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WACE Applied IT study materials
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WACE Applied IT practice questions

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Question 1Project management and the design process

In a project plan, which document formally authorises the project to begin and gives the project manager authority to apply resources?

  1. The project charter Correct answer.
  2. The risk register
  3. The work breakdown structure
  4. The communication plan

Explanation

The project charter is the document that formally launches a project, names the project manager and grants authority to commit organisational resources. Other planning artefacts are created after or alongside the charter and do not confer that authority.

Question 2Project management and the design process

A team is identifying everything that must be delivered for a new client booking system. Which activity best represents scope definition?

  1. Deciding how often status reports are sent
  2. Estimating how long each programming task will take
  3. Assigning a risk owner to each identified threat
  4. Listing the features and deliverables the system must include Correct answer.

Explanation

Scope definition establishes the boundaries of the project by specifying the deliverables and features that are included and, by implication, what is excluded. Time estimating, risk ownership and reporting frequency belong to scheduling, risk and communication management rather than scope.

Question 3Project management and the design process

Which sequence correctly orders the typical phases of a design process used in an applied IT project?

  1. Define the problem, research, generate ideas, prototype, test, evaluate Correct answer.
  2. Research, evaluate, prototype, define the problem, generate ideas, test
  3. Prototype, test, define the problem, generate ideas, evaluate, research
  4. Generate ideas, evaluate, define the problem, research, test, prototype

Explanation

A design process normally begins by clarifying the problem and gathering information, then moves into idea generation, prototyping and testing, and finishes with evaluation against the original need. Placing testing before the problem is defined removes the criteria needed to judge success.

Question 4Project management and the design process

A project manager records each identified threat, its likelihood, its impact and the person responsible for it. Which project document is being maintained?

  1. Gantt chart
  2. Issues log
  3. Budget forecast
  4. Risk register Correct answer.

Explanation

A risk register captures each risk with attributes such as probability, impact, rating, response strategy and owner. A Gantt chart shows schedule, a budget forecast shows costs, and an issues log tracks problems that have already occurred rather than potential future threats.

Question 5Project management and the design process

Which statement best describes the purpose of a milestone in a project schedule?

  1. It is a buffer of extra time added to every task
  2. It marks a significant point or achievement and has zero duration Correct answer.
  3. It is a task that consumes the largest share of the project budget
  4. It is a recurring meeting held each week with the client

Explanation

A milestone is a scheduling device that flags an important event, such as sign-off of a design, and is conventionally shown with zero duration because it represents a point in time rather than work. It carries no cost or effort of its own.

Question 6Project management and the design process

In a design brief, which element states the limits within which the solution must operate, such as budget, platform and deadline?

  1. Evaluation criteria
  2. Constraints Correct answer.
  3. Audience profile
  4. Aesthetics

Explanation

Constraints are the fixed limitations a design must respect, including money, time, technology and legal requirements. Aesthetics concern visual style, an audience profile describes users, and evaluation criteria define how success will be judged.

Question 7Project management and the design process

Which tool is most appropriate for showing the sequence and dependencies of project tasks against a calendar timeline?

  1. Organisational chart
  2. Pie chart
  3. Gantt chart Correct answer.
  4. Scatter plot

Explanation

A Gantt chart plots tasks as bars along a time axis and shows dependencies and overlaps between them, making it the standard scheduling visual. Pie charts, scatter plots and organisational charts present proportions, correlations and reporting lines respectively.

Question 8Project management and the design process

During which project phase is the completed solution handed over to the client and judged against the original brief?

  1. Execution
  2. Initiation
  3. Closure and evaluation Correct answer.
  4. Planning

Explanation

Closure covers formal handover, sign-off and evaluation of the delivered solution against the brief, along with capturing lessons learned. Initiation, planning and execution all occur before the product is complete and ready for judgement.

Question 9Project management and the design process

A designer builds a low-fidelity clickable mock-up of an app screen so users can try the navigation before any code is written. What is this artefact called?

  1. A prototype Correct answer.
  2. A test plan
  3. A change request
  4. A feasibility study

Explanation

A prototype is an early, often simplified version of a product built to test concepts and gather feedback before full development. Feasibility studies assess whether a project should proceed, test plans describe how testing will be conducted, and change requests alter agreed scope.

