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BCEMP practice questions

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Question 1Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which phase of emergency management consists of sustained actions that reduce or eliminate long-term risk to people and property from hazards?

  1. Recovery
  2. Response
  3. Preparedness
  4. Mitigation Correct answer.

Explanation

Mitigation covers sustained, long-term actions such as land-use controls, elevation, and retrofitting that reduce or eliminate risk before a hazard event. Preparedness builds the capabilities needed to respond, and response and recovery address the incident and its aftermath.

Question 2Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The all-hazards approach to emergency management means that a jurisdiction:

  1. Focuses all resources on its single most likely hazard
  2. Uses a common set of capabilities across many hazards Correct answer.
  3. Writes a separate plan for each hazard identified in its risk assessment
  4. Plans only for natural hazards that have occurred locally

Explanation

All-hazards planning builds one set of core capabilities, such as communications, evacuation, and mass care, that apply regardless of the specific hazard. Hazard-specific annexes may be added, but the base plan is not rebuilt for every threat.

Question 3Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The National Response Framework organizes federal support into how many Emergency Support Functions?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15 Correct answer.
  4. 18

Explanation

The National Response Framework groups federal coordinating structures into 15 Emergency Support Functions, such as ESF-3 Public Works and Engineering and ESF-8 Public Health and Medical Services. Each ESF has a designated primary agency plus supporting agencies.

Question 4Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Under the U.S. emergency management system, who holds the primary executive authority and responsibility for emergency management within a state?

  1. The state adjutant general
  2. The county sheriff
  3. The FEMA regional administrator
  4. The governor Correct answer.

Explanation

The governor is the state's chief executive, responsible for the safety and welfare of the population and for directing state emergency management, including requests for federal assistance. Federal agencies support states rather than displace state authority.

Question 5Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

In the Incident Command System, what is the generally recommended span of control for a supervisor?

  1. Two to four subordinates, with three as optimal
  2. One to three subordinates, with two as optimal
  3. Three to seven subordinates, with five as optimal Correct answer.
  4. Five to ten subordinates, with eight as optimal

Explanation

ICS doctrine holds that a supervisor can effectively manage three to seven subordinates, with five as the working optimum. Exceeding that range signals a need to add a layer of supervision or split the unit.

Question 6Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

An Emergency Operations Center (EOC) is best described as:

  1. A warehouse holding the jurisdiction's reserve supplies and equipment
  2. The on-scene command post from which the incident commander directs tactical operations
  3. A designated public shelter for residents displaced by an incident
  4. A facility where multiagency coordination and support to incidents is managed Correct answer.

Explanation

An EOC is an off-scene coordination facility where representatives of multiple agencies set priorities, allocate resources, and share information in support of on-scene operations. Tactical direction of the incident remains with the incident commander at the incident command post.

Question 7Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act primarily does which of the following?

  1. It created the Department of Homeland Security
  2. It establishes the National Incident Management System
  3. It authorizes federal disaster assistance to states and localities Correct answer.
  4. It authorizes the use of the active-duty military to enforce domestic law

Explanation

The Stafford Act is the statutory basis for most federal disaster assistance, including the declaration process and programs such as Public Assistance and Individual Assistance. A major disaster declaration under the Act also triggers the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.

Question 8Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The Whole Community concept in emergency management holds that:

  1. Federal agencies should lead every preparedness activity
  2. Only trained government responders should take part in preparedness planning
  3. Planning should concentrate on the most vulnerable populations only
  4. Residents, businesses, nonprofits, and all levels of government have roles Correct answer.

Explanation

Whole Community recognizes emergency management as a shared responsibility in which households, businesses, faith-based and nonprofit groups, and governments at every level contribute capabilities. It calls for engaging the full community in planning rather than relying on government alone.

Question 9Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which condition best distinguishes a disaster from a routine local emergency?

  1. It requires activation of a single agency's emergency plan
  2. It occurs only when physical infrastructure is destroyed
  3. It exceeds the capacity of local responders to manage Correct answer.
  4. It is always preceded by a formal federal declaration

Explanation

The practical dividing line is capability: an emergency can be handled with resources normally available, while a disaster overwhelms local capacity and requires mutual aid, state, or federal support. Formal declarations follow the event and do not define it.

