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ACRR practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ACRR understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of informed consent before a procedure?

  1. To protect the clinician from legal liability
  2. To ensure the patient understands risks, benefits, and alternatives and voluntarily agrees Correct answer.
  3. To document that the patient agreed to pay for the procedure
  4. To confirm the patient has medical insurance coverage

Explanation

Informed consent is an ethical and legal process ensuring patients understand the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure and agree voluntarily. Its central purpose is patient autonomy and shared decision-making, not administrative or financial documentation.

Question 2Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with a documented severe allergy to iodinated contrast requires imaging. What is the most appropriate initial action?

  1. Administer the contrast and give an antihistamine afterward
  2. Cancel the study without informing the care team
  3. Notify the ordering provider and discuss alternative imaging or premedication Correct answer.
  4. Proceed with contrast at full dose and monitor closely

Explanation

A known severe contrast allergy is a safety flag requiring the radiologist or ordering provider to consider alternatives or a premedication protocol. The technologist should not unilaterally proceed or cancel without communicating.

Question 3Clinical Patient Care and Safety

The principle of ALARA in radiation protection refers to:

  1. Using the highest dose that equipment allows
  2. Avoiding all radiation exposure entirely
  3. Limiting exposure only to pregnant patients
  4. Keeping radiation dose as low as reasonably achievable Correct answer.

Explanation

ALARA stands for As Low As Reasonably Achievable and guides dose optimization while achieving the diagnostic objective. It applies to all exposed individuals, not just a special population.

Question 4Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which practice best reduces the risk of patient misidentification before a procedure?

  1. Relying on the wristband alone without verbal confirmation
  2. Using two independent patient identifiers and verifying against the order Correct answer.
  3. Confirming identity using the room number and appointment time
  4. Asking the patient to state their date of birth only

Explanation

Safe identification requires at least two independent identifiers verified against the procedure order. Room or time alone is insufficient and error-prone.

Question 5Clinical Patient Care and Safety

During a procedure a patient becomes diaphoretic, pale, and reports feeling faint. What is the most appropriate first response?

  1. Stop, assess the patient, and call for help per the emergency protocol Correct answer.
  2. Give the patient water and resume once they feel better
  3. Lower the table and leave the patient to fetch a colleague
  4. Continue the procedure and document the symptoms afterward

Explanation

Acute change in patient status warrants stopping, assessing, and activating the emergency response protocol. Early recognition and summoning help are priorities in a vasovagal or more serious event.

Question 6Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which of the following is the most reliable method to verify correct patient positioning before exposure?

  1. Asking the patient if they feel comfortable
  2. Assuming the previous technologist positioned correctly
  3. Relying on a verbal description from a colleague
  4. Checking positioning against established landmarks and the ordered projection Correct answer.

Explanation

Correct positioning is verified by comparing the patient's anatomy against established landmarks and the required projection. Comfort and secondhand information are not reliable substitutes.

Question 7Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with a suspected infectious respiratory illness must be imaged. Which precaution is most appropriate?

  1. Contact precautions with gown only
  2. Droplet precautions with appropriate personal protective equipment Correct answer.
  3. Standard precautions only
  4. No precautions if the patient wears a mask

Explanation

Suspected respiratory infections transmitted by droplets require droplet precautions plus standard precautions, including appropriate PPE. Standard precautions alone do not address airborne or droplet spread.

Question 8Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action best prevents falls in a patient who is unsteady on their feet during transfer?

  1. Rushing the transfer to minimize standing time
  2. Leaving the patient standing while preparing equipment
  3. Allowing the patient to walk unaided to save time
  4. Using an appropriate transfer device and assisting the patient Correct answer.

Explanation

Fall prevention relies on assessing mobility and providing appropriate assistance and equipment during transfers. Rushing or leaving a patient unsupported increases fall risk.

