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APC Intern Written Exam study materials
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APC Intern Written Exam practice questions

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Question 1Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which piece of legislation primarily governs the dispensing of controlled substances in the United States?

  1. The Orphan Drug Act
  2. The Controlled Substances Act Correct answer.
  3. The Hatch-Waxman Act
  4. The Pure Food and Drug Act

Explanation

The Controlled Substances Act establishes the federal scheduling system and the registration requirements that govern prescribing, dispensing, and recordkeeping for controlled substances. The other statutes address food and drug purity, generic drug approval, and incentives for rare-disease drugs, respectively.

Question 2Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription is written for a Schedule II opioid. Which dispensing requirement applies under federal law?

  1. Up to five refills may be authorized within six months
  2. No refills are permitted and a new prescription is required for each fill Correct answer.
  3. Refills are permitted only with verbal authorization
  4. Refills are allowed if the prescriber states a quantity

Explanation

Schedule II prescriptions may not be refilled under federal law; each dispensing requires a new prescription from the prescriber. Refills are permitted for Schedule III through V drugs within specified limits, but not for Schedule II.

Question 3Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which auxiliary label is most appropriate for a suspension that must be shaken before each dose?

  1. Take with food
  2. For external use only
  3. Shake well before using Correct answer.
  4. Do not crush

Explanation

Suspensions contain dispersed particles that settle over time, so shaking resuspends the drug and ensures dose uniformity. The other labels address food interactions, dosage form integrity, or route of administration rather than redispersion.

Question 4Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

What does the abbreviation "prn" mean on a prescription?

  1. Every other day
  2. As needed Correct answer.
  3. By mouth
  4. At bedtime

Explanation

Prn derives from the Latin pro re nata, meaning as needed, and signals that the drug is used only when a specific condition arises. The other abbreviations denote route, bedtime dosing, and alternate-day frequency.

Question 5Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient asks how to store insulin vials that are currently in use. What is the usual recommendation?

  1. Keep in-use vials in a hot car for convenience
  2. Freeze in-use vials to extend stability
  3. Keep in-use vials at room temperature away from heat and light Correct answer.
  4. Store in-use vials in direct sunlight

Explanation

In-use insulin vials are generally kept at controlled room temperature and protected from heat and light for the labeled in-use period. Unopened vials are refrigerated, but freezing destroys the protein structure and inactivates insulin.

Question 6Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which dosage form is designed to release drug slowly over an extended period?

  1. Sublingual tablet
  2. Chewable tablet
  3. Effervescent tablet
  4. Extended-release tablet Correct answer.

Explanation

Extended-release dosage forms are formulated to release medication gradually, allowing less frequent dosing and steadier plasma concentrations. The other forms are intended for rapid disintegration, dissolution, or absorption.

Question 7Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription reads "Amoxicillin 500 mg po tid." How many doses per day does this order specify?

  1. Three Correct answer.
  2. Four
  3. Two
  4. One

Explanation

The abbreviation tid means three times daily, so the order calls for three doses each day. The abbreviations bid, qid, and qd correspond to two, four, and one daily dose respectively.

Question 8Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which organization publishes the United States Pharmacopeia–National Formulary standards for drug strength, quality, and purity?

  1. The Drug Enforcement Administration
  2. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
  3. The Food and Drug Administration
  4. The United States Pharmacopeial Convention Correct answer.

Explanation

The United States Pharmacopeial Convention is a private, nonprofit body that publishes official compendial standards for drugs and excipients. The FDA enforces standards, the DEA regulates controlled substances, and the CDC focuses on public health.

Question 9Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient with a documented penicillin allergy reports a rash after amoxicillin. Which action should the pharmacy technician take first?

  1. Discard the prescription without documentation
  2. Dispense the medication and tell the patient to watch for hives
  3. Substitute a different antibiotic without notifying anyone
  4. Alert the pharmacist so the prescription can be reviewed before dispensing Correct answer.

Explanation

A reported reaction to a prescribed antibiotic requires pharmacist review to determine whether the allergy is genuine and whether an alternative is needed. Technicians should escalate allergy concerns rather than dispense, substitute, or discard prescriptions independently.

