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AMCA PCTC practice questions

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Question 1Anatomy and Physiology

Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?

  1. Abdominal cavity
  2. Cranial cavity
  3. Thoracic cavity Correct answer.
  4. Pelvic cavity

Explanation

The thoracic cavity is the compartment enclosed by the rib cage and diaphragm, and it houses the heart, lungs, and great vessels. The other listed cavities lie below the diaphragm or within the skull.

Question 2Anatomy and Physiology

Which tissue type lines body surfaces and forms glands?

  1. Muscle tissue
  2. Nervous tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue Correct answer.
  4. Connective tissue

Explanation

Epithelial tissue covers and lines surfaces, forms protective barriers, and gives rise to glands. Its cells are closely packed with little intercellular material, which distinguishes it from the other three basic tissue types.

Question 3Anatomy and Physiology

Which blood cells are primarily responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues?

  1. Leukocytes
  2. Platelets
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Erythrocytes Correct answer.

Explanation

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in peripheral tissues. The other options serve clotting or immune functions rather than bulk oxygen transport.

Question 4Anatomy and Physiology

In which organ does most nutrient absorption take place?

  1. Stomach
  2. Esophagus
  3. Large intestine
  4. Small intestine Correct answer.

Explanation

The small intestine has a vast surface area created by villi and microvilli, and most digestion products are absorbed there. The stomach mainly churns and begins protein digestion, while the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes.

Question 5Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure is the functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine?

  1. Neuron
  2. Hepatocyte
  3. Nephron Correct answer.
  4. Alveolus

Explanation

The nephron is the microscopic functional unit of the kidney, consisting of a renal corpuscle and tubule that together filter plasma and modify the filtrate. The other terms name units of the lung, liver, and nervous system.

Question 6Anatomy and Physiology

Which division of the nervous system controls voluntary skeletal muscle movement?

  1. Parasympathetic division
  2. Somatic nervous system Correct answer.
  3. Enteric nervous system
  4. Sympathetic division

Explanation

The somatic nervous system carries motor signals to skeletal muscle and mediates voluntary movement. The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are autonomic and control smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands, while the enteric system governs the gut.

Question 7Anatomy and Physiology

Which plane divides the body into equal left and right halves?

  1. Oblique plane
  2. Midsagittal plane Correct answer.
  3. Transverse plane
  4. Frontal plane

Explanation

The midsagittal plane passes through the midline and splits the body into equal right and left halves. A transverse plane separates superior from inferior, and a frontal plane separates anterior from posterior.

Question 8Anatomy and Physiology

During which phase of the cardiac cycle do the ventricles contract to eject blood?

  1. Ventricular diastole
  2. Ventricular systole Correct answer.
  3. Isovolumetric relaxation
  4. Atrial diastole

Explanation

Ventricular systole is the contraction phase in which pressure rises and blood is ejected into the pulmonary artery and aorta. Diastole refers to relaxation and filling, and isovolumetric relaxation is a brief period with closed valves and no ejection.

Question 9Anatomy and Physiology

A patient's blood test shows elevated plasma calcium. Which hormone most directly lowers blood calcium by inhibiting bone resorption?

  1. Parathyroid hormone
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Calcitonin Correct answer.
  4. Thyroxine

Explanation

Calcitonin, released by the thyroid, lowers plasma calcium by inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting renal calcium excretion. Parathyroid hormone has the opposite effect, raising calcium when levels fall.

Question 10Anatomy and Physiology

Which gas-exchange structure allows oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the blood?

  1. Trachea
  2. Pleural space
  3. Bronchus
  4. Alveolar-capillary membrane Correct answer.

Explanation

The alveolar-capillary membrane is the thin barrier across which oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse between alveolar air and capillary blood. The bronchi and trachea are conducting airways, and the pleural space is a potential space around the lung.

Question 11Anatomy and Physiology

Which muscle is the primary muscle of inspiration at rest?

  1. Sternocleidomastoid
  2. External intercostals
  3. Diaphragm Correct answer.
  4. Rectus abdominis

Explanation

The diaphragm contracts during quiet breathing, flattening and increasing thoracic volume so air flows in. The external intercostals assist, while the abdominal muscles and sternocleidomastoid are recruited mainly during forced breathing.

