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Question 1Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A donor unit is typed as group A. Which antibody is expected in the plasma of this unit?

  1. Anti-A
  2. Anti-A and anti-B
  3. Anti-B Correct answer.
  4. Neither anti-A nor anti-B

Explanation

Group A red cells carry the A antigen, so the individual is tolerant to A and forms antibody only to the missing B antigen. Group A plasma therefore contains anti-B, which is IgM and reacts at room temperature. This is the basis of the reverse (serum) grouping used to confirm the forward type.

Question 2Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which red cell antigen is considered the most immunogenic of the commonly tested blood group antigens?

  1. D (Rh) Correct answer.
  2. Duffy (Fya)
  3. Kidd (Jka)
  4. Kell (K)

Explanation

The D antigen of the Rh system elicits an immune response in a large proportion of D-negative recipients exposed to D-positive red cells. This high immunogenicity is why D typing and Rh immune globulin prophylaxis are central to transfusion and obstetric practice. Other antigens such as K, Jka and Fya are immunogenic but considerably less so.

Question 3Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which antibodies are present in the serum of an individual with the Bombay (Oh) phenotype?

  1. Anti-A and anti-B plus anti-H Correct answer.
  2. Anti-A and anti-B only
  3. Anti-A and anti-B plus anti-D
  4. Anti-H only

Explanation

Bombay individuals lack the H antigen that is the precursor for A and B antigens, so they do not express A or B on red cells. Because H, A and B are all foreign to them, they produce anti-H along with anti-A and anti-B. They must receive only Bombay-compatible (Oh) units.

Question 4Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent used in the indirect antiglobulin test contains antibodies directed against which substances?

  1. C3d only
  2. IgM plus IgA
  3. IgG plus C3d Correct answer.
  4. IgG only

Explanation

Polyspecific AHG contains anti-IgG and anti-C3d, allowing detection of red cells coated with IgG antibody, complement, or both. Monospecific reagents are used when the coating protein must be identified. Anti-IgM and anti-IgA are not components of routine AHG reagent.

Question 5Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Whole blood and red cell units without additives are stored at which temperature range?

  1. 20 to 24 °C
  2. 1 to 6 °C Correct answer.
  3. 35 to 37 °C
  4. −18 °C or colder

Explanation

Red cells are refrigerated at 1 to 6 °C to slow glycolysis and inhibit bacterial growth while preserving viability. Storage at 1 to 6 °C allows units to remain usable for 21 to 42 days depending on the preservative solution. Warmer or frozen temperatures would either promote proliferation or damage the cells.

Question 6Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Platelet concentrates are stored under which conditions?

  1. 35 to 37 °C without agitation
  2. 1 to 6 °C with continuous agitation
  3. 20 to 24 °C with continuous agitation Correct answer.
  4. −18 °C or colder without agitation

Explanation

Platelets require room temperature storage with continuous gentle agitation to maintain viability and to allow gas exchange. They are typically usable for up to 5 days. Refrigeration causes platelet shape change and loss of function.

Question 7Blood Bank / Immunohematology

After thawing at 30 to 37 °C, fresh frozen plasma should be transfused within what time frame?

  1. 24 hours Correct answer.
  2. 4 hours
  3. 6 hours
  4. 7 days

Explanation

Thawed plasma is stored at 1 to 6 °C and must be used within 24 hours because labile coagulation factors, especially factor VIII and factor V, progressively degrade. After the 24-hour window the unit is no longer labeled as plasma. Frozen plasma itself may be kept for up to 1 year at −18 °C or colder.

Question 8Blood Bank / Immunohematology

The lectin used to identify the A1 antigen on red cells is derived from which source?

  1. Ulex europaeus
  2. Bandieraea simplicifolia
  3. Vicia graminea
  4. Dolichos biflorus Correct answer.

Explanation

Dolichos biflorus lectin agglutinates A1 cells and is used to resolve A1 versus A2 subgroups. Ulex europaeus anti-H is used to demonstrate H antigen. Correct identification of subgroups matters in donor-recipient selection and in ABO discrepancy workups.

Question 9Blood Bank / Immunohematology

An immediate-spin crossmatch between donor red cells and recipient serum is performed primarily to detect incompatibility involving which system?