Question 10Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Unified Command is appropriate when:

  1. One agency holds all authority and no other organizations are involved
  2. The response requires only logistics support
  3. Multiple agencies with jurisdictional or functional responsibility share authority Correct answer.
  4. The incident extends beyond a single operational period

Explanation

Unified Command lets agencies with jurisdiction or functional responsibility jointly set objectives and direct the response within one incident command structure, without any agency relinquishing its own authority. It is typical of multijurisdictional and multiagency incidents.

Question 11Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Presidential Policy Directive 8 (PPD-8) is best described as:

  1. The directive establishing the National Preparedness Goal and System Correct answer.
  2. The directive that created the Federal Emergency Management Agency
  3. A framework for federal grants that fund state hazard mitigation projects
  4. A statute governing the domestic deployment of military forces

Explanation

PPD-8 directs the development of a National Preparedness Goal, a National Preparedness System, and supporting frameworks and strategies. The Goal defines the core capabilities needed across the five mission areas.

Question 12Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (HMGP) provides funding:

  1. For mitigation measures after a presidential major disaster declaration Correct answer.
  2. Directly to individuals for immediate temporary housing after an incident
  3. Only to homeowners whose property was destroyed by flooding in the current event
  4. For removal of disaster debris from private property

Explanation

HMGP is a post-disaster program triggered by a major disaster declaration; it funds measures that reduce future damage, such as property acquisition, elevation, and retrofitting. Funds are administered by the state, tribe, or territory through a competitive application process.

Question 13Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which list contains the five mission areas of the National Preparedness Goal?

  1. Prevention, deterrence, response, recovery, remediation
  2. Preparedness, protection, response, recovery, restoration
  3. Mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery, resilience
  4. Prevention, protection, mitigation, response, recovery Correct answer.

Explanation

The National Preparedness Goal organizes core capabilities across prevention, protection, mitigation, response, and recovery. Preparedness is the cross-cutting theme that supports all five mission areas rather than a separate sixth area.

Question 14Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

In continuity doctrine, devolution refers to:

  1. Reconstituting normal operations after a disruption ends
  2. Backing up electronic records to an offsite data center
  3. Transferring essential functions to a separate capable organization Correct answer.
  4. Delegating authority to the next official in the line of succession

Explanation

Devolution is the transfer of authority and responsibility for essential functions to an alternate organization when the primary organization and its workforce cannot perform them. It differs from succession, which transfers authority within the same organization.

Question 15Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which of the following is a core capability belonging to the Recovery mission area?

  1. Long-term vulnerability reduction
  2. Mass care services
  3. Economic recovery Correct answer.
  4. On-scene security, protection, and law enforcement

Explanation

Economic recovery is a Recovery core capability focused on restoring economic activity and community services after an incident. Long-term vulnerability reduction sits in mitigation, while mass care and on-scene security belong to response.

Question 16Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Under the Stafford Act declaration process, the decision to grant a governor's request for a major disaster declaration rests with:

  1. The President Correct answer.
  2. The state legislature by majority vote
  3. The United States Congress
  4. The FEMA Administrator acting alone

Explanation

A governor submits a request to the President through FEMA, which conducts damage assessments and forwards a recommendation. Only the President may declare a major disaster or an emergency.

Question 17Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

What is the primary purpose of a mutual aid agreement?

  1. To share resources across jurisdictions when needs exceed local capacity Correct answer.
  2. To fix the line of succession for elected officials
  3. To shift legal liability for response to the federal government
  4. To finance long-term hazard mitigation construction through federal grants

Explanation

Mutual aid agreements pre-arrange the sharing or loan of personnel, equipment, and services between jurisdictions so help moves quickly without negotiation during an incident. They also typically address reimbursement, liability, and worker protections.

Question 18Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The primary purpose of an After-Action Report with an Improvement Plan is to:

  1. Assign legal responsibility for response failures
  2. Provide public information during an active incident
  3. Identify strengths, areas for improvement, and corrective actions Correct answer.
  4. Document incident costs for reimbursement claims

Explanation

The AAR/IP captures what happened, why it happened, and what should change, converting findings into corrective actions with assigned owners and due dates. It is a learning and improvement tool rather than a financial or legal document.

