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CASA IREX practice questions

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Question 1Instrument flight rules and procedures

Under standard IFR cruising altitude rules, which altitude is appropriate for a magnetic track of 085° above 3,000 feet in controlled airspace?

  1. Odd thousands only
  2. Even thousands only
  3. Even thousands plus 500 feet
  4. Odd thousands plus 500 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

Tracks from 000° through 179° use odd thousands plus 500 feet above 3,000 feet, while tracks from 180° through 359° use even thousands plus 500 feet. A track of 085° falls in the first group, so an odd-thousand-plus-500 altitude applies.

Question 2Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the primary purpose of a standard instrument departure procedure?

  1. To replace the need for a takeoff minimum
  2. To assign the aircraft a cruise altitude automatically
  3. To guarantee radar vectors from departure control
  4. To provide obstacle clearance and a predictable route from the runway to the en-route structure Correct answer.

Explanation

A standard instrument departure is a published procedure that connects the runway environment to the en-route structure while ensuring obstacle clearance along a defined path. It gives both pilots and controllers a common, predictable routing.

Question 3Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft on an ILS approach is at the decision altitude with the required visual references in sight. What is the correct action?

  1. Continue descending only after reporting the runway in sight
  2. Immediately climb to the missed approach altitude
  3. Continue to land, or execute a missed approach if landing cannot be completed Correct answer.
  4. Hold at the decision altitude until cleared to land

Explanation

At decision altitude the pilot must have the required visual references and be in a position to land normally; if so, the approach continues to landing. If those conditions are not met, a missed approach must be flown.

Question 4Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does the term 'minimum safe altitude' published on an IFR en-route chart provide?

  1. A clearance limit for the flight
  2. The lowest altitude at which ATC will issue a vector
  3. Obstacle clearance within a defined area, not necessarily along a specific route Correct answer.
  4. Terrain clearance only along the centerline of an airway

Explanation

Minimum safe altitudes are computed to give obstacle clearance over a defined area, such as a grid or sector. They are emergency reference values and do not guarantee navigation signal coverage or ATC separation.

Question 5Instrument flight rules and procedures

Which condition requires a pilot to file an IFR flight plan before departing?

  1. Operating under visual flight rules in Class G airspace
  2. Operating in instrument meteorological conditions in controlled airspace Correct answer.
  3. Operating a training flight in Class D airspace under visual rules
  4. Operating a glider in daytime visual conditions

Explanation

IFR operations in controlled airspace under instrument meteorological conditions require an IFR flight plan and clearance. Visual operations in uncontrolled airspace and most VFR flights do not require an IFR filing.

Question 6Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the purpose of a holding pattern entry procedure?

  1. To establish radar contact before entering the hold
  2. To reduce fuel consumption while waiting
  3. To allow ATC to sequence arrivals on the ground
  4. To position the aircraft within the protected airspace of the holding pattern Correct answer.

Explanation

Entry procedures are designed so that any entry method keeps the aircraft inside the protected airspace of the holding pattern. They standardize maneuvering and preserve obstacle clearance.

Question 7Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does a clearance to 'descend via the arrival' authorize?

  1. Descending along the published vertical profile while complying with charted speed and altitude restrictions Correct answer.
  2. Cancelling the arrival and proceeding direct to the destination
  3. Leaving the arrival track at pilot discretion
  4. Descending immediately to the lowest published altitude on the chart

Explanation

A descend-via clearance permits vertical navigation along the published profile of the arrival while honoring all charted restrictions. The pilot remains responsible for meeting each published altitude and speed constraint.

Question 8Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the function of the glide slope in an ILS approach?

  1. It supplies range information to the threshold
  2. It identifies the missed approach point by distance
  3. It provides lateral guidance aligned with the runway centerline
  4. It provides vertical guidance to a point near the runway threshold Correct answer.

Explanation

The glide slope transmits vertical guidance along a defined descent path to the runway. Lateral guidance is provided by the localizer, and range is provided by marker beacons or distance measuring equipment.