Question 9Clinical Patient Care and Safety

The concept of 'time-out' immediately before a procedure is intended to:

  1. Allow the patient to rest briefly
  2. Document the procedure duration
  3. Verify billing codes before the procedure
  4. Confirm patient, procedure, and site among the team before starting Correct answer.

Explanation

A time-out is a team pause to confirm the correct patient, procedure, and site before initiating the procedure. It is a key element of surgical and procedural safety.

Question 10Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient reports new onset of chest pain mid-procedure. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Give an antacid and continue
  2. Stop the procedure, assess, and initiate emergency evaluation Correct answer.
  3. Document it and complete the procedure first
  4. Ignore it as procedure-related anxiety

Explanation

New chest pain is a potentially serious symptom requiring immediate assessment and emergency evaluation. Continuing the procedure without assessment risks patient harm.

Question 11Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a pre-procedure patient assessment?

  1. To assign staff to the procedure
  2. To schedule future appointments
  3. To identify risk factors and contraindications before the procedure Correct answer.
  4. To determine the patient's insurance eligibility

Explanation

Pre-procedure assessment identifies risk factors, allergies, and contraindications to ensure patient safety and appropriate planning. It is a clinical, not administrative, function.

Question 12Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A pregnant patient needs imaging. Which principle guides the decision to proceed?

  1. Always defer all imaging until after delivery
  2. Avoid shielding to save time
  3. Use the highest dose for best image quality
  4. Weigh clinical benefit against fetal risk and use the lowest dose that answers the question Correct answer.

Explanation

For pregnant patients, the decision balances medical necessity against fetal risk and uses dose optimization when imaging is justified. Blanket deferral may harm the patient.

Question 13Clinical Patient Care and Safety

The most important reason to confirm the patient has removed metal objects before an MRI is:

  1. To prevent injury from projectile or heating effects Correct answer.
  2. To reduce image noise from clothing
  3. To improve contrast enhancement
  4. To shorten scan time

Explanation

Ferromagnetic objects can become projectiles or heat during an MRI, posing serious injury risk. Screening and removal of metal are essential safety steps.

Question 14Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Two staff members disagree about a patient's allergy status in the record. What is the safest course of action?

  1. Ask a colleague to decide without checking the record
  2. Proceed using the most recent entry
  3. Assume no allergy if not prominently listed
  4. Clarify and confirm with the patient and prescribing record before proceeding Correct answer.

Explanation

When allergy information is uncertain, the safe action is to clarify with the patient and the authoritative record before any exposure. Assumptions can cause preventable reactions.

Question 15Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which of the following is a core element of patient-centered care during an imaging encounter?

  1. Minimizing communication to save time
  2. Explaining the procedure and addressing the patient's concerns Correct answer.
  3. Focusing only on technical image quality
  4. Making decisions without patient input

Explanation

Patient-centered care emphasizes clear communication, respect, and addressing concerns so the patient feels informed and involved. Technical quality alone does not define good care.

Question 16Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with limited English proficiency is about to undergo an informed consent discussion. What is the most appropriate approach?

  1. Speak slowly in English and rely on gestures
  2. Provide written materials in English only
  3. Use a family member as the interpreter without further steps
  4. Use a qualified medical interpreter and confirm understanding Correct answer.

Explanation

Meaningful consent requires communication in a language the patient understands, ideally through a qualified medical interpreter, with confirmation of comprehension. Untrained family interpretation risks errors.

Question 17Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action best protects patient privacy during a procedure?

  1. Exposing only the area required for the procedure and using screens Correct answer.
  2. Sharing details with staff not involved in care
  3. Leaving records visible on an unattended screen
  4. Discussing the patient's history in a public waiting area

Explanation

Privacy is maintained by minimizing exposure, using screens, and limiting discussion to those involved in care. Public discussion and unattended records breach confidentiality.

Question 18Clinical Patient Care and Safety

After an adverse event involving a patient, which action aligns with safe practice?