Question 12Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, thirst, and hunger?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Hypothalamus Correct answer.
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Occipital lobe

Explanation

The hypothalamus contains homeostatic centers that regulate temperature, water balance, and feeding behavior. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the medulla controls vital reflexes, and the occipital lobe processes vision.

Question 13Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure connects a muscle to a bone?

  1. Tendon Correct answer.
  2. Cartilage
  3. Fascia
  4. Ligament

Explanation

Tendons are dense connective tissue cords that attach muscle to bone and transmit contractile force. Ligaments connect bone to bone, cartilage provides a smooth joint surface, and fascia envelops and separates structures.

Question 14Anatomy and Physiology

A person becomes dehydrated and blood osmolarity rises. Which response is expected?

  1. Increased release of antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  2. Reduced thirst sensation
  3. Increased urine volume
  4. Decreased reabsorption of water in the collecting duct

Explanation

Rising plasma osmolarity is detected by hypothalamic osmoreceptors, which trigger antidiuretic hormone release from the posterior pituitary. ADH increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, concentrating urine and conserving water.

Question 15Anatomy and Physiology

Which valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium?

  1. Mitral valve Correct answer.
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Aortic valve
  4. Tricuspid valve

Explanation

The mitral (bicuspid) valve sits between the left atrium and left ventricle and closes during ventricular systole to prevent backflow. The tricuspid valve serves the right side, and the pulmonary and aortic valves guard ventricular outflow tracts.

Question 16Anatomy and Physiology

Which sequence correctly traces the path of blood through the heart?

  1. Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium
  2. Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle
  3. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle Correct answer.
  4. Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, left ventricle, left atrium

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium, passes to the right ventricle, goes to the lungs, returns to the left atrium, and is pumped from the left ventricle to the body. This pulmonary circuit precedes systemic delivery.

Question 17Anatomy and Physiology

Which type of joint permits the widest range of motion, such as at the shoulder?

  1. Cartilaginous joint
  2. Hinge joint
  3. Ball-and-socket joint Correct answer.
  4. Suture

Explanation

A ball-and-socket joint has a spherical head fitting into a cup-like socket, allowing movement in multiple planes including rotation. Hinge joints allow motion in one plane, sutures are immovable, and cartilaginous joints permit limited movement.

Question 18Anatomy and Physiology

Which cells secrete insulin in the pancreas?

  1. Alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans
  2. Acinar cells
  3. Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans Correct answer.
  4. Duct cells

Explanation

Beta cells within the pancreatic islets synthesize and release insulin in response to rising blood glucose. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, acinar cells produce digestive enzymes, and duct cells carry secretions.

Question 19Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure filters blood within the renal corpuscle?

  1. Glomerulus Correct answer.
  2. Loop of Henle
  3. Ureter
  4. Collecting duct

Explanation

The glomerulus is a capillary tuft where plasma is filtered under pressure into Bowman's capsule. The loop of Henle and collecting duct modify the filtrate downstream, and the ureter transports urine to the bladder.

Question 20Anatomy and Physiology

Which layer of the skin contains sweat glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels?

  1. Dermis Correct answer.
  2. Hypodermis
  3. Stratum corneum
  4. Epidermis

Explanation

The dermis is the connective-tissue layer beneath the epidermis and houses glands, follicles, and vasculature. The epidermis is avascular and the hypodermis is mainly adipose tissue and connective tissue.

Question 21Anatomy and Physiology

A patient has damage to the left motor cortex. Which deficit is most likely?

  1. Loss of hearing in the left ear
  2. Blindness in the right visual field only
  3. Loss of sensation on the left side of the body
  4. Weakness on the right side of the body Correct answer.

Explanation

Motor pathways from the cortex cross the midline in the medulla, so a left-sided cortical lesion produces weakness on the opposite, right side. Sensory and visual pathways have different crossing patterns and are not the primary motor deficit described.

Question 22Anatomy and Physiology

During strenuous exercise, which change best explains increased oxygen delivery to muscle?

  1. Reduced cardiac output with increased peripheral resistance
  2. Increased heart rate and vasodilation of skeletal muscle arterioles Correct answer.
  3. Decreased venous return to the heart
  4. Reduced alveolar ventilation

Explanation

Exercise raises cardiac output through increased heart rate and stroke volume while local metabolites dilate muscle arterioles, directing more blood to active tissue. Together these changes enhance oxygen delivery.

Question 23Anatomy and Physiology

Which mechanism best explains how the kidney conserves sodium when blood pressure falls?

