
  4. The femoral vein

Explanation

Within the femoral sheath, the femoral artery is lateral, the femoral vein is intermediate, and the femoral canal is the most medial compartment. The femoral nerve lies outside the sheath, lateral to the artery.

Question 46Abdomen and its Contents

Which segment of the colon is most commonly affected by volvulus due to its long, mobile mesentery?

  1. The transverse colon
  2. The ascending colon
  3. The sigmoid colon Correct answer.
  4. The rectum

Explanation

The sigmoid colon has a long, narrow mesentery that predisposes it to torsion, making sigmoid volvulus the most common form of colonic volvulus. Cecal volvulus can also occur but is less common.

Question 47Abdomen and its Contents

A patient has a penetrating injury to the epigastrium with free air. Which structure is most likely injured given its anterior position just behind the linea alba?

  1. The inferior vena cava
  2. The pancreas
  3. The stomach Correct answer.
  4. The left kidney

Explanation

The stomach lies anteriorly in the upper abdomen, directly behind the linea alba and left costal margin, making it vulnerable to penetrating epigastric trauma. The pancreas and kidneys are retroperitoneal and less likely to be the first structure hit.

Question 48Abdomen and its Contents

Which of the following best describes the arterial supply of the rectum above the peritoneal reflection?

  1. The superior rectal artery from the inferior mesenteric artery Correct answer.
  2. The middle rectal artery from the internal iliac artery
  3. The inferior rectal artery from the internal pudendal artery
  4. The median sacral artery alone

Explanation

The superior rectal artery, a continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery, supplies the rectum above the peritoneal reflection. The middle and inferior rectal arteries supply progressively lower portions.

Question 49Abdomen and its Contents

A 30-year-old woman has a tender mass in the left iliac fossa. Which structure lies in the left lower quadrant and may be involved in diverticulitis?

  1. The cecum
  2. The gallbladder
  3. The appendix
  4. The sigmoid colon Correct answer.

Explanation

The sigmoid colon occupies the left iliac fossa and is the most common site of diverticulosis and diverticulitis in Western populations. Cecum and appendix are on the right.

Question 50Abdomen and its Contents

Which anatomic feature distinguishes the jejunum from the ileum?

  1. The jejunum has a narrower lumen
  2. The jejunum has more mesenteric fat extending to its wall
  3. The jejunum has more numerous and prominent circular folds (valvulae conniventes) Correct answer.
  4. The jejunum has Peyer's patches throughout

Explanation

The jejunum is characterized by tall, numerous circular folds, a thicker wall, and less mesenteric fat near the bowel wall. The ileum has fewer folds, more fat, and abundant Peyer's patches.