  1. Discuss it informally only
  2. Report the event through the appropriate incident system and support the patient Correct answer.
  3. Wait to see if the patient notices
  4. Conceal the event to avoid liability

Explanation

Adverse events should be reported through formal channels to enable learning and system improvement, and the patient should be supported. Concealment undermines safety and trust.

Question 19Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which of the following best describes the role of hand hygiene in infection prevention?

  1. It is only needed when visibly soiled
  2. It is optional when gloves are worn
  3. It is only needed after procedures
  4. It is the single most effective routine measure to reduce transmission Correct answer.

Explanation

Hand hygiene is the most effective routine measure to reduce pathogen transmission and is required at defined moments, including before and after glove use.

Question 20Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient's IV line infiltrates during a contrast injection. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Continue and document after the scan
  2. Increase the injection rate to complete the study
  3. Apply heat and continue injecting
  4. Stop the injection, assess the site, and manage per protocol Correct answer.

Explanation

An infiltrated line requires stopping the injection immediately, assessing the site, and following the extravasation or infiltration protocol. Continuing injection worsens tissue injury.

Question 21Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which factor most increases a patient's risk of a contrast-induced reaction requiring premedication?

  1. A family history of diabetes
  2. A prior moderate-to-severe reaction to the same contrast agent Correct answer.
  3. Mild anxiety about the procedure
  4. A history of seasonal allergies only

Explanation

A prior moderate or severe reaction to a contrast agent is the strongest predictor of a repeat reaction and commonly prompts a premedication protocol. Other factors are less predictive.

Question 22Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient becomes unresponsive and pulseless during a procedure. Which sequence reflects correct emergency prioritization?

  1. Activate emergency response, begin CPR, and use the AED as available Correct answer.
  2. Document the event before calling for help
  3. Give oral fluids and observe
  4. Finish the procedure, then assess

Explanation

In cardiac arrest, immediate activation of the emergency response, high-quality CPR, and early defibrillation are the priorities. Delay for documentation or procedure completion worsens outcomes.

Question 23Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which statement about shielding during radiography is most accurate?

  1. Shielding is never appropriate
  2. Shielding should be applied whenever it does not interfere with the diagnostic objective Correct answer.
  3. Shielding is only for staff, not patients
  4. Shielding replaces the need for collimation

Explanation

Shielding is used to protect patients and staff when it does not compromise the diagnostic information needed. It complements, rather than replaces, collimation and technique optimization.

Question 24Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient refuses a medically indicated procedure after a full discussion. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Ignore the refusal and continue preparing
  2. Proceed anyway because it is medically indicated
  3. Respect the refusal, document the discussion, and inform the care team Correct answer.
  4. Threaten to discharge the patient

Explanation

A competent patient has the right to refuse care after informed discussion. The clinician should respect the decision, document it, and communicate with the care team.

Question 25Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action best supports accurate medication administration in the clinical setting?

  1. Sharing medications between patients
  2. Verifying the right patient, drug, dose, route, and time Correct answer.
  3. Relying on memory for dosages
  4. Administering medications without checking the order

Explanation

The rights of medication administration-right patient, drug, dose, route, and time-reduce errors. Memory and unverified orders increase risk.

Question 26Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which identifier set is acceptable for confirming patient identity before an imaging procedure?

  1. The patient's stated diagnosis
  2. Room number plus bed letter
  3. The appointment time plus modality
  4. Full name plus date of birth Correct answer.

Explanation

Safe practice requires at least two independent identifiers, and the patient's own name and date of birth are the standard pair used at every encounter. Location, diagnosis, and scheduling data are not unique to the individual and change or can be misheard.

Question 27Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient says they are allergic to iodinated contrast but cannot recall the reaction. What is the best next step before the study?

  1. Ask structured questions about the prior reaction and consult the supervising clinician Correct answer.
  2. Give a half dose to test tolerance
  3. Cancel the study permanently
  4. Proceed at full dose and observe closely

Explanation

The nature and severity of a prior reaction determine whether premedication, an alternative agent, or a different study is appropriate, so the details must be clarified and the decision escalated. Simply proceeding, canceling outright, or improvising a test dose all bypass that clinical judgment.