Question 9Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft flying IFR is cleared to cross a fix at or above 8,000 feet. Which altitude satisfies the clearance?

  1. 8,000 feet Correct answer.
  2. 7,500 feet
  3. 6,500 feet
  4. 7,000 feet

Explanation

An 'at or above' restriction requires the aircraft to be at or higher than the stated altitude when crossing the fix. Descending below 8,000 feet before the fix would violate the clearance.

Question 10Instrument flight rules and procedures

A pilot receives 'cleared for the approach' while being vectored. What must the pilot ensure before descending below the minimum vectoring altitude?

  1. The transponder is set to the departure code
  2. The aircraft is established on a published segment of the approach Correct answer.
  3. The tower has reported the runway wind
  4. The landing gear is extended

Explanation

A vector does not authorize descent below the minimum vectoring altitude unless the aircraft is established on a published segment of the approach. Once established, the published minimum altitudes for that segment apply.

Question 11Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the significance of a 'fly-over' waypoint in an RNAV procedure?

  1. The aircraft may begin the turn before reaching the waypoint
  2. The aircraft must cross the waypoint before turning to the next leg Correct answer.
  3. The waypoint marks the missed approach point
  4. The waypoint is used only for fuel planning

Explanation

A fly-over waypoint requires the aircraft to pass over the point before initiating the turn to the following leg. This protects obstacle clearance where early turning would be unsafe.

Question 12Instrument flight rules and procedures

During a precision approach, the aircraft is at 100 feet above decision altitude without the required visual references. What should the pilot do?

  1. Level off and wait for the runway to appear
  2. Execute the missed approach Correct answer.
  3. Continue descending to the runway
  4. Request a lower minimum from ATC

Explanation

If the required visual references are not acquired by decision altitude, the pilot must begin the missed approach. Continuing without references risks collision with terrain or obstacles.

Question 13Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does the term 'reduced vertical separation minimum' refer to in oceanic airspace?

  1. A reduction in the required navigation performance
  2. A reduced speed restriction for turbojet aircraft
  3. A smaller altitude separation applied between suitably equipped aircraft Correct answer.
  4. A smaller lateral separation applied between all aircraft

Explanation

Reduced vertical separation minimum permits 1,000-foot vertical separation between aircraft that meet specified equipment and performance criteria, instead of the traditional 2,000 feet. It applies to altitude separation, not lateral spacing.

Question 14Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft loses two-way radio communication in instrument conditions on an IFR flight plan. What is the standard initial action?

  1. Squawk 7600 and land at the nearest airport without delay
  2. Continue on the last assigned route and altitude and attempt to reestablish communication Correct answer.
  3. Turn back to the departure airport
  4. Descend immediately to the minimum safe altitude and circle

Explanation

The standard procedure is to maintain the last assigned clearance and attempt to reestablish contact on the appropriate frequencies. The flight then follows the published lost-communication procedure for its route and conditions.

Question 15Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the purpose of a mandatory altitude restriction depicted on a standard instrument departure?

  1. To mark the transition altitude for the departure
  2. To show the minimum altitude for radar coverage
  3. To ensure obstacle clearance or traffic sequencing at that point Correct answer.
  4. To indicate the optimum cruise altitude

Explanation

Mandatory altitude restrictions on a departure ensure terrain or obstacle clearance and support traffic sequencing. They must be complied with unless ATC issues an amended clearance.

Question 16Instrument flight rules and procedures

A pilot is cleared for a visual approach in instrument conditions with the airport in sight. What responsibility does the pilot accept?

  1. Reporting the airport in sight only after landing
  2. Providing separation from all other IFR traffic
  3. Maintaining terrain and obstacle clearance and traffic separation from other aircraft Correct answer.
  4. Cancelling the IFR flight plan automatically

Explanation

When cleared for a visual approach, the pilot assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle clearance and for maintaining separation from other aircraft. ATC retains separation responsibility only until the clearance is issued.

Question 17Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does the abbreviation 'MDA' represent on an instrument approach chart?