Question 10Project management and the design process

A project is behind schedule and the manager decides to add two experienced developers to the coding phase. Which constraint is being adjusted?

  1. Scope
  2. Risk
  3. Quality
  4. Resources Correct answer.

Explanation

Adding people changes the resource constraint, one of the classic project constraints alongside time, cost and scope. Scope would change only if deliverables were added or removed, quality if standards were altered, and risk if the threat profile changed.

Question 11Project management and the design process

A client asks for an extra reporting dashboard partway through a project that has a fixed deadline. What is the most appropriate first step?

  1. Remove testing from the schedule to make room
  2. Refuse the request because the plan has already been approved
  3. Assess the impact on scope, time and cost and submit a change request Correct answer.
  4. Quietly add the work and hope the deadline is still met

Explanation

Requests that alter agreed deliverables should pass through change control, which begins with assessing effects on scope, schedule and budget before approval. Accepting work silently, refusing outright or cutting quality all bypass proper decision-making.

Question 12Project management and the design process

A team uses a matrix that scores each design idea against weighted criteria such as cost, usability and durability. What is this technique called?

  1. A stakeholder analysis
  2. A resource levelling chart
  3. A critical path analysis
  4. A weighted decision matrix Correct answer.

Explanation

A weighted decision matrix compares options by scoring them against criteria that carry different levels of importance, producing a ranked result. Critical path analysis schedules tasks, stakeholder analysis maps influence, and resource levelling smooths demand for people or equipment.

Question 13Project management and the design process

Which pair of factors is most commonly plotted on a risk matrix when rating a risk?

  1. Likelihood and impact Correct answer.
  2. Frequency and location
  3. Owner and deadline
  4. Cost and duration

Explanation

A risk matrix rates each risk by how probable it is and how severe its consequences would be, giving a combined score that guides priority. Cost, duration, owner and location are attributes that may be recorded but are not the two axes of the matrix.

Question 14Project management and the design process

A project team meets briefly each morning to state what was completed, what is next and any blockers. Which planning approach does this practice most directly support?

  1. Waterfall phase gating
  2. Iterative or agile planning Correct answer.
  3. Earned value analysis
  4. Critical chain scheduling

Explanation

Short daily stand-ups are a hallmark of iterative and agile approaches, where plans are revisited frequently and blockers are surfaced quickly. Waterfall gating, critical chain scheduling and earned value analysis rely on formal baselines rather than daily team synchronisation.

Question 15Project management and the design process

When writing evaluation criteria for a design solution, which set of characteristics makes the criteria most useful?

  1. Written after the solution is finished
  2. Focused only on the visual appearance
  3. Specific, measurable and linked to the brief Correct answer.
  4. Broad, subjective and open to interpretation

Explanation

Criteria work best when they are specific, measurable and traceable to the needs stated in the brief, so that different reviewers would reach similar judgements. Vague, appearance-only or retrospectively written criteria cannot fairly test whether the solution meets the need.

Question 16Project management and the design process

A project manager needs to show how a project's cumulative actual cost compares with its planned spend over time. Which presentation is most suitable?

  1. A pie chart of monthly expenditure shares
  2. A line graph with planned and actual cumulative cost curves Correct answer.
  3. A photograph of receipts
  4. A list of invoices in date order

Explanation

Cumulative cost curves plotted as lines allow planned and actual spend to be compared at each point in time, revealing whether the project is over or under budget. Pie charts lose the time dimension, and raw lists or receipts do not show the trend.

Question 17Project management and the design process

Which action is the best example of avoiding a risk rather than mitigating it?

  1. Changing the solution so the risky technology is no longer used Correct answer.
  2. Writing a contingency plan for staff illness
  3. Purchasing insurance against data loss
  4. Adding a backup server in case the main one fails

Explanation

Risk avoidance removes the source of the risk entirely, for example by designing out a technology that cannot be supported. Backup servers, insurance and contingency plans reduce or absorb the consequences while the risk remains present.