Question 28Clinical Patient Care and Safety

What is the primary purpose of documenting a patient's fall risk score on the imaging requisition or worksheet?

  1. To trigger tailored transfer and monitoring precautions Correct answer.
  2. To decide whether consent is required
  3. To determine the order of scheduled cases
  4. To satisfy billing requirements

Explanation

A fall risk score is a clinical tool whose value lies in prompting specific safeguards such as assistance, gait belts, and lowered tables. It does not govern billing, scheduling order, or consent requirements.

Question 29Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with a documented latex allergy is scheduled for a procedure. Which preparation is most appropriate?

  1. Apply a barrier cream to the skin beforehand
  2. Use the standard room since gloves are changed anyway
  3. Ask the patient to bring their own supplies
  4. Confirm a latex-safe environment including gloves, tubing, and tourniquets Correct answer.

Explanation

Latex avoidance requires eliminating all latex-containing items in the patient's path, since reactions can occur from mucosal or cutaneous contact with any of them. Standard rooms and partial measures leave hidden exposure sources.

Question 30Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which practice most directly reduces the risk of wrong-site imaging?

  1. Asking the patient to undress before confirming the order
  2. Verifying the order against the patient's identification band and the intended body part Correct answer.
  3. Confirming the study with the referring office only
  4. Relying on the previous day's schedule

Explanation

Wrong-site errors are prevented by reconciling the written order, the patient's identity, and the specific anatomy to be imaged before starting. Undressing, prior schedules, and secondhand confirmation do not establish that the correct patient and site are being examined.

Question 31Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which element is essential in a handoff report when transferring a patient from the imaging department to the inpatient unit?

  1. The department's staffing roster
  2. The equipment maintenance schedule
  3. The radiologist's personal contact details
  4. The patient's current condition, lines and devices, and pending results Correct answer.

Explanation

Effective handoffs convey information the receiving team needs to continue safe care, including clinical status, indwelling devices, and outstanding findings. Administrative and logistical details do not affect the patient's immediate safety.

Question 32Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient is confused and repeatedly tries to sit up during a CT scan. What is the safest initial approach?

  1. Apply restraints without discussion
  2. Stop and reassess with the care team, using the least restrictive effective measures Correct answer.
  3. Increase scan speed and ignore the movement
  4. Ask a family member to hold the patient's arms down

Explanation

Agitation requires reassessment of cause and use of the least restrictive effective intervention, with team involvement and documentation. Restraints, family physical holding, and ignoring movement all carry harm and are not first-line.

Question 33Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which statement best describes the purpose of informed consent for a contrast-enhanced study?

  1. It documents that the patient received information and agreed to proceed Correct answer.
  2. It guarantees the study will be free of adverse effects
  3. It transfers legal responsibility for complications to the patient
  4. It replaces the need for a pre-procedure history

Explanation

Consent is an ongoing communication process confirming the patient understood risks, benefits, and alternatives and chose to proceed. It neither shifts liability nor guarantees outcomes and does not substitute for clinical assessment.

Question 34Clinical Patient Care and Safety

During a procedure a patient reports feeling faint and is diaphoretic with a falling heart rate. What is the most appropriate first response?

  1. Stop, position the patient supine with legs elevated, and assess vital signs Correct answer.
  2. Complete the study quickly and reassess afterward
  3. Give oral fluids immediately
  4. Have the patient stand to improve circulation

Explanation

These findings suggest a vasovagal response, which is managed by halting the procedure, improving venous return through supine positioning with leg elevation, and reassessing. Continuing, standing the patient, or oral fluids risk worsening the episode.

Question 35Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which patient factor most increases the risk of nephrotoxicity from iodinated contrast?