  1. Increased glomerular filtration rate with reduced tubular reabsorption
  2. Increased atrial natriuretic peptide release
  3. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system Correct answer.
  4. Dilation of the afferent arteriole with reduced sympathetic tone

Explanation

Falling blood pressure triggers renin release, generating angiotensin II, which stimulates aldosterone secretion and sodium reabsorption while constricting efferent arterioles. This conserves sodium and expands blood volume.

Question 24Anatomy and Physiology

A patient's alveoli are filled with fluid, increasing diffusion distance. Which consequence is expected?

  1. Increased carbon dioxide elimination
  2. Improved oxygen diffusion into capillary blood
  3. Impaired gas exchange with reduced arterial oxygen Correct answer.
  4. Higher lung compliance

Explanation

Gas exchange depends on a thin diffusion barrier, so fluid in the alveoli increases diffusion distance and impairs oxygen transfer, lowering arterial oxygen. Carbon dioxide elimination is also impaired rather than increased.

Question 25Pharmacology

Which term describes the study of how a drug moves through the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?

  1. Pharmacodynamics
  2. Pharmacokinetics Correct answer.
  3. Pharmacogenetics
  4. Pharmacognosy

Explanation

Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug across absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Pharmacodynamics instead describes what the drug does to the body.

Question 26Pharmacology

A drug given by the intravenous route has a bioavailability of approximately what value?

  1. 50%
  2. 100% Correct answer.
  3. 0%
  4. 25%

Explanation

Intravenous administration places the drug directly into the systemic circulation, so no absorption step limits it and bioavailability is defined as essentially 100%. Other routes are compared against this reference.

Question 27Pharmacology

Which organ is the principal site of drug metabolism in the body?

  1. Skin
  2. Kidney
  3. Lungs
  4. Liver Correct answer.

Explanation

The liver contains the highest concentration of cytochrome P450 enzymes and performs most phase I and phase II metabolic reactions. The kidney is primarily an excretory organ.

Question 28Pharmacology

Which route of administration avoids the hepatic first-pass effect entirely?

  1. Sublingual Correct answer.
  2. Rectal (upper)
  3. Enteric-coated oral
  4. Oral

Explanation

Sublingual absorption drains into the systemic venous circulation, bypassing the portal vein and thus the liver's first-pass metabolism. Oral routes deliver absorbed drug to the portal circulation first.

Question 29Pharmacology

A drug binds to a receptor and produces a maximal response but requires higher doses than another drug to achieve it. This drug is best described as which of the following?

  1. A full agonist with lower potency Correct answer.
  2. An irreversible antagonist
  3. A competitive antagonist
  4. A partial agonist with lower efficacy

Explanation

Full agonists can produce maximal responses; needing a higher dose means lower potency, reflected in a higher EC50. Efficacy is preserved because the maximal response is still achieved.

Question 30Pharmacology

The therapeutic index of a drug is calculated as which ratio?

  1. Volume of distribution divided by clearance
  2. Median toxic dose divided by median effective dose Correct answer.
  3. Peak plasma concentration divided by trough concentration
  4. Median effective dose divided by median toxic dose

Explanation

The therapeutic index compares the dose producing toxicity to the dose producing the desired effect, so it is TD50 divided by ED50. A larger index indicates a wider margin of safety.

Question 31Pharmacology

A drug has a volume of distribution of 40 L and a clearance of 5 L/hour. What is its elimination half-life?

  1. 5.5 hours Correct answer.
  2. 8 hours
  3. 2 hours
  4. 11 hours

Explanation

Half-life equals 0.693 times volume of distribution divided by clearance: 0.693 × 40 / 5 ≈ 5.5 hours. This relationship shows that larger distribution volume or lower clearance prolongs half-life.

Question 32Pharmacology

After starting a drug with a half-life of 8 hours, approximately how long does it take to reach steady-state plasma concentration with repeated dosing?

  1. 80 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 40 hours Correct answer.
  4. 16 hours

Explanation

Steady state is generally reached after about four to five half-lives, which for an 8-hour half-life is roughly 32 to 40 hours. This rule applies to drugs following first-order kinetics.

Question 33Pharmacology

Which statement best describes zero-order elimination kinetics?

  1. Elimination rate rises proportionally with plasma concentration
  2. A constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit time
  3. Half-life decreases as plasma concentration increases
  4. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration Correct answer.