Question 18Project management and the design process

A designer interviews five members of the target audience before sketching any ideas. Which stage of the design process does this represent?

  1. Evaluation
  2. Implementation
  3. Research and needs analysis Correct answer.
  4. Prototyping

Explanation

Interviewing users gathers information about needs, context and problems, which is the research and needs analysis stage that informs later idea generation. Prototyping, implementation and evaluation all depend on that understanding being established first.

Question 19Project management and the design process

A project team lists tasks, estimates each duration and identifies which tasks must finish before others can start. Which scheduling concept does this allow them to determine?

  1. The colour scheme of the final product
  2. The marketing budget
  3. The critical path through the network Correct answer.
  4. The total number of stakeholders

Explanation

With durations and dependencies known, the team can calculate the longest dependent sequence of tasks, which is the critical path and determines the minimum project duration. Stakeholder counts, visual design and marketing budgets are unrelated to dependency networks.

Question 20Project management and the design process

Which situation best demonstrates a project manager applying the principle of stakeholder management?

  1. Shortening the schedule by removing a review step
  2. Ordering extra hardware in case of failure
  3. Recording every task in a spreadsheet
  4. Consulting the client and end users early and adjusting the plan to their concerns Correct answer.

Explanation

Stakeholder management means identifying the people affected by the project, understanding their interests and engaging them so the plan reflects legitimate concerns. Hardware contingency, skipped reviews and task logging are risk, quality and documentation activities rather than engagement.

Question 21Project management and the design process

A team agrees that each design decision must be recorded with the date, the options considered and the reason for the choice. Which benefit does this practice most directly provide?

  1. A guarantee that the project will finish on time
  2. A way to avoid prototyping
  3. A reduction in the number of stakeholders
  4. An audit trail that supports later evaluation and handover Correct answer.

Explanation

Recording decisions with alternatives and rationale creates an audit trail that lets later reviewers understand why the solution took its form and supports evaluation and handover. It cannot guarantee schedule performance, change stakeholder numbers or replace prototyping.

Question 22Project management and the design process

A project's critical path runs through the integration testing task. A supplier advises that the testing tool will arrive one week late. What is the most accurate assessment?

  1. The project will finish early because less time is spent testing
  2. The delay can be ignored because testing is not on the critical path
  3. Only the testing task is affected, so the project end date will not change
  4. The whole project is likely to be delayed unless the testing task is compressed or resequenced Correct answer.

Explanation

Because the affected task lies on the critical path, it has no float, so any delay to it pushes out the earliest project finish unless the task is shortened or its dependencies are reworked. Tasks off the critical path could absorb a delay within their float, but this one cannot.

Question 23Project management and the design process

A client keeps requesting small additions that individually seem trivial, and the project has now drifted well beyond its original brief. Which control failure does this best illustrate?

  1. Poor resource levelling
  2. Inadequate risk transfer
  3. Uncontrolled scope creep Correct answer.
  4. Excessive quality assurance

Explanation

Scope creep occurs when many small, unassessed additions accumulate and push the project beyond its agreed boundaries. Resource levelling, risk transfer and quality assurance address staffing balance, risk ownership and product standards respectively, none of which describes accumulating unapproved work.

Question 24Project management and the design process

A designer evaluates a prototype and finds it meets usability targets but exceeds the manufacturing cost constraint. What is the most appropriate next step in the design process?

  1. Return to idea generation to find a lower-cost design that preserves usability Correct answer.
  2. Publish the evaluation without acting on the cost finding
  3. Abandon the project entirely
  4. Accept the prototype because usability targets were met

Explanation

Evaluation findings feed back into earlier stages, so a solution that fails a constraint should trigger further idea generation and prototyping rather than acceptance. Ignoring the cost breach or abandoning the project both discard the value already established.

Question 25Project management and the design process

A project manager claims the project is 50 per cent complete because half the budget has been spent. Which reasoning flaw does this best illustrate?

  1. Confusing cost consumed with work actually completed Correct answer.
  2. Confusing risk likelihood with risk impact
  3. Confusing a milestone with a deliverable
  4. Confusing scope with quality

Explanation

Spending half the budget says nothing about how much deliverable work has been finished, because costs can run ahead of progress. Earned value compares budget spent with the value of work completed, which is why cost consumption alone is a misleading progress measure.