  1. Mandatory departure altitude
  2. Missed distance available
  3. Maximum descent angle
  4. Minimum descent altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

Minimum descent altitude is the lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the required visual references are acquired. It is a key element of non-precision approach minima.

Question 18Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft crosses a fix at 10,000 feet and is cleared to descend to 6,000 feet at pilot discretion. Which statement is correct?

  1. The pilot may descend at any rate but must be at 6,000 feet by the next restriction Correct answer.
  2. The pilot must remain at 10,000 feet until cleared further
  3. The pilot must descend immediately at maximum rate
  4. The pilot may descend only after reporting leaving 10,000 feet

Explanation

A pilot-discretion descent allows the pilot to choose the rate and timing of descent, provided all subsequent altitude restrictions are met. It does not require an immediate maximum-rate descent.

Question 19Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the primary purpose of a required navigation performance specification?

  1. To define the navigation accuracy needed for operation in a given airspace Correct answer.
  2. To set the minimum fuel reserve for a route
  3. To determine the aircraft's takeoff weight
  4. To prescribe the aircraft's maximum cruise speed

Explanation

A required navigation performance specification states the navigation accuracy required for operation within a particular airspace. Operators must ensure their equipment and procedures meet that performance level.

Question 20Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft on an ILS approach has the localizer centered but the glide slope needle deflected fully upward. What is the most likely condition?

  1. The localizer is unreliable
  2. The marker beacon is inoperative
  3. The aircraft is above the glide path
  4. The aircraft is below the glide path Correct answer.

Explanation

A full-scale upward deflection of the glide slope needle indicates the aircraft is below the glide path, and the pilot should fly toward the needle to intercept. A downward deflection would indicate the aircraft is above the path.

Question 21Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is cleared to hold at a fix on the 090° radial, right turns, with an inbound course of 270°. Which entry is appropriate when approaching the fix from the north?

  1. Teardrop entry
  2. Procedure turn entry
  3. Direct entry
  4. Parallel entry Correct answer.

Explanation

For a holding pattern with an inbound course of 270°, the outbound leg runs toward 090°. Approaching from the north places the aircraft in the sector that calls for a parallel entry, followed by a turn to rejoin the pattern.

Question 22Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is at 4,000 feet on an airway with a minimum en-route altitude of 6,000 feet and receives a clearance to maintain 4,000 feet. What is the pilot's correct response?

  1. Advise ATC that the assigned altitude is below the minimum en-route altitude and request higher Correct answer.
  2. Maintain 4,000 feet as cleared without comment
  3. Climb to 6,000 feet without advising ATC
  4. Descend to the minimum safe altitude instead

Explanation

The pilot should inform ATC when an assigned altitude is below the published minimum en-route altitude for the route. The controller can then issue a corrected clearance, and the pilot should not silently deviate from the clearance.

Question 23Instrument flight rules and procedures

During a non-precision approach, the aircraft reaches the missed approach point at the minimum descent altitude without the required visual references. What is the correct action?

  1. Hold at the minimum descent altitude until visual contact
  2. Continue descending to the runway while searching for the runway
  3. Request a precision approach from ATC
  4. Begin the published missed approach immediately Correct answer.

Explanation

On a non-precision approach, descent below the minimum descent altitude is not authorized unless the required visual references are in sight at the missed approach point. If they are not, the published missed approach must be flown.

Question 24Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is cleared to cross a fix at 9,000 feet, then to descend via the arrival. The next charted restriction is 6,000 feet at a fix 12 miles later. What must the pilot ensure?

  1. The aircraft descends immediately to 6,000 feet after the first fix
  2. The aircraft crosses the first fix at 9,000 feet and meets the 6,000-foot restriction at the later fix Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft requests a new clearance before descending
  4. The aircraft remains at 9,000 feet until the later fix

Explanation

Each published restriction on the arrival remains binding even when a descend-via clearance is issued. The pilot must satisfy the first crossing altitude and then meet the subsequent charted altitude at its designated fix.

Question 25Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the standard lateral separation minimum applied between aircraft on intersecting airways in a radar-controlled environment when both aircraft are established on their centerlines?