Explanation

In zero-order kinetics the eliminating enzymes are saturated, so a fixed amount is removed per unit time independent of concentration. This contrasts with first-order kinetics, where a constant fraction is removed.

Question 34Pharmacology

Which phase II metabolic reaction involves conjugation of a drug with glucuronic acid?

  1. Sulfation
  2. Acetylation
  3. Methylation
  4. Glucuronidation Correct answer.

Explanation

Glucuronidation attaches glucuronic acid to a drug via UDP-glucuronosyltransferase, increasing water solubility for excretion. It is one of the most common phase II conjugation reactions.

Question 35Pharmacology

A patient taking warfarin begins a drug that strongly inhibits CYP2C9. What is the most likely consequence?

  1. Warfarin is excreted unchanged more rapidly
  2. Warfarin's protein binding is abolished
  3. Warfarin levels rise and bleeding risk increases Correct answer.
  4. Warfarin levels fall and anticoagulant effect decreases

Explanation

Warfarin is metabolized largely by CYP2C9, so inhibiting that enzyme reduces its clearance and raises plasma levels. Higher levels intensify anticoagulation and increase bleeding risk.

Question 36Pharmacology

Which statement correctly distinguishes a competitive antagonist from a noncompetitive antagonist?

  1. Competitive antagonists reduce the maximal agonist response
  2. Competitive antagonism can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration Correct answer.
  3. Noncompetitive antagonists shift the agonist curve rightward without lowering the maximum
  4. Noncompetitive antagonism can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration

Explanation

Competitive antagonists bind reversibly at the same site as the agonist, so higher agonist concentrations can displace them and restore the response. Noncompetitive antagonists cannot be overcome this way and reduce maximal response.

Question 37Pharmacology

A drug that is highly bound to plasma albumin will have which characteristic?

  1. No interaction with other highly bound drugs
  2. A large free fraction available for tissue distribution
  3. A reduced free fraction and potentially limited pharmacological effect Correct answer.
  4. Increased renal clearance of the bound portion

Explanation

Only unbound drug is pharmacologically active and available for distribution and elimination. Extensive albumin binding leaves a small free fraction, and displacing drugs can raise that free fraction.

Question 38Pharmacology

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole?

  1. Neutralizing gastric acid directly in the lumen
  2. Irreversibly inhibiting the H+/K+-ATPase of gastric parietal cells Correct answer.
  3. Coating the gastric mucosa to form a protective barrier
  4. Blocking histamine H2 receptors on parietal cells

Explanation

Proton pump inhibitors bind covalently to the gastric H+/K+-ATPase, the final common pathway of acid secretion, producing prolonged suppression. This differs from H2 blockers, which act at histamine receptors.

Question 39Pharmacology

A patient develops bronchospasm and hypotension minutes after receiving penicillin. Which drug is the first-line treatment for this reaction?

  1. Intramuscular epinephrine Correct answer.
  2. Intravenous furosemide
  3. Oral diphenhydramine
  4. Nebulized albuterol alone

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is treated first with intramuscular epinephrine, which reverses bronchospasm and supports blood pressure through alpha and beta effects. Antihistamines and bronchodilators are adjuncts, not first-line therapy.

Question 40Pharmacology

Which adverse effect is most characteristic of aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin?

  1. Aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
  2. Hepatotoxicity and photosensitivity
  3. Tendon rupture and QT prolongation
  4. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity Correct answer.

Explanation

Aminoglycosides can damage the proximal tubule and the vestibular and cochlear apparatus, so renal function and hearing are monitored. These toxicities are dose- and duration-related.

Question 41Pharmacology

A patient with asthma is prescribed a nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist. Why is this a concern?

  1. It selectively blocks beta-1 receptors only
  2. It can block beta-2 receptors and precipitate bronchoconstriction Correct answer.
  3. It increases beta-2 sensitivity and causes tremor
  4. It may cause bronchodilation and worsen tachycardia

Explanation

Nonselective beta blockers antagonize beta-2 receptors in the airways as well as beta-1 receptors in the heart. Loss of beta-2-mediated bronchodilation can trigger bronchospasm in susceptible patients.

Question 42Pharmacology

A drug is eliminated with first-order kinetics. If the plasma concentration is 20 mg/L and the elimination rate constant is 0.1 per hour, what is the approximate elimination rate at that moment?