Question 10Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescriber orders 0.5 g of a drug, and the available tablets are 250 mg each. How many tablets should be dispensed per dose?

  1. Four
  2. Half
  3. Two Correct answer.
  4. One

Explanation

Converting grams to milligrams gives 0.5 g = 500 mg. Dividing 500 mg by 250 mg per tablet yields two tablets per dose.

Question 11Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which statement best describes the purpose of a medication reconciliation process?

  1. It compares a patient's current medication list with newly prescribed and previously used medications to identify discrepancies Correct answer.
  2. It verifies that the pharmacy's inventory matches purchase invoices
  3. It documents the physical count of controlled substances in the safe
  4. It confirms that each prescription has been paid for before dispensing

Explanation

Medication reconciliation systematically compares what a patient is actually taking with new orders and historical records to catch omissions, duplications, and interactions. Inventory, payment, and controlled-substance counts are separate operational tasks.

Question 12Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription for a Schedule III drug is written with two refills authorized. Which statement is accurate under federal rules?

  1. The prescription may never be refilled
  2. The prescription may be refilled indefinitely as long as the prescriber agrees
  3. The prescription may be refilled up to the authorized number within six months of the issue date Correct answer.
  4. The prescription may be refilled only after a new oral authorization each time

Explanation

Schedule III and IV prescriptions may be refilled up to five times within six months of the date of issue, and only as many times as the prescriber authorizes. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be refilled at all.

Question 13Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient picks up a prescription for warfarin and asks whether to take it with aspirin for headaches. What is the most appropriate technician response?

  1. Tell the patient that aspirin is safe with any anticoagulant
  2. Recommend stopping the warfarin while taking aspirin
  3. Refer the question to the pharmacist because of the bleeding risk with this combination Correct answer.
  4. Advise the patient to double the warfarin dose on headache days

Explanation

Warfarin combined with aspirin increases bleeding risk, so the interaction requires pharmacist counseling and prescriber input. Technicians should not give clinical advice on anticoagulant combinations or dose changes.

Question 14Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which labeling element is required on a dispensed prescription container for an outpatient medication?

  1. The manufacturer's internal lot tracking code only
  2. The prescriber's home address
  3. Patient name, drug name and strength, directions, and pharmacy information Correct answer.
  4. The wholesale acquisition cost of the drug

Explanation

Outpatient prescription labels must identify the patient, the drug and strength, directions for use, and the dispensing pharmacy, along with any required cautions. Cost data, internal lot codes, and prescriber home addresses are not required label elements.

Question 15Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient brings in a prescription for a brand-name drug but requests the generic equivalent. What should the technician verify before substituting?

  1. That the generic has a different active ingredient
  2. That the generic is cheaper than the brand product
  3. That state law permits substitution and the prescriber has not prohibited it Correct answer.
  4. That the patient has insurance coverage for generics

Explanation

Generic substitution is governed by state law and requires that the prescriber not have prohibited substitution, with notification rules varying by state. Cost, coverage, and ingredient differences are not the legal basis for substitution.

Question 16Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which action best reduces the risk of a look-alike/sound-alike medication error at dispensing?

  1. Dispensing the first product that matches the strength
  2. Reading back the drug name and verifying the indication and dose against the prescription Correct answer.
  3. Selecting the product by package color alone
  4. Relying on the drug's shelf position to identify it

Explanation

Look-alike/sound-alike errors are reduced by verifying the drug name, strength, and purpose against the prescription and confirming with the patient when appropriate. Visual cues such as shelf position or packaging color are unreliable identifiers.

Question 17Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription is missing the quantity to dispense. What is the appropriate technician action?

  1. Dispense the smallest available package size
  2. Fill the prescription and note the omission later
  3. Estimate a quantity based on typical use
  4. Contact the prescriber to obtain the missing information before dispensing Correct answer.

Explanation

A prescription must contain all required elements before dispensing, so missing information such as quantity must be clarified with the prescriber. Estimating, guessing a package size, or filling incomplete prescriptions creates legal and safety risks.

Question 18Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which counseling point is most important for a patient starting a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin?