  1. Two nautical miles when both aircraft are turbojet powered
  2. Three nautical miles when within forty nautical miles of the radar antenna Correct answer.
  3. Ten nautical miles when either aircraft is above flight level two hundred
  4. Five nautical miles regardless of distance from the radar site

Explanation

In radar airspace the standard minimum is three nautical miles between aircraft established on defined routes within forty nautical miles of the radar head; beyond that distance wake turbulence and radar accuracy require expanded minima. Five nautical miles is the non-radar or expanded standard, not the basic radar value.

Question 26Instrument flight rules and procedures

An IFR flight is cleared to climb to flight level one eight zero. Which altimeter setting does the pilot use while maintaining that level?

  1. The forecast altimeter setting at the destination
  2. The altimeter setting reported by the nearest radar facility
  3. The local altimeter setting of the departure airport
  4. The standard setting of twenty-nine point nine two inches of mercury Correct answer.

Explanation

At or above the transition level, aircraft fly at flight levels referenced to the standard pressure setting of 1013.2 hectopascals, equivalent to 29.92 inches of mercury. Local station settings are used only at and below the transition altitude, so a clearance to a flight level requires the standard setting.

Question 27Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does a minimum safe altitude warning from an air traffic controller indicate to a pilot?

  1. The aircraft's transponder has failed to reply to interrogations
  2. The aircraft's tracked position and altitude have entered a volume below the minimum safe altitude Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft has exceeded the maximum speed for the airway segment
  4. The aircraft has drifted outside the lateral limits of the airway

Explanation

A minimum safe altitude warning is generated automatically when surveillance data place an aircraft below the established minimum safe altitude for that area. The controller issues a safety alert, and the pilot should immediately verify altitude and climb if terrain clearance is in doubt.

Question 28Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is cleared to 'hold short of runway one eight at taxiway Bravo' while taxiing. What does this instruction require?

  1. Stop before the runway holding position markings and obtain a further clearance before proceeding Correct answer.
  2. Continue onto the runway and wait on the centerline for takeoff clearance
  3. Stop on the taxiway centerline without regard to the holding position marking
  4. Reduce speed but keep rolling across the holding position marking

Explanation

A hold short instruction requires the aircraft to stop before the designated holding position markings and not cross them until an explicit clearance is received. This protects the runway protected area from incursion. The pilot should read back the instruction to confirm understanding.

Question 29Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the purpose of a standard instrument departure obstacle departure procedure printed in text form?

  1. To define the minimum fuel required before starting the takeoff roll
  2. To provide a published climb gradient and routing that assures obstacle clearance until the en-route structure is joined Correct answer.
  3. To assign the cruise altitude the pilot must maintain for the entire flight
  4. To specify the holding pattern to be flown if the departure is missed

Explanation

A textual obstacle departure procedure states the routing and, where needed, a minimum climb gradient so that the aircraft clears obstacles before reaching the en-route structure. It does not assign cruise altitudes or fuel requirements. Pilots must be able to meet the published gradient in the expected conditions.

Question 30Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is flying a localizer approach with no glide slope. What does the final approach fix identify on this type of procedure?

  1. The point where the aircraft intercepts the localizer course
  2. The point where the aircraft transitions to visual flight
  3. The point where the missed approach must be initiated
  4. The point where the aircraft begins descent to the minimum descent altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

On a non-precision localizer approach the final approach fix marks the start of the final descent segment, from which the aircraft descends to the minimum descent altitude. The missed approach point is a separate, later point. Interception of the localizer normally occurs before the final approach fix.

Question 31Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does the term 'initial approach fix' designate on an instrument approach procedure?

  1. The fix marking the beginning of the missed approach segment
  2. The point at which the aircraft is established on the final approach course
  3. The fix at which the aircraft must contact the tower controller
  4. A fix where the aircraft begins the published approach transition into the intermediate segment Correct answer.