  1. Kidd
  2. Kell
  3. Rh
  4. ABO Correct answer.

Explanation

The immediate-spin phase detects IgM antibodies that bind at room temperature, and the ABO system is the clinically critical example. If the recipient has been screened for unexpected antibodies, the immediate-spin crossmatch serves as a final ABO check. IgG antibodies such as anti-Jka or anti-K are detected only in the antihuman globulin phase.

Question 10Blood Bank / Immunohematology

In column agglutination (gel) testing, how is a positive reaction identified?

  1. A solid button of red cells at the bottom of the microtube
  2. Clear plasma above a red cell pellet
  3. Red cell agglutinates retained in or above the gel Correct answer.
  4. A change in the colour of the gel suspension

Explanation

In gel testing, unagglutinated cells pass through the gel and form a pellet at the bottom, which is negative. Agglutinated cells are too large to migrate and remain within or on top of the gel, with the height of the agglutinate reflecting reaction strength. Colour change is not the endpoint of this method.

Question 11Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Low ionic strength solution (LISS) speeds antibody uptake onto red cells by which mechanism?

  1. Increasing the surface charge of red cells
  2. Enhancing complement activation by IgM
  3. Neutralizing cold autoantibodies in the sample
  4. Reducing the ionic strength to allow closer antibody approach Correct answer.

Explanation

Lowering the ionic strength of the medium reduces the zeta potential around red cells, so antibody molecules can approach the membrane more closely and bind faster. This shortens incubation to about 10 to 15 minutes. It does not act by increasing surface charge or by inactivating cold antibodies.

Question 12Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Polyethylene glycol (PEG) increases the sensitivity of antibody detection by which action?

  1. Excluding water and concentrating antibody around red cells Correct answer.
  2. Lowering the incubation pH below 6.0
  3. Digesting red cell membrane glycoproteins
  4. Activating complement in the sample

Explanation

PEG is a water-excluding polymer that increases the effective concentration of antibody in the fluid surrounding red cells, promoting uptake. It shortens incubation and boosts detection of weak IgG antibodies. Its main drawback is a greater tendency toward nonspecific reactions.

Question 13Blood Bank / Immunohematology

An autoantibody with anti-I specificity that is most reactive in the cold is characteristically associated with which condition?

  1. Cold hemagglutinin disease Correct answer.
  2. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  3. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
  4. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Explanation

Cold hemagglutinin disease is mediated by IgM anti-I that binds red cells at cool temperatures in the extremities and fixes complement. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is usually caused by IgG with specificity within the Rh system. HDN and delayed transfusion reactions are typically caused by alloimmune IgG.

Question 14Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which statement about Lewis system antibodies is accurate?

  1. They are IgG and commonly cause hemolytic disease of the newborn
  2. They are caused by previous pregnancy sensitization
  3. They are usually neutralized by soluble Lewis substance in plasma Correct answer.
  4. They react only in the antiglobulin phase

Explanation

Lewis antibodies are IgM that react best at room temperature, and they are neutralized when donor units contain plasma with soluble Lewis substance. Lewis antigens are not present on fetal red cells, so these antibodies do not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. They are naturally occurring rather than the result of immune exposure.

Question 15Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which characteristic is typical of Kidd system antibodies?

  1. They are detected only by immediate spin
  2. They are IgM and bind complement strongly
  3. They are destroyed by enzyme treatment of red cells
  4. They show dosage and can cause delayed hemolytic reactions Correct answer.

Explanation

Jka and Jkb antibodies are IgG that react by the indirect antiglobulin test, show dosage, and decline to undetectable levels over time. Because they fall below detection yet reappear rapidly after transfusion, they are a classic cause of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions. They are not IgM-complement binders.

Question 16Blood Bank / Immunohematology

The Fy(a−b−) phenotype is clinically significant mainly because it confers resistance to which organism?

  1. Plasmodium malariae
  2. Babesia microti
  3. Plasmodium falciparum
  4. Plasmodium vivax Correct answer.

Explanation

The Duffy antigen is the receptor used by Plasmodium vivax to invade red cells, so Fy(a−b−) individuals are resistant to vivax malaria. This phenotype is common in populations of West African descent. It also matters in transfusion because anti-Fya is a clinically significant antibody.

Question 17Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A patient transfused 8 days ago now has falling hemoglobin, a positive DAT, and a newly detectable anti-Jka. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
  2. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction Correct answer.
  3. Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
  4. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

Explanation

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions occur about 5 to 10 days after transfusion when an anamnestic alloantibody response destroys the transfused cells. The antibody is often undetectable before transfusion but reappears and coats circulating red cells, producing a positive DAT. Kidd antibodies are a frequent cause.