  1. Sit down before use because the drug can cause dizziness or fainting Correct answer.
  2. Store the tablets in a warm, humid place
  3. Take the tablet with a large glass of water
  4. Swallow the tablet whole with food

Explanation

Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, dizziness, and syncope, so patients should sit before dosing to reduce injury risk. Sublingual tablets are dissolved under the tongue, not swallowed, and should be kept in the original container away from heat and moisture.

Question 19Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A pharmacy receives a forged-looking prescription for a Schedule II opioid with an unusual quantity. What is the appropriate response?

  1. Dispense it because the signature appears present
  2. Do not dispense and notify the pharmacist, who may contact the prescriber or authorities Correct answer.
  3. Return it to the patient and say nothing further
  4. Change the quantity to a typical amount and dispense

Explanation

Suspected fraudulent or altered controlled-substance prescriptions should not be dispensed; the pharmacist should verify with the prescriber and follow legal reporting procedures. Altering the prescription or returning it without action is unsafe and may violate law.

Question 20Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor is prescribed a sympathomimetic decongestant. What is the primary concern?

  1. A predictable loss of the MAOI's antidepressant effect
  2. Increased renal clearance of the decongestant
  3. Reduced absorption of the decongestant
  4. A hypertensive crisis from excessive catecholamine activity Correct answer.

Explanation

MAO inhibitors block catecholamine breakdown, so adding a sympathomimetic can produce a dangerous rise in blood pressure. This interaction is a well-recognized hypertensive crisis risk and generally warrants avoiding the combination.

Question 21Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescriber orders a continuous infusion at 4 mg/min using a solution containing 2 mg/mL. What infusion rate in mL/min is required?

  1. 8 mL/min
  2. 2 mL/min Correct answer.
  3. 0.5 mL/min
  4. 4 mL/min

Explanation

Dividing the ordered dose by the concentration gives the rate: 4 mg/min ÷ 2 mg/mL = 2 mL/min. Dimensional analysis confirms that milligrams cancel, leaving milliliters per minute.

Question 22Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription for a narrow-therapeutic-index drug is written with an unclear decimal point in the dose. What is the safest course of action?

  1. Dispense the prescription and let the patient confirm at pickup
  2. Clarify the intended dose directly with the prescriber before any dispensing Correct answer.
  3. Interpret the dose as the larger plausible value
  4. Interpret the dose as the smaller plausible value

Explanation

Ambiguous doses of narrow-therapeutic-index drugs carry high risk of serious harm, so the prescriber must confirm the intended dose before dispensing. Choosing either interpretation or deferring clarification to pickup exposes the patient to avoidable risk.

Question 23Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A pharmacy must dispose of a small quantity of unused controlled substances. Which approach is generally appropriate?

  1. Flush all controlled substances down the sink without documentation
  2. Follow DEA-authorized collection or disposal methods and document the destruction Correct answer.
  3. Store them indefinitely in an unlocked cabinet
  4. Give them to a family member who has a similar prescription

Explanation

Controlled substance disposal must follow DEA-authorized methods, such as registrant destruction with proper records or transfer to an authorized collector. Unauthorized flushing, unlocked storage, or redistribution violates regulations and creates diversion risk.

Question 24Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which factor most directly determines whether a drug requires refrigeration in the pharmacy?

  1. The wholesale price of the product
  2. The manufacturer's labeled storage conditions Correct answer.
  3. The number of units in inventory
  4. The drug's color and appearance

Explanation

Storage temperature requirements are established by the manufacturer and stated in the product labeling and packaging. Appearance, price, and inventory quantity do not determine appropriate storage conditions.

Question 25Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient reports that a refill looks different from the previous supply of the same prescription. What is the best initial action?

  1. Verify the product, manufacturer, and strength against the prescription record before responding Correct answer.
  2. Advise the patient to stop all medications immediately
  3. Tell the patient that appearance changes are always harmless
  4. Replace the medication with a different drug without checking

Explanation

Different manufacturers or package changes can legitimately alter appearance, but the pharmacy must first confirm that the correct drug and strength were dispensed. Dismissing the concern, substituting another drug, or advising broad discontinuation without evaluation is inappropriate.

Question 26Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which abbreviation on a prescription means the medication should be taken by mouth?