Question 26Project management and the design process

Which document is produced at the end of the design process to summarise what the solution does, how it meets the brief and any known limitations?

  1. A risk register
  2. A production schedule
  3. A purchase order
  4. A final design report Correct answer.

Explanation

A final design report is the closing document that records the finished solution, shows how each requirement in the brief was satisfied, and notes any limitations or recommended future work. It allows the client and assessors to judge the outcome against the original brief.

Question 27Project management and the design process

A designer needs to record why each major design decision was made so that the reasoning is available to the team later. Which practice best achieves this?

  1. Storing all rough sketches in a folder without comments
  2. Deleting rejected ideas once a final concept is chosen
  3. Keeping a dated design journal with options considered and reasons for choices Correct answer.
  4. Asking each team member to remember their own decisions

Explanation

A dated design journal captures the options considered and the reasons for each choice, creating a traceable record that the team and client can review later. Recording the reasoning, not just the outcome, is what makes the decisions understandable after the fact.

Question 28Project management and the design process

A project manager must estimate how long a new task will take, but the team has never completed similar work. Which estimating approach is most appropriate?

  1. Use three-point estimating based on optimistic, most likely and pessimistic durations Correct answer.
  2. Copy the duration from the longest task in the schedule
  3. Assume the task will take exactly one working day
  4. Ask the client to set the duration without consulting the team

Explanation

Three-point estimating uses optimistic, most likely and pessimistic durations to produce a weighted estimate and reveals the uncertainty in the task. It suits unfamiliar work because it explicitly accounts for variability instead of pretending a single figure is known.

Question 29Project management and the design process

Midway through a project the client asks for a change that would add two weeks to the schedule. Which action best reflects a controlled change process?

  1. Complete the change immediately and adjust the deadline afterwards
  2. Instruct the team to work overtime so the change happens without telling the client
  3. Assess the impact on scope, time and cost, then seek client approval before proceeding Correct answer.
  4. Reject the change outright without discussing it with the client

Explanation

A controlled change process evaluates the effect of a requested change on the project constraints and obtains formal client approval before the work is committed. This protects both the team and the client from unrecorded shifts in scope, time or cost.

Question 30Project management and the design process

A team has generated many design concepts and now needs to reduce them to a shortlist for prototyping. The manager wants a defensible, transparent decision rather than one based on personal preference. Which approach best supports this?

  1. Choose the concept that is cheapest to build regardless of the brief
  2. Score each concept against weighted criteria derived from the brief, then justify the shortlist Correct answer.
  3. Have the most senior designer select the concepts they prefer
  4. Prototype every concept fully and choose whichever is finished first

Explanation

Scoring concepts against weighted criteria taken from the brief links the decision to agreed requirements and makes the reasoning visible to everyone. The weighting shows which requirements matter most, so the shortlist can be defended rather than resting on personal taste.

Question 31Hardware and software fundamentals

Which component of a computer is primarily responsible for executing program instructions?

  1. The power supply unit
  2. The hard disk drive
  3. The random access memory
  4. The central processing unit Correct answer.

Explanation

The central processing unit fetches, decodes and executes the instructions of a running program, performing the arithmetic and logical operations those instructions require. Other components support it by storing data or supplying power but do not execute instructions themselves.

Question 32Hardware and software fundamentals

What is the main purpose of random access memory in a computer system?

  1. To coordinate communication between the CPU and peripheral devices
  2. To hold programs and data currently in use so the CPU can access them quickly Correct answer.
  3. To convert digital signals into analogue output for speakers
  4. To store files permanently when the computer is switched off

Explanation

RAM is volatile working memory that holds the instructions and data of running programs so the CPU can read and write them quickly. Its contents are lost when power is removed, which is why it cannot serve as permanent storage.

Question 33Hardware and software fundamentals

Which of the following is an example of system software?

  1. An operating system Correct answer.
  2. A web browser
  3. A photo editor
  4. A spreadsheet application

Explanation

System software manages the hardware and provides a platform on which other programs run; an operating system is the classic example. Application software such as spreadsheets, browsers and editors is designed for end-user tasks rather than managing the machine.