Explanation

The initial approach fix is the charted point at which the aircraft enters the approach structure and flies the published transition toward the intermediate segment. It is distinct from the final approach fix and the missed approach point. Some procedures have several initial approach fixes serving different transitions.

Question 32Instrument flight rules and procedures

A pilot on an IFR flight plan in controlled airspace wants to deviate around a thunderstorm. What is the correct action?

  1. Cancel the IFR flight plan before turning off course
  2. Advise the company dispatcher only and continue the turn
  3. Request approval from air traffic control before deviating from the cleared route Correct answer.
  4. Deviate immediately without notification and resume the route when clear

Explanation

In controlled airspace the pilot must obtain an ATC clearance before deviating from the assigned route, though the controller will normally approve promptly when weather is involved. If an immediate turn is required for safety, the pilot should advise ATC as soon as practicable. Unannounced deviations can create traffic conflicts.

Question 33Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the meaning of 'cleared direct to the ABC VOR' when the aircraft is off the published route structure?

  1. Hold at the present position until the VOR is identified
  2. Proceed to the VOR by rejoining the nearest airway and following it
  3. Descend to the minimum en-route altitude for the direct segment immediately
  4. Proceed on a direct course to the VOR while maintaining the assigned altitude until further cleared Correct answer.

Explanation

A direct clearance authorizes navigation straight to the named fix, but it does not authorize a change of altitude. The assigned altitude remains in effect, and the pilot is responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance along the direct path unless ATC advises otherwise.

Question 34Instrument flight rules and procedures

Which condition must be met before a pilot may begin an instrument approach at an airport where the reported weather is below the approach minimums?

  1. The airport must have an operating precision approach radar
  2. The pilot must have completed a circling approach within the previous ninety days
  3. The pilot must obtain a special clearance from the radar controller
  4. The aircraft must have enough fuel to proceed to an alternate airport Correct answer.

Explanation

An approach may be commenced when the weather is below minimums only if the aircraft can proceed to a suitable alternate, meaning the required fuel reserve is intact. Beginning the approach does not guarantee completion, so the diversion capability must be preserved. Currency and equipment items do not create this authority.

Question 35Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does a 'descend to cross the fix at 5,000 feet' instruction require of the pilot?

  1. Descend at the normal rate and level off at 5,000 feet after passing the fix
  2. Maintain at least 5,000 feet until the fix and then descend
  3. Descend to 5,000 feet only after reporting over the fix
  4. Adjust the rate of descent so the aircraft reaches exactly 5,000 feet at the fix Correct answer.

Explanation

A crossing restriction requires the aircraft to arrive at the specified fix at the assigned altitude, so the pilot plans the descent profile to meet it precisely. It is not a block or a minimum; it is a specific crossing altitude. Reporting over the fix does not change the requirement.

Question 36Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the purpose of a parallel entry into a holding pattern?

  1. To shorten the inbound leg by turning early toward the fix
  2. To permit the aircraft to descend while turning in the holding direction
  3. To keep the aircraft on the holding side of the fix at all times
  4. To allow an aircraft approaching from a sector where a direct turn to the holding side is impractical to maneuver into the pattern Correct answer.

Explanation

The parallel entry is used when the aircraft arrives from a sector that makes a direct or teardrop entry awkward; the aircraft turns to parallel the inbound course on the non-holding side and then turns back to intercept. It is one of three standard entry methods. The choice depends on the arrival bearing relative to the holding course.

Question 37Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is instructed to 'contact departure control on 124.7' after takeoff. What does this instruction transfer?

  1. The requirement to squawk the discrete code to the tower
  2. Communication responsibility to the departure controller while the IFR clearance remains in effect Correct answer.
  3. The altitude assignment authority back to the tower
  4. The navigation responsibility for the departure procedure to the controller

Explanation

A frequency handoff transfers radio communication responsibility to the named facility, while the existing IFR clearance, including route and altitude, continues unchanged unless amended. The pilot should check in with the new facility and report the assigned altitude. Navigation remains the pilot's responsibility.

Question 38Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the significance of the 'no procedure turn' note on an instrument approach chart?