  1. IM
  2. SL
  3. PO Correct answer.
  4. PR

Explanation

PO is derived from the Latin per os and means administration by mouth. PR means per rectum, SL means sublingual, and IM means intramuscular, so only PO describes oral dosing.

Question 27Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which piece of information is essential on a prescription before a pharmacy may dispense a prescription-only medication?

  1. The manufacturer's lot number
  2. The pharmacy's internal stock number
  3. The patient's insurance group number
  4. The prescriber's signature and drug name Correct answer.

Explanation

A valid prescription must identify the drug, the patient, and the prescriber, and it must carry the prescriber's signature to be legally dispensable. Insurance data, internal stock numbers, and lot numbers are administrative or product-tracking details, not legal requirements for validity.

Question 28Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription is written for 'ibuprofen 400 mg po q6h prn pain.' What does the 'prn' portion of the order tell the pharmacy technician?

  1. The drug must be given at bedtime
  2. The drug should be given with food
  3. The drug is given only when needed Correct answer.
  4. The drug must be given on a fixed schedule

Explanation

PRN is an abbreviation of the Latin pro re nata, meaning as circumstances require. It signals that the medication is used for an as-needed indication such as pain rather than on a fixed around-the-clock schedule.

Question 29Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which dosage form is intended to be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption into the bloodstream?

  1. Effervescent tablet
  2. Enteric-coated tablet
  3. Sublingual tablet Correct answer.
  4. Chewable tablet

Explanation

Sublingual tablets are designed to dissolve beneath the tongue, where the rich blood supply allows rapid absorption and bypasses first-pass liver metabolism. Enteric-coated, chewable, and effervescent tablets are all designed for swallowing or dissolution in the stomach.

Question 30Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription calls for 750 mg of a drug, and the pharmacy stocks 250 mg tablets. How many tablets are needed for one dose?

  1. 4 tablets
  2. 2 tablets
  3. 3 tablets Correct answer.
  4. 1.5 tablets

Explanation

Dividing the prescribed dose by the strength of a single tablet gives the number of tablets per dose: 750 mg divided by 250 mg equals 3. This proportional calculation is the standard method for converting a prescribed dose into a countable number of dosage units.

Question 31Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which term describes the study of how a drug's effect varies with its dose and concentration over time in the body?

  1. Pharmacoeconomics
  2. Pharmacokinetics Correct answer.
  3. Pharmaceutics
  4. Pharmacognosy

Explanation

Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug, covering absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion over time. The other terms address natural drug sources, cost analysis, and dosage form design respectively.

Question 32Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which storage condition best protects most oral tablets from premature degradation in the pharmacy?

  1. Direct sunlight near a window
  2. A warm, humid cabinet
  3. A freezer compartment
  4. A cool, dry place away from light Correct answer.

Explanation

Most tablets are formulated to remain stable at controlled room temperature in a dry environment protected from light and moisture. Heat, humidity, and freezing can accelerate chemical breakdown or alter the dosage form's physical properties.

Question 33Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which action should a pharmacy technician take first when a patient reports a suspected adverse reaction to a medication just dispensed?

  1. Gather details and notify the pharmacist immediately Correct answer.
  2. Advise the patient to double the next dose
  3. Tell the patient to stop the drug and wait
  4. File the report without informing the pharmacist

Explanation

Any report of a suspected adverse reaction requires prompt pharmacist involvement, since the pharmacist must assess severity and decide on further action. The technician's role is to collect relevant information such as the drug, dose, timing, and symptoms and escalate it without delay.

Question 34Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription is written for 'metformin 500 mg po BID.' How many doses does this order specify per day?

  1. Two Correct answer.
  2. Three
  3. One
  4. Four

Explanation

BID is an abbreviation of bis in die, meaning twice daily, so the order specifies two doses each day. Once daily is written as QD, three times daily as TID, and four times daily as QID.

Question 35Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescriber orders a drug at 0.25 mg, and the pharmacy stocks a liquid labeled 0.5 mg per mL. What volume should be measured for one dose?