Question 18Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which is the most common type of transfusion reaction?

  1. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction Correct answer.
  2. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
  3. Acute hemolytic reaction
  4. Anaphylactic reaction

Explanation

Febrile non-hemolytic reactions are the most frequently reported adverse transfusion event, characterized by a temperature rise without hemolysis. They are attributed to cytokines accumulated during storage and to recipient antibodies against donor leukocytes. Universal leukoreduction reduces their frequency.

Question 19Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A patient develops hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates within 2 hours of a plasma transfusion, with normal cardiac filling pressures. Which reaction is most likely?

  1. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
  2. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
  3. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
  4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury Correct answer.

Explanation

TRALI presents within 6 hours of transfusion with acute hypoxemia and bilateral infiltrates in the absence of volume overload, often linked to donor HLA or neutrophil antibodies in plasma-rich components. Management is supportive and the pulmonary edema resolves as the antibody clears. Diuretic therapy is not the primary treatment.

Question 20Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Routine antenatal Rh immune globulin prophylaxis for a D-negative pregnant woman is usually given at which gestational age?

  1. 36 weeks
  2. 8 weeks
  3. 28 weeks Correct answer.
  4. 16 weeks

Explanation

A standard antenatal dose of Rh immune globulin is given at about 28 weeks' gestation, with a second dose within 72 hours after delivery of a D-positive infant. Some protocols add a dose earlier in pregnancy after events such as amniocentesis or bleeding. The goal is to clear fetal D-positive cells before the mother mounts an immune response.

Question 21Blood Bank / Immunohematology

The Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test is performed for which purpose?

  1. Detecting antibodies against red cell antigens
  2. Confirming the ABO group of a newborn
  3. Measuring the survival of transfused red cells
  4. Quantifying fetal-maternal hemorrhage to calculate Rh immune globulin dose Correct answer.

Explanation

Fetal hemoglobin resists acid elution and stains dark, while adult hemoglobin is eluted from maternal cells, allowing the proportion of fetal cells to be estimated. That percentage is converted into an estimated volume of fetal-maternal hemorrhage so the Rh immune globulin dose can be adjusted. The test does not measure antibodies or red cell survival.

Question 22Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A patient's serum reacts with all screening cells at room temperature, and a cold autoantibody is suspected. Which technique is most appropriate to unmask a clinically significant alloantibody?

  1. Using enzyme-treated screening cells only
  2. Adding more LISS to the reaction
  3. Increasing the incubation time at room temperature
  4. Prewarming the reactants and washing with warm saline Correct answer.

Explanation

The prewarm technique keeps reactants at 37 °C so cold autoantibodies do not bind, while warm-reacting IgG alloantibodies remain able to attach. Warm saline washes prevent cooling during the procedure. Prolonged room temperature incubation or extra LISS would only strengthen the cold reactivity.

Question 23Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A patient with a strongly reactive warm autoantibody and no recent transfusion requires alloantibody detection. Which procedure is most suitable?

  1. Testing a post-transfusion sample
  2. Saline replacement with immediate spin only
  3. Neutralization with soluble Lewis substance
  4. Autologous adsorption using the patient's own red cells Correct answer.

Explanation

Autologous adsorption removes warm autoantibody from the serum while leaving alloantibodies, which can then be detected in the adsorbed serum. It is valid only when the patient has not been transfused in the preceding 3 months, because transfused donor cells could adsorb alloantibodies. Allogeneic adsorption is used when recent transfusion makes autoadsorption unsuitable.

Question 24Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which description best characterizes anti-K (Kell) antibody?

  1. Naturally occurring antibody of no clinical significance
  2. IgG antibody detected by AHG that causes HDN and hemolytic reactions Correct answer.
  3. IgM antibody that reacts only at immediate spin
  4. Antibody that reacts only with enzyme-treated cells

Explanation

Anti-K is an immune IgG antibody detected in the indirect antiglobulin phase and is clinically significant for both hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kell antigens are well developed on fetal red cells, so anti-K can cause severe fetal anemia. Enzyme treatment may weaken or destroy some Kell antigens, so enzyme-only testing is not appropriate.