Question 19Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which action is the best example of a structural mitigation measure?

  1. Elevating a flood-prone building above the base flood elevation Correct answer.
  2. Restricting new construction in the floodplain by ordinance
  3. Purchasing flood insurance for a riverside home
  4. Conducting an annual flood evacuation drill

Explanation

Structural mitigation physically changes or protects the built environment, as with elevation, acquisition and demolition, retrofitting, or engineered flood works. Zoning and insurance address risk through regulation or financial transfer without altering the structure itself.

Question 20Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

An Incident Action Plan documents:

  1. Objectives and tactics for a specified operational period Correct answer.
  2. The projected cost of the entire incident
  3. The long-term recovery strategy for the affected community
  4. The jurisdiction's hazard mitigation priorities

Explanation

The IAP is written for a defined operational period and states incident objectives, strategies, tactics, and assigned resources. It is revised for each operational period as conditions and priorities change.

Question 21Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The Posse Comitatus Act of 1878 restricts:

  1. Use of federal military forces to enforce domestic civilian law Correct answer.
  2. Federal funding for state hazard mitigation projects
  3. A governor's authority to deploy the state National Guard
  4. The President's authority to declare a major disaster

Explanation

The Act generally prohibits using the Army and Air Force to execute domestic law absent express constitutional or statutory authority. National Guard forces acting under state authority are not restricted in the same way.

Question 22Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Under the Stafford Act Public Assistance program, the minimum federal share of eligible costs is generally:

  1. 50 percent
  2. 100 percent
  3. 90 percent
  4. 75 percent Correct answer.

Explanation

The federal cost share for Public Assistance is generally at least 75 percent of eligible costs, with the remainder typically borne by the state or local applicant. The share can be increased for catastrophic incidents or through cost-share adjustments.

Question 23Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which of the following is one of the community lifelines used in FEMA doctrine?

  1. Land-use planning
  2. Economic development
  3. Public education
  4. Communications Correct answer.

Explanation

FEMA's lifeline construct groups response and recovery needs into eight lifelines, including safety and security, food and shelter, health and medical, energy, communications, transportation, hazardous materials, and water systems. Lifelines help prioritize restoration of the services on which all other community functions depend.

Question 24Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Continuity of Government (COG) focuses primarily on:

  1. Reimbursing local governments for response and recovery costs
  2. Restoring utility services to the community after a disaster
  3. Maintaining an organization's essential business functions during a disruption
  4. Preserving constitutional and legal authority to govern during an emergency Correct answer.

Explanation

COG is a coordinated effort to ensure the continued functioning of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches and the preservation of constitutional authority during a catastrophic emergency. COOP, by contrast, addresses an individual organization's essential functions.

Question 25Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

In ICS incident typing, a Type 1 incident is:

  1. The least complex, handled with a single resource
  2. Any incident that has received a federal declaration
  3. The most complex, requiring the highest level of resource support Correct answer.
  4. Any incident confined to one operational period

Explanation

The five ICS types run from Type 5, the least complex and most locally managed, to Type 1, the most complex, which typically requires a full incident management team and national-level resources. Typing helps match resources and management structures to incident complexity.

Question 26Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which set of phases makes up the emergency management cycle?

  1. Mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery Correct answer.
  2. Assessment, alert, evacuation, and sheltering
  3. Planning, budgeting, staffing, and auditing
  4. Prevention, detection, containment, decontamination, and restoration

Explanation

The emergency management cycle is conventionally organized into mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. Mitigation reduces long-term risk, preparedness builds capabilities before an event, response addresses immediate needs, and recovery restores services and rebuilds. The other lists describe program activities or tactical actions rather than the doctrinal cycle.