  1. 0.25 mL
  2. 2 mL
  3. 0.5 mL Correct answer.
  4. 1 mL

Explanation

The volume equals the prescribed dose divided by the concentration: 0.25 mg divided by 0.5 mg per mL equals 0.5 mL. Checking the result against the concentration confirms that half a milliliter delivers the intended quarter-milligram dose.

Question 36Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient asks whether a new prescription can be taken with grapefruit juice. Which statement reflects the general concern?

  1. Grapefruit juice increases stomach acid and neutralizes all drugs
  2. Grapefruit juice can inhibit intestinal drug metabolism and raise some drug levels Correct answer.
  3. Grapefruit juice always destroys the drug before it is absorbed
  4. Grapefruit juice has no interaction with any medication

Explanation

Grapefruit juice inhibits intestinal CYP3A4, which can increase systemic exposure to drugs that are normally metabolized by this enzyme. The effect is clinically relevant for some medications and should be checked against the specific drug rather than assumed for all drugs.

Question 37Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A pharmacy technician notices that a prescription was written for 'Lamictal' but the patient's profile lists 'Lamisil' as the current therapy. What is the best action?

  1. Dispense Lamictal as written without comment
  2. Ask the patient which drug sounds correct
  3. Ask the pharmacist to verify the intended drug with the prescriber Correct answer.
  4. Substitute Lamisil because it matches the profile

Explanation

Lamictal and Lamisil are a well-known look-alike/sound-alike pair with entirely different indications, so the discrepancy must be clarified before dispensing. Verification with the prescriber through the pharmacist is the reliable way to confirm intent and prevent a serious error.

Question 38Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which practice most directly supports accurate counting and prevents cross-contamination when dispensing a non-sterile oral solid?

  1. Cleaning the counting tray between different drugs Correct answer.
  2. Storing opened stock bottles without caps
  3. Using the same counting tray for all products without cleaning
  4. Counting directly on the pharmacy counter

Explanation

Cleaning the counting tray and spatula between products prevents residue from one drug carrying over into another, which matters especially for potent or allergenic drugs. Routine cleaning also supports accurate counts by removing leftover tablets from prior prescriptions.

Question 39Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescription is written for a drug with a narrow therapeutic index, and the dose is written as '10.0 mg' with the decimal point faint. What is the safest technician action?

  1. Round the dose to the nearest whole number
  2. Assume the dose is 100 mg
  3. Dispense 10 mg because the decimal is probably correct
  4. Clarify the intended dose with the prescriber through the pharmacist Correct answer.

Explanation

Ambiguous decimal points on narrow-therapeutic-index drugs carry a high risk of serious harm, so the order must be clarified rather than interpreted. Confirming the intended dose with the prescriber, through the pharmacist, resolves the ambiguity before any product is prepared.

Question 40Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which statement best describes the purpose of a pharmacy's continuous quality improvement program?

  1. To assign blame to individual staff members after an error
  2. To identify system weaknesses and prevent recurrence of errors Correct answer.
  3. To replace the need for pharmacist verification
  4. To increase the number of prescriptions filled per hour

Explanation

Continuous quality improvement focuses on the systems and processes that allow errors to occur, so that underlying causes can be corrected and recurrence prevented. A nonpunitive approach encourages reporting and yields more reliable safety data than blame-oriented review.

Question 41Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient is prescribed an oral antibiotic and asks whether the entire course should be completed even after feeling better. What is the most appropriate technician response?

  1. Stop the drug as soon as symptoms improve
  2. Save leftover doses for the next illness
  3. Complete the prescribed course unless the prescriber says otherwise Correct answer.
  4. Double the remaining doses to finish faster

Explanation

For most oral antibiotic courses, finishing the prescribed duration helps ensure the infection is fully treated and reduces the selection of resistant organisms. Any change to the regimen should come from the prescriber, and leftover doses should not be saved for later use.

Question 42Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A pharmacy receives a request to refill a prescription that has no refills remaining. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Dispense a partial supply without authorization
  2. Tell the patient to use an expired supply at home
  3. Refill it and note the exception later
  4. Contact the prescriber for authorization before dispensing Correct answer.

Explanation

When no refills remain, the prescription is no longer valid for dispensing, and the prescriber must authorize additional therapy. The pharmacy may contact the prescriber, but it cannot extend the prescription on its own authority.