Question 25Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Forward and reverse ABO grouping are discrepant and a weak A subgroup is suspected. Which technique is most useful for confirming the subgroup?

  1. Immediate spin crossmatch with group A cells
  2. Titration of the patient's anti-B
  3. Measurement of the patient's serum bilirubin
  4. Adsorption and elution with anti-A reagent Correct answer.

Explanation

Weak A subgroups carry few A antigen sites, so adsorption of anti-A onto the cells followed by elution demonstrates antigen that direct agglutination may miss. The eluate's reactivity confirms the presence of A antigen. Crossmatching or anti-B titration does not characterize the red cell antigen status.

Question 26Blood Bank / Immunohematology

In reverse (serum) ABO grouping, which reagent red cells are used?

  1. A1 cells and B cells Correct answer.
  2. A2 cells and O cells
  3. O cells and AB cells
  4. Pooled group O cells only

Explanation

Reverse grouping tests the patient's serum for anti-A and anti-B using reagent A1 and B cells. Agglutination with A1 cells indicates anti-A, and agglutination with B cells indicates anti-B. Group O cells are not used because they lack A and B antigens.

Question 27Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Red blood cell concentrates are stored at which temperature range?

  1. 20 to 24 °C
  2. 30 to 37 °C
  3. 1 to 6 °C Correct answer.
  4. −18 °C or colder

Explanation

Red cells are stored refrigerated at 1 to 6 °C to limit bacterial growth and preserve red cell viability. Frozen storage at −18 °C or colder is used for plasma or rare red cell units with cryoprotectant, not routine red cell storage. Room temperature and 37 °C are not acceptable for red cell storage.

Question 28Blood Bank / Immunohematology

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is used to detect which of the following?

  1. Unbound antibody present in the patient's serum
  2. Antibody or complement coating red cells in vivo Correct answer.
  3. Platelet-associated IgG in thrombocytopenia
  4. Free hemoglobin in the patient's plasma

Explanation

The DAT detects antibody and/or complement already bound to the patient's red cells in vivo. Washed red cells are reacted with antihuman globulin, and agglutination indicates sensitization. Serum antibody is detected by the indirect antiglobulin test, not the DAT.

Question 29Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which immunoglobulin class is most efficient at activating the classical complement pathway?

  1. IgE
  2. IgA
  3. IgM Correct answer.
  4. IgG

Explanation

IgM is a pentamer and is the most efficient activator of the classical complement pathway per molecule. IgG can activate complement, but usually requires two adjacent IgG molecules on the red cell surface. IgA and IgE do not efficiently activate classical complement.

Question 30Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A weak D test is performed primarily to identify which of the following?

  1. Red cells that express D antigen at reduced levels Correct answer.
  2. Red cells that are strongly positive for the Kell antigen
  3. Red cells that completely lack the D antigen
  4. Red cells with a positive direct antiglobulin test

Explanation

The weak D test uses antihuman globulin after incubation with anti-D to detect D antigen that is present but expressed at reduced levels. It is used to classify donors and patients whose direct agglutination with anti-D is negative. It does not type for Kell or assess the DAT.

Question 31Blood Bank / Immunohematology

An antibody screening test that is reactive only at the antihuman globulin phase most likely involves an antibody of which class?

  1. IgM
  2. IgA
  3. IgG Correct answer.
  4. IgE

Explanation

IgG antibodies typically react at 37 °C and are detected at the antihuman globulin phase. IgM antibodies usually agglutinate at room temperature or immediate spin. IgA and IgE are not typical red cell antibodies detected in routine screening.

Question 32Blood Bank / Immunohematology

An acid elution is performed on a DAT-positive red cell sample for which purpose?

  1. To remove complement from the red cell surface
  2. To recover antibody bound to the red cells Correct answer.
  3. To separate red cells from white cells in whole blood
  4. To enhance antigen expression before phenotyping

Explanation

Acid elution disrupts the bond between antibody and red cell antigen, releasing antibody into the eluate for testing. The eluate can be tested against panel cells to identify the specificity of the bound antibody. It is not used to remove complement, enhance antigens, or fractionate blood.

Question 33Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Treatment of reagent red cells with ficin or papain typically has which effect?

  1. It destroys all antigens in the Kell blood group system
  2. It enhances the detection of antibodies directed against Duffy antigens
  3. It has no measurable effect on any blood group antigen
  4. It enhances Rh detection but destroys Duffy antigens Correct answer.