Question 34Hardware and software fundamentals

Which type of storage is non-volatile and typically used to hold the operating system and user files permanently?

  1. Dynamic random access memory
  2. The CPU cache
  3. A solid-state drive Correct answer.
  4. A processor register

Explanation

A solid-state drive retains its data without power and is used as secondary storage for the operating system and user files. Memory such as RAM, cache and registers is volatile and loses its contents when power is removed.

Question 35Hardware and software fundamentals

What does the acronym GUI stand for in the context of operating systems?

  1. Global user identity
  2. Gigabyte unit index
  3. General utility installer
  4. Graphical user interface Correct answer.

Explanation

A graphical user interface presents windows, icons, menus and a pointer so users can interact with the computer visually rather than by typing commands. It is a standard feature of modern desktop operating systems.

Question 36Hardware and software fundamentals

Which unit is used to describe the clock speed of a modern processor?

  1. Megapixel
  2. Decibel
  3. Gigabyte
  4. Gigahertz Correct answer.

Explanation

Clock speed measures how many cycles a processor completes each second and is expressed in hertz, commonly gigahertz for modern CPUs. Gigabytes measure storage capacity, megapixels measure image resolution and decibels measure sound intensity.

Question 37Hardware and software fundamentals

A user wants to connect a new printer that plugs into a rectangular port found on most modern laptops. Which port type is this most likely to be?

  1. Ethernet
  2. VGA
  3. HDMI
  4. USB Correct answer.

Explanation

USB ports are rectangular, widely available on laptops and commonly used to connect printers and other peripherals. Ethernet, HDMI and VGA are designed for networking or video output rather than general peripheral connection.

Question 38Hardware and software fundamentals

Which of the following best describes an input device?

  1. A device that stores data for later retrieval
  2. A device that supplies electrical power to the system
  3. A device that sends data into a computer for processing Correct answer.
  4. A device that presents processed results to the user

Explanation

Input devices such as keyboards, mice and scanners capture data from the outside world and pass it to the computer for processing. Output devices present results, storage devices retain data, and power supplies provide electricity.

Question 39Hardware and software fundamentals

A student needs to run several memory-hungry programs at once and notices the computer slows dramatically when many are open. Which component is most likely to need upgrading?

  1. The monitor resolution
  2. The amount of RAM Correct answer.
  3. The speaker volume
  4. The keyboard layout

Explanation

When many programs run simultaneously, the working set of data and instructions may exceed available RAM, forcing the system to swap to slower secondary storage and slowing performance. Adding RAM increases the space available for active programs. Monitor resolution, keyboard layout and speaker volume do not affect multitasking capacity.

Question 40Hardware and software fundamentals

Which statement correctly distinguishes volatile from non-volatile memory?

  1. Non-volatile memory can only be read and never written
  2. Volatile memory is always slower than non-volatile memory
  3. Volatile memory loses its contents when power is removed, while non-volatile memory retains them Correct answer.
  4. Volatile memory is used only for permanent file storage

Explanation

Volatility refers to whether stored data survives the loss of power. Volatile memory such as RAM loses its contents when powered off, whereas non-volatile memory such as flash storage keeps data without power.

Question 41Hardware and software fundamentals

A school replaces its desktop computers with laptops for students who need to work in different classrooms. Which characteristic of the laptops is the main reason for this choice?

  1. They always have faster processors than desktops
  2. They are portable and run on battery power Correct answer.
  3. They never require software updates
  4. They have larger screens than desktops

Explanation

Laptops integrate display, battery and input devices into a single portable unit, allowing students to move between classrooms and continue working without mains power. Portability, not superior performance or screen size, is the decisive advantage here.

Question 42Hardware and software fundamentals

Which of the following is the best example of an embedded system?

  1. A desktop computer used for video editing
  2. The microcontroller that controls a washing machine cycle Correct answer.
  3. A laptop used for writing reports
  4. A server hosting a school website

Explanation

An embedded system is a computer built into a larger device to perform a dedicated control function, such as the microcontroller managing a washing machine's wash and spin cycles. General-purpose computers and servers run many different programs for users rather than one fixed control task.