  1. The aircraft may omit the final approach fix reporting requirement
  2. The aircraft must circle to land regardless of the approach course
  3. The aircraft must hold at the final approach fix before descending
  4. The aircraft must proceed straight in from the depicted segment without flying a course reversal Correct answer.

Explanation

When a procedure turn is not authorized, the pilot proceeds directly along the depicted course from the specified segment to the final approach fix without a course reversal. This is common where terrain, traffic, or airspace makes the turn unsafe. The note does not alter reporting or landing requirements.

Question 39Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft on an airway is cleared to climb from 8,000 to 12,000 feet. When may the pilot begin the climb?

  1. Immediately upon acknowledging the clearance, since it is an unrestricted climb instruction Correct answer.
  2. Only after the controller issues a separate 'climb now' instruction
  3. Only after reporting leaving 8,000 feet to the controller
  4. Only after passing the next compulsory reporting point

Explanation

An unrestricted climb clearance authorizes the pilot to begin climbing as soon as the clearance is acknowledged and read back. No additional report is needed to start the climb, though the pilot should report reaching the assigned altitude. Restrictions would be stated explicitly if intended.

Question 40Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the primary purpose of a designated alternate airport on an IFR flight plan?

  1. To act as the diversion point for a missed approach at the destination
  2. To provide a planned landing option if the destination cannot be used Correct answer.
  3. To serve as the required fuel stop on long routes
  4. To provide the weather report used for the destination forecast

Explanation

An alternate airport is planned so that the flight has a viable landing option if an approach at the destination cannot be completed. It must meet the weather and runway requirements specified for the flight. It is not a fuel stop or a weather source.

Question 41Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is established on the final approach course of an ILS when the controller issues a speed restriction of 160 knots to the final approach fix. What should the pilot do?

  1. Ignore the restriction because speed control ends at the outer marker
  2. Reduce to the aircraft's final approach speed immediately
  3. Maintain 160 knots until the final approach fix or until the restriction is cancelled Correct answer.
  4. Increase speed to intercept the glide slope more quickly

Explanation

A controller-issued speed restriction remains in effect until the specified point or until it is cancelled, even after localizer interception. The pilot must plan deceleration so that approach speed is reached by the appropriate point. Speed control does not automatically end at the outer marker.

Question 42Instrument flight rules and procedures

What does the abbreviation 'TA' represent on an instrument approach chart?

  1. Transition altitude Correct answer.
  2. Traffic advisory
  3. Takeoff alternate
  4. Terminal area

Explanation

TA on approach charts denotes transition altitude, the altitude at or below which the local altimeter setting is used and above which flight levels are used. It is distinct from the transition level, which is the first usable flight level above the transition altitude. The value varies by location and is charted for pilot reference.

Question 43Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft experiences a communications failure in visual meteorological conditions while on an IFR flight plan. What is the expected course of action?

  1. Descend immediately to the minimum en-route altitude and circle
  2. Continue the flight under visual flight rules and land as soon as practicable Correct answer.
  3. Proceed directly to the destination and enter the traffic pattern without further action
  4. Climb to the highest available altitude and hold until intercepted

Explanation

When radio failure occurs in visual conditions, the pilot is expected to continue under visual flight rules, remain clear of clouds, and land as soon as practicable. This may involve landing at a nearby suitable airport. The instrument-conditions failure procedure does not apply when visual flight can be maintained.

Question 44Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the purpose of a cold temperature correction on an instrument approach?

  1. To increase the approach speed for gusty conditions
  2. To compensate for the altimeter over-reading in cold air so that true height above the ground is not less than charted Correct answer.
  3. To adjust the local altimeter setting to sea level pressure
  4. To reduce the missed approach climb gradient required

Explanation

In cold air the altimeter over-reads, so the aircraft is actually lower than indicated; applying a cold temperature correction adds altitude to published minimums to preserve terrain and obstacle clearance. Corrections are required at or below specified temperatures, often with a charted note. They do not alter altimeter settings or speeds.