Explanation

Proteolytic enzymes such as ficin and papain enhance many Rh system antibodies by increasing antigen accessibility. The same treatment destroys Duffy antigens and some MNS antigens, so enzyme-treated cells are not used alone for antibody detection. Kell antigens are generally resistant to enzymes.

Question 34Blood Bank / Immunohematology

An A2 individual with anti-A1 in the serum typically has which characteristic?

  1. A warm-reactive IgG antibody requiring AHG testing
  2. Clinically insignificant, reacting at room temperature Correct answer.
  3. Associated with a positive direct antiglobulin test
  4. Clinically significant, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn

Explanation

Anti-A1 in A2 or A2B individuals is usually a cold-reacting IgM antibody that is clinically insignificant. It may cause a discrepancy between forward and reverse ABO grouping but rarely causes hemolysis. It does not typically cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Question 35Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Postpartum Rh immune globulin for a D-negative woman should be given within which time after delivery?

  1. 24 hours
  2. 28 days
  3. 7 days
  4. 72 hours Correct answer.

Explanation

Rh immune globulin should be administered within 72 hours of delivery of a D-positive infant to a D-negative, unsensitized mother. Administration within this window prevents active immunization to the D antigen. Giving it later is less reliable, although some sources allow dosing up to 28 days if the 72-hour window was missed.

Question 36Blood Bank / Immunohematology

In a patient with a warm autoantibody, allogeneic adsorption is performed for which purpose?

  1. To detect alloantibodies after autoantibody removal Correct answer.
  2. To measure the titer of the autoantibody
  3. To enhance complement binding by the autoantibody
  4. To remove the autoantibody completely from the patient's serum

Explanation

Allogeneic adsorption uses selected donor red cells to adsorb warm autoantibody from the patient's serum. Testing the adsorbed serum against panel cells can then reveal underlying alloantibodies that were masked by the autoantibody. It is not a method for measuring autoantibody titer or enhancing complement.

Question 37Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Dithiothreitol (DTT) treatment of red cells is used in immunohematology because it has which effect?

  1. It enhances the reactivity of antibodies against Kell antigens
  2. It increases complement binding to red cells
  3. It preserves all blood group antigens equally well
  4. It denatures Kell antigens but spares most others Correct answer.

Explanation

DTT reduces disulfide bonds and denatures Kell system antigens, which are highly sensitive to this treatment. Many other blood group antigens remain intact, so DTT-treated cells can help distinguish anti-K from other antibodies. It does not enhance Kell reactivity or complement binding.

Question 38Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A delayed serologic transfusion reaction is characterized by which finding?

  1. A newly positive DAT without evidence of hemolysis Correct answer.
  2. A negative antibody screen after transfusion
  3. A positive DAT with hemoglobinuria and fever
  4. An immediate positive crossmatch at room temperature

Explanation

A delayed serologic transfusion reaction occurs when an antibody becomes detectable days after transfusion and the DAT turns positive, but red cell survival remains normal. If hemolysis also occurs, it is classified as a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. The antibody screen may become positive, not negative.

Question 39Blood Bank / Immunohematology

Which finding favors TACO over TRALI in a transfusion recipient?

  1. Onset within 6 hours of transfusion
  2. Elevated brain natriuretic peptide and hypertension Correct answer.
  3. Fever and hypotension during the transfusion
  4. Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest radiograph

Explanation

TACO is transfusion-associated circulatory overload and is supported by hypertension, elevated BNP, jugular venous distension, and improvement with diuresis. TRALI also causes bilateral infiltrates and hypoxemia, but it is more often associated with fever and hypotension and lacks volume overload. Both can occur within 6 hours.

Question 40Blood Bank / Immunohematology

A mixed-field agglutination reaction in a recently transfused patient is best explained by which of the following?

  1. The patient has a warm-reacting autoantibody
  2. The patient has a cold-reacting autoantibody
  3. Two populations of red cells are present Correct answer.
  4. The reagent red cells have expired

Explanation

Mixed-field agglutination describes clumps of agglutinated cells among unagglutinated cells, which occurs when two red cell populations coexist, such as after transfusion or in a chimera. The patient's own cells and donor cells may differ in antigen expression. Autoantibodies usually produce uniform reactivity rather than a mixed field.

Question 41Clinical Chemistry

Which additive is preferred in a plasma tube to inhibit glycolysis when glucose measurement will be delayed?