Question 43Hardware and software fundamentals

Which type of software licence typically allows a user to inspect and modify the source code?

  1. Trial licence
  2. Proprietary licence
  3. Single-user commercial licence
  4. Open-source licence Correct answer.

Explanation

An open-source licence grants users access to the source code and permission to study, modify and redistribute it under stated conditions. Proprietary, single-user commercial and trial licences generally keep source code closed and restrict modification.

Question 44Hardware and software fundamentals

A technician installs a new graphics card so that a user can run 3D design software smoothly. Which component has been upgraded?

  1. The SSD
  2. The RAM
  3. The CPU
  4. The GPU Correct answer.

Explanation

A graphics card contains a graphics processing unit that handles rendering and parallel calculations for visual and 3D work. Upgrading it improves graphical performance, whereas CPU, RAM and SSD upgrades address different bottlenecks.

Question 45Hardware and software fundamentals

Which of the following best explains why a computer uses cache memory in addition to RAM?

  1. Cache is faster than RAM and stores frequently used data close to the CPU Correct answer.
  2. Cache is non-volatile and stores files permanently
  3. Cache is cheaper per gigabyte than RAM and replaces it entirely
  4. Cache is larger than RAM and holds the whole operating system

Explanation

Cache memory sits closer to the CPU and is faster than main RAM, so keeping frequently accessed instructions and data there reduces the time the processor waits. It is small and expensive, so it complements rather than replaces RAM.

Question 46Hardware and software fundamentals

A user reports that a computer beeps repeatedly and shows no display when switched on. Which first step is most appropriate for diagnosing the fault?

  1. Replace the monitor without further testing
  2. Reinstall the operating system immediately
  3. Delete temporary files from the hard disk
  4. Consult the motherboard manual to interpret the beep code Correct answer.

Explanation

Repeated beeps at startup are a diagnostic code produced by the firmware to indicate a hardware fault, commonly related to memory or the graphics card. Interpreting the code using the motherboard documentation directs the technician to the actual faulty component before any parts are replaced.

Question 47Hardware and software fundamentals

Which statement about device drivers is correct?

  1. A driver permanently stores user documents on the device
  2. A driver is a type of virus that damages hardware
  3. A driver is software that lets the operating system communicate with a specific hardware device Correct answer.
  4. A driver is a physical cable that connects a device to the motherboard

Explanation

A device driver is system software that translates general operating system commands into the specific instructions a particular piece of hardware understands. Without a suitable driver, the device may not function correctly even when physically connected.

Question 48Hardware and software fundamentals

A business wants to back up critical files so they survive a fire that destroys all computers on site. Which backup approach best meets this requirement?

  1. Printing the files and storing the paper in the same office
  2. Copying the files to an off-site or cloud location Correct answer.
  3. Saving the files to a second internal hard disk in the same room
  4. Keeping the files open in RAM overnight

Explanation

A backup only protects against site-wide disasters if at least one copy is stored away from the original location, such as off-site or in cloud storage. Copies held in the same room, in RAM or on paper in the same office would be destroyed along with the computers.

Question 49Hardware and software fundamentals

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between an operating system and application software?

  1. Applications manage the hardware directly and the operating system is optional
  2. The operating system is a type of application installed only for games
  3. Applications replace the operating system once installed
  4. The operating system manages hardware and provides services that applications use Correct answer.

Explanation

The operating system acts as an intermediary between applications and hardware, providing services such as memory management, file systems and device access. Applications rely on these services rather than controlling hardware directly.

Question 50Hardware and software fundamentals

A student compares two laptops: one has an SSD and the other a traditional hard disk drive of the same capacity. Which difference is most likely to be noticed?

  1. The hard disk model uses no electricity
  2. The hard disk model cannot store the operating system
  3. The SSD model starts up and opens programs noticeably faster Correct answer.
  4. The SSD model has a much larger screen

Explanation

Solid-state drives have no moving parts and offer much lower access times than mechanical hard disks, so boot times and program loading are noticeably quicker. Screen size and power use are independent of the storage type, and both types can store an operating system.