Question 45Instrument flight rules and procedures

What distinguishes an RNAV approach with lateral navigation guidance only from one with vertical guidance?

  1. The lateral-only procedure requires a higher category of aircraft certification
  2. The lateral-only procedure cannot be flown without a ground-based navigation aid
  3. The lateral-only procedure always permits a lower minimum than the vertical guidance version
  4. The lateral-only procedure provides no approved vertical path and is flown to a minimum descent altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

Lateral navigation approaches provide course guidance without an approved vertical path, so the pilot descends to a minimum descent altitude and must see the runway environment before landing. Approaches with vertical guidance use a decision altitude and typically allow lower minima. Neither requires ground-based aids when satellite based.

Question 46Instrument flight rules and procedures

An aircraft is cleared to 'maintain 3,000 feet until established on the localizer, then cleared for the ILS approach.' What does this clearance authorize?

  1. Descend on the glide slope after localizer interception without a further altitude clearance Correct answer.
  2. Hold at 3,000 feet until the tower issues a landing clearance
  3. Descend to 3,000 feet only after the glide slope is intercepted
  4. Maintain 3,000 feet until the middle marker is crossed

Explanation

This clearance combines an altitude restriction with an approach clearance; once established on the localizer, the pilot may follow the glide slope down without an additional altitude clearance. The 3,000-foot restriction protects the intercept segment. No further clearance is needed to descend on the published path.

Question 47Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the meaning of a 'fly-by' waypoint in an RNAV route?

  1. The aircraft must cross the waypoint at a specified altitude
  2. The aircraft anticipates the turn and begins it before reaching the waypoint Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must hold at the waypoint until cleared onward
  4. The aircraft must overfly the waypoint before turning

Explanation

A fly-by waypoint permits the aircraft to begin the turn in anticipation so that the new course is established as the waypoint is passed. This smooths the path and keeps the aircraft inside protected airspace. A fly-over waypoint, by contrast, requires crossing the fix before turning.

Question 48Instrument flight rules and procedures

What action is required when an aircraft on an IFR flight plan is given a 'block altitude' clearance from 6,000 to 8,000 feet?

  1. The aircraft must maintain exactly 7,000 feet, the midpoint of the block
  2. The aircraft may climb or descend at pilot discretion anywhere within the block while remaining inside it Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must remain at 6,000 feet until cleared higher
  4. The aircraft may exceed 8,000 feet briefly during climbs

Explanation

A block altitude clearance authorizes the pilot to operate at any altitude within the stated block without further clearance, which is useful for turbulence or icing avoidance. The aircraft must remain within the block limits. Leaving the block requires a new clearance.

Question 49Instrument flight rules and procedures

What is the purpose of a mandatory reporting point on an IFR route in a non-radar environment?

  1. To provide position reports that allow the controller to apply procedural separation Correct answer.
  2. To indicate where the transponder must be switched to standby
  3. To mark the point where the pilot changes to the next en-route frequency
  4. To identify where the aircraft must begin its descent for arrival

Explanation

In non-radar airspace, position reports over designated fixes give the controller the information needed to apply procedural separation between aircraft. Reports typically include time, altitude, and the next estimated fix. Frequency changes and descent points are separate matters.

Question 50Instrument flight rules and procedures

While flying an IFR clearance, a pilot is issued the instruction 'climb to and maintain 6,000 feet.' What does this instruction require the pilot to do?

  1. Remain at the current altitude until the controller issues a separate climb clearance
  2. Climb at any convenient rate as long as 6,000 feet is reached within ten minutes
  3. Level off temporarily at any intermediate altitude before continuing the climb
  4. Climb continuously so as to reach 6,000 feet, then maintain that altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

An altitude assignment such as 'climb to and maintain 6,000 feet' authorizes an uninterrupted climb to the assigned altitude and requires the aircraft to remain there until further clearance. The pilot may not level off at intermediate altitudes without advising ATC, because other traffic separation is based on a continuous climb. Reaching the altitude ends the climb clearance and establishes the assigned altitude as the one to maintain.