  1. A history of seasonal allergies
  2. Well-controlled asthma
  3. Prior uncomplicated contrast exposure
  4. Elevated serum creatinine with reduced eGFR Correct answer.

Explanation

Impaired renal function is the dominant modifiable risk factor for contrast-associated kidney injury, prompting hydration planning and dose review. Asthma, seasonal allergies, and prior tolerated exposure relate more to hypersensitivity than to renal injury.

Question 36Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action best reduces the spread of infection from contaminated imaging equipment surfaces between patients?

  1. Turning the room lights down
  2. Reusing disposable covers until visibly soiled
  3. Opening the room door for ventilation
  4. Wiping high-touch surfaces with an approved disinfectant between patients Correct answer.

Explanation

Transmission via contaminated surfaces is interrupted by cleaning and disinfecting high-touch areas according to policy between patients. Lighting, open doors, and reusing soiled covers do not remove pathogens.

Question 37Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with a documented anaphylactic reaction to gadolinium requires an MRI with contrast. What is the most appropriate course?

  1. Cancel all future MRI studies for the patient
  2. Consult the supervising radiologist about an alternative agent or study and a reaction plan Correct answer.
  3. Proceed with the same agent at full dose
  4. Premedicate and proceed without further discussion

Explanation

A prior anaphylactic reaction to a contrast agent requires radiologist involvement to weigh alternatives and plan mitigation, since premedication alone may not prevent severe recurrence. Proceeding unchanged or permanently excluding the patient are both inappropriate.

Question 38Clinical Patient Care and Safety

What is the correct action when a patient's arm swells and becomes painful at the IV site during a power injection?

  1. Increase the flow rate to clear the line
  2. Stop the injection immediately and assess the site Correct answer.
  3. Flush vigorously with saline to test patency
  4. Continue and document the finding afterward

Explanation

Swelling and pain during injection suggest extravasation, which requires immediate cessation to limit tissue injury, followed by site assessment and escalation. Increasing flow or flushing worsens the extravasation, and delayed documentation does not protect the tissue.

Question 39Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which statement best describes the role of a safety checklist before starting a fluoroscopic procedure?

  1. It is optional when staff are experienced
  2. It replaces the need for clinical judgment
  3. It standardizes verification of critical items so omissions are caught early Correct answer.
  4. It is completed after the procedure for records

Explanation

Checklists create a consistent, team-wide verification of essential items at a defined moment, catching omissions that memory alone may miss. They support rather than replace judgment and are not retrospective or optional.

Question 40Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with a cardiac pacemaker is referred for an MRI. What must be established before scanning?

  1. That the scan will be short in duration
  2. Device MRI-conditional status and an approved programming plan Correct answer.
  3. Only that the patient has no metal jewelry
  4. That the patient can hold still for the study

Explanation

Implanted cardiac devices require confirmation of MRI-conditional labeling and a plan for reprogramming and monitoring during and after the scan. Jewelry, scan duration, and motion control do not address the risk of device interaction with the magnetic field.

Question 41Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action best protects a patient's modesty during an imaging study?

  1. Leaving the door open so staff can monitor
  2. Allowing observers to remain without asking
  3. Exposing only the area being imaged and providing appropriate draping Correct answer.
  4. Asking the patient to undress in the scan room

Explanation

Respecting dignity means limiting exposure to the anatomy required and covering the rest with draping. Open doors, undressing in the scan room, and unconsented observers all compromise privacy.

Question 42Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient with a suspected airborne infection needs a portable chest radiograph. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Have the patient remove their mask for the exposure
  2. Delay the study until the infection clears
  3. Perform the study in the open waiting area
  4. Use a fitted N95 respirator and follow airborne precautions during the visit Correct answer.

Explanation

Airborne precautions require respiratory protection for staff and source control for the patient while minimizing time in shared spaces. Performing the study in public, removing the patient's mask, or indefinite delay all increase exposure risk.