Question 27Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is best described as:

  1. A national framework that standardizes incident management terminology, roles, and processes Correct answer.
  2. A presidential directive that establishes national preparedness goals and capability targets
  3. A federal insurance program for properties located in flood-prone areas
  4. A grant program that reimburses local governments for overtime and equipment costs after a disaster

Explanation

NIMS provides a common template so that organizations from different jurisdictions and sectors can work together effectively during incidents. It standardizes terminology, command structures, resource management, and communications rather than funding or insuring anything. Grant programs and presidential directives are separate instruments.

Question 28Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The National Response Framework is best described as:

  1. A funding mechanism for long-term recovery and reconstruction projects
  2. A mandatory federal rulebook that supersedes state and local response authorities in every declared disaster
  3. A training curriculum for qualifying personnel in incident command positions
  4. A guide describing how the nation coordinates response to incidents across all levels Correct answer.

Explanation

The National Response Framework describes how the whole community coordinates response, built on the flexible structures of NIMS and organized around Emergency Support Functions. It is guidance for coordination rather than a rulebook that displaces state or local authority. Training curricula and recovery funding are handled through other programs.

Question 29Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

In the National Response Framework, Emergency Support Functions group federal capabilities:

  1. By phase of the disaster, from initial alerting through final closeout
  2. By the size of the incident, from Type 5 through Type 1
  3. By geographic region, with each region led by a federal coordinating officer
  4. By functional area of assistance, such as transportation or public health Correct answer.

Explanation

Emergency Support Functions bundle agencies and resources by the type of assistance they deliver, with a designated primary agency and supporting organizations for each function. This functional grouping lets responders request capabilities rather than individual agencies. Geographic regions, incident typing, and disaster phases are organized differently.

Question 30Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

An Operations Section Chief has fourteen responders reporting directly and cannot supervise them effectively. Consistent with ICS span-of-control guidance, the best action is to:

  1. Increase the interval between status reports from each responder to reduce time spent on supervision
  2. Assume direct supervision personally for as long as the incident remains unstable
  3. Establish subordinate supervisory levels so each supervisor oversees a manageable number of responders Correct answer.
  4. Ask the responders to self-organize their task assignments without formal supervision

Explanation

ICS span-of-control guidance holds that one supervisor can effectively manage roughly three to seven subordinates, with five as a working target. When that range is exceeded, the standard fix is to add organizational layers such as divisions, groups, or teams. Reducing reporting or removing supervision undermines accountability rather than solving the problem.

Question 31Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

During an incident, a responder receives conflicting task assignments from two different supervisors. Which ICS principle is being violated?

  1. Unity of command Correct answer.
  2. Comprehensive resource management
  3. Management by objectives
  4. Span of control

Explanation

Unity of command means each individual reports to only one designated supervisor, which prevents conflicting direction and fixes accountability. Receiving orders from two supervisors is the classic violation of this principle. Span of control concerns the number of subordinates, not the number of supervisors an individual answers to.

Question 32Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The Homeland Security Exercise and Evaluation Program (HSEEP) provides:

  1. A grant formula for distributing exercise funding to states and urban areas
  2. A common methodology for designing, conducting, and evaluating exercises Correct answer.
  3. A certification path for instructors who teach incident command courses
  4. A legal standard for declaring a public health emergency

Explanation

HSEEP supplies a standardized approach to exercise program management, design, conduct, evaluation, and improvement planning so that results are comparable and actionable. It is a methodology rather than a funding formula or a legal authority. Instructor certification and declaration authorities come from other sources.

Question 33Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The purpose of a Threat and Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (THIRA) is to:

  1. Document the damages sustained in a recent disaster so that costs can be submitted for federal reimbursement
  2. Identify threats and hazards and set capability targets for preparedness planning Correct answer.
  3. Rank individual employees according to their emergency response qualifications
  4. Certify that a jurisdiction's emergency operations center meets federal construction standards

Explanation

A THIRA describes the threats and hazards a jurisdiction faces, gives them context, and establishes capability targets that planning then works toward. The resulting targets feed the stakeholder preparedness review and the broader preparedness system. Damage documentation, personnel ranking, and facility certification are separate processes.