  1. Sodium citrate
  2. Sodium heparin
  3. Potassium EDTA
  4. Sodium fluoride Correct answer.

Explanation

Sodium fluoride inhibits enolase, a glycolytic enzyme, slowing the fall in glucose concentration after collection. EDTA, heparin, and citrate are anticoagulants but do not effectively block glycolysis.

Question 42Clinical Chemistry

Which plasma protein is responsible for transporting iron from the intestine and storage sites to the bone marrow?

  1. Ferritin
  2. Ceruloplasmin
  3. Haptoglobin
  4. Transferrin Correct answer.

Explanation

Transferrin binds ferric iron and delivers it to erythroid precursors and other tissues. Ferritin stores iron, ceruloplasmin transports copper, and haptoglobin binds free hemoglobin.

Question 43Clinical Chemistry

Which enzyme is typically most elevated in serum in cholestatic liver disease?

  1. AST
  2. ALP Correct answer.
  3. ALT
  4. CK

Explanation

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) rises with impaired bile flow because it is concentrated in bile canaliculi and biliary epithelium. AST and ALT are more associated with hepatocellular injury, and CK with muscle injury.

Question 44Clinical Chemistry

Which method is considered the reference method for measuring glucose in serum or plasma?

  1. Hexokinase Correct answer.
  2. Glucose oxidase
  3. o-Toluidine
  4. Folin-Wu

Explanation

The hexokinase method measures true glucose with high specificity and is widely used as a reference procedure. Glucose oxidase is specific but can be affected by interferences, while o-toluidine and Folin-Wu are older, less specific methods.

Question 45Clinical Chemistry

The Beer-Lambert law states that absorbance is directly proportional to which pair of variables?

  1. Reaction time and enzyme activity
  2. Wavelength and temperature
  3. Current and ion charge
  4. Concentration and path length Correct answer.

Explanation

Absorbance increases with the concentration of the absorbing species and with the light path length through the cuvette. Molar absorptivity at a given wavelength is also part of the relationship, but wavelength and temperature are not the paired variables stated in the law.

Question 46Clinical Chemistry

What is the typical reference range for arterial blood pH?

  1. 7.25-7.35
  2. 7.35-7.45 Correct answer.
  3. 7.00-7.20
  4. 7.45-7.55

Explanation

Arterial blood pH is normally maintained between about 7.35 and 7.45. Values below 7.35 indicate acidemia, and values above 7.45 indicate alkalemia.

Question 47Clinical Chemistry

Which analyte is used to assess long-term glycemic control over the preceding 2 to 3 months?

  1. Fructosamine
  2. Hemoglobin A1c Correct answer.
  3. Glycated albumin
  4. 1,5-anhydroglucitol

Explanation

Hemoglobin A1c reflects glucose exposure over the lifespan of red cells, roughly 2 to 3 months. Fructosamine and glycated albumin reflect shorter-term control, and 1,5-anhydroglucitol reflects recent hyperglycemia over days.

Question 48Clinical Chemistry

Which ion is the major intracellular cation in the body?

  1. Calcium
  2. Sodium
  3. Potassium Correct answer.
  4. Magnesium

Explanation

Potassium is the predominant intracellular cation, with high intracellular concentration maintained by the sodium-potassium pump. Sodium is the major extracellular cation, and calcium and magnesium are mostly extracellular or stored in bone.

Question 49Clinical Chemistry

A patient has serum sodium 140 mmol/L, chloride 104 mmol/L, and bicarbonate 22 mmol/L. What is the anion gap?

  1. 24
  2. 10
  3. 18
  4. 14 Correct answer.

Explanation

The anion gap is calculated as sodium minus the sum of chloride and bicarbonate. Here, 140 minus (104 + 22) equals 14 mmol/L, which is within the usual reference interval.

Question 50Clinical Chemistry

A patient has a measured serum osmolality of 300 mOsm/kg and a calculated osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg. Which condition best explains the increased osmolal gap?

  1. A normal gap
  2. Methanol poisoning Correct answer.
  3. Severe hypernatremia
  4. Advanced uremia

Explanation

An osmolal gap above about 10 mOsm/kg suggests an unmeasured osmotically active substance such as methanol, ethylene glycol, or isopropanol. Hypernatremia and uremia raise both measured and calculated osmolality, so the gap remains normal.