Question 43Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which element is generally required on the label of a dispensed outpatient prescription?

  1. The pharmacy's annual sales figure
  2. The prescriber's home address
  3. The wholesaler's invoice number
  4. Directions for use and the patient's name Correct answer.

Explanation

Outpatient prescription labels must identify the patient and provide clear directions for use, along with other required elements such as the drug name and quantity. Invoice numbers, prescriber residence, and financial data are not labeling requirements.

Question 44Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A pharmacy technician is asked to compound a non-sterile oral suspension. Which practice is most important for ensuring accuracy?

  1. Substituting a similar ingredient if one is unavailable
  2. Following the master formulation record and documenting each step Correct answer.
  3. Skipping the final volume check to save time
  4. Measuring ingredients by estimate

Explanation

Non-sterile compounding should follow an approved master formulation record with documentation of ingredients, quantities, and steps so the preparation can be reproduced and verified. Substitutions and skipped checks undermine the accuracy and traceability of the compound.

Question 45Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A pharmacy technician is entering a new prescription and notices the dose is written in a way that could be read as either 1 mg or 7 mg. What is the best action?

  1. Clarify the order with the prescriber through the pharmacist Correct answer.
  2. Enter 1 mg because it is the lower dose
  3. Ask another technician to choose a value
  4. Enter 7 mg because it is written first

Explanation

Illegible or ambiguous doses must be clarified with the prescriber rather than guessed, because either interpretation could be wrong and harmful. The pharmacist should make the contact, and the technician should document the clarification once received.

Question 46Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

Which federal schedule contains drugs with a currently accepted medical use and the lowest potential for abuse?

  1. Schedule I
  2. Schedule IV
  3. Schedule V Correct answer.
  4. Schedule II

Explanation

Schedule V contains preparations with the lowest abuse potential among controlled substances and with accepted medical uses. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use, while Schedules II through IV carry progressively lower abuse potential than Schedule I but higher than Schedule V.

Question 47Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient taking warfarin asks the technician whether a new over-the-counter product is safe to use. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Advise the patient to stop warfarin before using it
  2. Refer the question to the pharmacist for review Correct answer.
  3. Confirm it is safe because it is sold without a prescription
  4. Tell the patient any OTC product is fine

Explanation

Warfarin has a narrow therapeutic index and interacts with many over-the-counter products, including NSAIDs and some supplements, so the question requires pharmacist assessment. The technician should facilitate that review rather than offer clinical advice.

Question 48Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient reports that a refill of the same prescription has tablets of a different color and shape from the previous supply. What is the best initial action?

  1. Tell the patient the appearance is unimportant
  2. Discard the new supply without investigation
  3. Advise the patient to take half a tablet
  4. Verify the product and manufacturer against the prescription and notify the pharmacist Correct answer.

Explanation

A change in appearance may reflect a legitimate manufacturer change or may indicate a dispensing error, so the product must be verified against the prescription and label. The pharmacist should be informed so the patient can be reassured or the error corrected.

Question 49Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A prescriber orders a continuous infusion at 6 mg/min using a solution containing 3 mg/mL. What infusion rate in mL/min should be set?

  1. 0.5 mL/min
  2. 2 mL/min Correct answer.
  3. 3 mL/min
  4. 18 mL/min

Explanation

The rate equals the dose divided by the concentration: 6 mg per minute divided by 3 mg per mL equals 2 mL per minute. Checking by multiplying 2 mL/min by 3 mg/mL returns the ordered 6 mg/min.

Question 50Pharmacy practice (unverified - source unavailable)

A patient with a documented sulfa allergy is prescribed a new medication, and the technician notices the drug belongs to the sulfonamide class. What is the best action?

  1. Dispense the drug because the allergy is old
  2. Ask the patient to sign a waiver and dispense
  3. Change the prescription to a different drug independently
  4. Flag the allergy and notify the pharmacist before dispensing Correct answer.

Explanation

A documented sulfonamide allergy is a potential contraindication or precaution that requires pharmacist review before dispensing. The technician's responsibility is to flag the conflict and escalate it, not to alter therapy or obtain a waiver.