Question 43Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which finding should prompt immediate escalation before a patient receives sedation for a procedure?

  1. A blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
  2. A resting oxygen saturation of 88% on room air Correct answer.
  3. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute
  4. A temperature of 37.0 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Sedation depresses respiratory drive, so pre-existing hypoxemia signals elevated risk and requires evaluation before proceeding. The other values fall within normal adult ranges and do not by themselves mandate escalation.

Question 44Clinical Patient Care and Safety

What is the most appropriate response when a patient begins crying and says they are afraid during a procedure?

  1. Pause, acknowledge the fear, and explain what is happening Correct answer.
  2. Continue quickly to finish sooner
  3. Tell the patient the fear is unfounded
  4. Ask the patient to be quiet for the images

Explanation

Acknowledging distress and providing clear information supports coping and preserves trust while the team decides how to proceed. Rushing, dismissing feelings, or silencing the patient erodes rapport and may worsen distress.

Question 45Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which practice best supports medication reconciliation before an imaging procedure?

  1. Relying on the patient's memory alone
  2. Skipping reconciliation for short procedures
  3. Assuming the referral note is always current
  4. Comparing the patient's reported medications with the documented list and clarifying discrepancies Correct answer.

Explanation

Reconciliation compares sources, identifies discrepancies, and resolves them with the patient or clinician. Memory alone, assumed currency of referral notes, and skipping the step for short procedures all leave error-prone gaps.

Question 46Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action best demonstrates respect for a patient's cultural or religious needs during an imaging visit?

  1. Asking about needs such as same-gender staff or dietary and clothing considerations Correct answer.
  2. Assuming all patients share the same preferences
  3. Documenting requests only if the patient complains
  4. Scheduling such requests for a later visit

Explanation

Respectful care begins with asking about individual needs and accommodating them where feasible. Assumptions, deferral, and complaint-driven documentation fail to honor patient preferences.

Question 47Clinical Patient Care and Safety

A patient's family member asks for the results of an imaging study before the report is finalized. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Guess the likely findings to reassure them
  2. Share the preliminary images and your interpretation
  3. Explain that the radiologist will communicate results through the established process Correct answer.
  4. Tell them to look at the images themselves

Explanation

Results are communicated by the responsible clinician through the established process once interpreted, protecting accuracy and confidentiality. Staff should not interpret images, speculate, or hand over unreviewed material.

Question 48Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which action is most consistent with a just culture after a staff member reports a near-miss during a procedure?

  1. Filing the report without any follow-up
  2. Ignoring the report since no harm occurred
  3. Thanking the reporter and analyzing system factors to prevent recurrence Correct answer.
  4. Disciplining the reporter to set an example

Explanation

Just culture encourages reporting by distinguishing system failures from reckless behavior and using reports to improve processes. Punishing reporters, ignoring near-misses, or filing without follow-up suppresses learning.

Question 49Clinical Patient Care and Safety

What is the most appropriate way to manage a patient who becomes combative and poses a danger to staff during an examination?

  1. Stop the study, ensure staff safety, and activate the facility's behavioral emergency response Correct answer.
  2. Leave the patient alone in the room without monitoring
  3. Continue the study while staff restrain the patient manually
  4. Proceed and document the behavior afterward

Explanation

When a patient poses an immediate danger, staff safety comes first: halt the procedure and activate the trained behavioral response team. Manual restraint, leaving the patient unmonitored, or continuing the study all increase risk of injury.

Question 50Clinical Patient Care and Safety

Which practice best ensures that a patient understands preparation instructions before an outpatient study?

  1. Relying on the referring office to explain everything
  2. Giving a dense written handout only
  3. Assuming the patient will call with questions
  4. Providing instructions in plain language and confirming understanding with teach-back Correct answer.

Explanation

Plain-language instructions combined with teach-back verify comprehension and allow correction of misunderstandings. Handouts alone, passive assumptions, and delegation without verification leave gaps.