  1. 2 mg/L per hour Correct answer.
  2. 200 mg/L per hour
  3. 0.2 mg/L per hour
  4. 20 mg/L per hour

Explanation

For first-order elimination the rate equals the rate constant multiplied by the concentration: 0.1 per hour × 20 mg/L = 2 mg/L per hour. The rate falls as concentration falls.

Question 43Pharmacology

Two drugs are both highly protein bound, and drug A displaces drug B from albumin. Which outcome is most consistent with this interaction?

  1. The free fraction of drug B falls and its effect weakens
  2. Renal clearance of bound drug B increases
  3. Total plasma concentration of drug B rises sharply
  4. The free fraction of drug B rises transiently, increasing its effect and toxicity risk Correct answer.

Explanation

Displacement shifts drug B into the unbound fraction, and unbound drug is the active form, so effect and toxicity can increase transiently. Eventually increased clearance of free drug may restore a new equilibrium.

Question 44Pharmacology

A drug is a substrate of P-glycoprotein, and a second drug inhibits P-glycoprotein. What is the most likely effect on the first drug?

  1. Increased intestinal absorption and reduced brain entry
  2. No change in absorption or distribution
  3. Increased intestinal absorption and increased brain entry Correct answer.
  4. Reduced intestinal absorption and increased brain entry

Explanation

P-glycoprotein is an efflux transporter that pumps substrates out of enterocytes and across the blood-brain barrier. Inhibiting it increases both intestinal absorption and central nervous system penetration of the substrate drug.

Question 45Safety and Infection Control

A medical assistant is preparing to perform a venipuncture. Which action is performed first in the sequence of standard precautions?

  1. Apply gloves before touching the patient
  2. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water or sanitizer Correct answer.
  3. Ask the patient to confirm their date of birth
  4. Disinfect the collection chair with a wipe

Explanation

Hand hygiene is the first and most important step in standard precautions and is performed before any patient contact, including before donning gloves. Gloves are applied after hand hygiene, and administrative steps do not replace it.

Question 46Safety and Infection Control

Which personal protective equipment is required in addition to gloves when a splash of blood or body fluid to the face is likely?

  1. A lead apron
  2. A hair net
  3. A mask with eye protection Correct answer.
  4. Shoe covers and a gown

Explanation

When splashes to the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth are anticipated, a mask plus eye protection (goggles or face shield) is required. Gloves alone protect only the hands.

Question 47Safety and Infection Control

A used lancet is best disposed of in which container?

  1. A puncture-resistant sharps container Correct answer.
  2. A red biohazard bag
  3. A cardboard box lined with paper
  4. A sealed plastic bag in the regular trash

Explanation

Sharps such as lancets, needles, and broken glass must go into a rigid, puncture-resistant, closable sharps container immediately after use. Biohazard bags are for soft contaminated waste, not sharps.

Question 48Safety and Infection Control

Which of the following is the correct way to remove a pair of contaminated gloves?

  1. Pinch the outside of one glove near the wrist and peel it away, then slide fingers under the other glove Correct answer.
  2. Grasp the fingertips of one glove and pull it off
  3. Pull each glove off by the cuff with the opposite gloved hand
  4. Remove gloves by blowing air into the cuff to loosen them

Explanation

Gloves are removed so that the outside surfaces do not contact bare skin: pinch the outside near the wrist, peel off, then slide ungloved fingers under the remaining glove at the wrist. Hand hygiene follows removal.

Question 49Safety and Infection Control

A patient is suspected of having active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of precautions should be initiated?

  1. Standard precautions only
  2. Contact precautions
  3. Airborne precautions Correct answer.
  4. Droplet precautions

Explanation

Tuberculosis is transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in air, so airborne precautions with an N95 or higher respirator and a negative-pressure room are required. Standard precautions alone are insufficient.

Question 50Safety and Infection Control

A medical assistant is caring for a patient with an active Clostridioides difficile infection. Which action is most important to prevent transmission?

  1. Using an alcohol-based hand rub after contact
  2. Washing hands with soap and water and wearing gloves Correct answer.
  3. Wearing a surgical mask during conversation
  4. Placing the patient in a negative-pressure room

Explanation

C. difficile spores are not reliably killed by alcohol, so soap-and-water handwashing is required, along with gloves for contact precautions. Alcohol rub is acceptable for many organisms but not for this one.