Question 34Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 is significant primarily because it:

  1. Created the National Flood Insurance Program
  2. Authorized the Public Assistance program for permanent infrastructure repair
  3. Made hazard mitigation plans a condition of eligibility for certain federal mitigation funds Correct answer.
  4. Established the Department of Homeland Security and consolidated twenty-two federal agencies

Explanation

The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 required state, local, and tribal governments to develop hazard mitigation plans as a precondition for receiving certain federal mitigation grant funding. This shifted mitigation toward advance planning rather than post-disaster improvisation. The other options describe other statutes and organizational actions.

Question 35Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Communities that participate in the National Flood Insurance Program must agree to:

  1. Purchase flood insurance for every commercial building located in the jurisdiction
  2. Adopt and enforce floodplain management ordinances that meet federal minimum standards Correct answer.
  3. Reimburse the federal government for claims paid to policyholders within their boundaries
  4. Ban all new construction within mapped floodplains and require removal of existing structures

Explanation

In exchange for making federally backed flood insurance available, participating communities must adopt and enforce local floodplain management regulations that meet or exceed federal minimum criteria. The program relies on local land-use regulation rather than outright bans on construction. Premiums, not community reimbursement, fund claim payments.

Question 36Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Emergency managers often prefer an all-hazards approach to planning because:

  1. It guarantees that no scenario-specific annexes will ever be required
  2. It eliminates the need to involve private-sector partners in preparedness activities
  3. Many preparedness and response functions are common across different hazards Correct answer.
  4. It transfers responsibility for identifying risk to the federal government and its regional offices

Explanation

An all-hazards approach recognizes that core capabilities such as communications, evacuation, sheltering, and warning serve across many hazard types, which is efficient given limited resources. It does not mean hazard-specific detail is abandoned; annexes are still used where a hazard requires unique expertise. Risk identification remains a shared responsibility at every level.

Question 37Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

A jurisdiction's Emergency Operations Plan is best described as:

  1. A schedule of exercises to be conducted over the next five years
  2. A chronological record of the actions taken and decisions made by responders during the most recent incident
  3. A document assigning responsibilities and describing how the jurisdiction will respond to hazards Correct answer.
  4. An inventory listing every resource owned or controlled by the jurisdiction

Explanation

An Emergency Operations Plan states who does what, when, and with what resources across the full range of hazards the jurisdiction faces, usually through a base plan with functional and hazard-specific annexes. It is forward-looking guidance rather than a historical record. Resource inventories and exercise schedules are separate supporting documents.

Question 38Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

A full-scale exercise differs from a functional exercise primarily in that a full-scale exercise:

  1. Focuses exclusively on testing communications systems and message flow among EOC staff members
  2. Deploys responders and equipment in the field to simulate real operations Correct answer.
  3. Requires no evaluation or after-action documentation once it concludes
  4. Is conducted only as a discussion-based tabletop with no simulation of operations

Explanation

A full-scale exercise coordinates multiple agencies and moves real personnel and equipment in the field, often with simulated victims and scenario injects, to test integrated response. A functional exercise concentrates on specific functions, systems, or command processes usually in a simulated setting. Every exercise type is still evaluated and followed by improvement planning.

Question 39Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

In U.S. emergency management doctrine, the principle of local primacy holds that:

  1. State and federal agencies direct all operations whenever a presidential declaration is issued
  2. Local governments must pay for all disaster response costs up front before any federal reimbursement is considered
  3. Only local governments may request a presidential major disaster declaration
  4. Local authorities have initial responsibility for response, with higher levels supplementing as needed Correct answer.

Explanation

Local primacy means the jurisdiction closest to the incident acts first and retains responsibility, with county, state, tribal, and federal support layered on as needs exceed local capacity. Federal assistance is designed to supplement, not substitute for, state and local efforts. Cost-share rules and declaration request procedures are separate from this principle.

Question 40Provisional: emergency management foundations and doctrine

Which statement accurately describes the relationship between the National Preparedness Goal and the National Preparedness System?

  1. The Goal defines the capabilities to be achieved, while the System describes the processes for achieving them Correct answer.
  2. The National Preparedness System sets the capability targets for each mission area, and the National Preparedness Goal provides the grant funding to achieve them
  3. The Goal applies only to federal agencies, while the System applies only to state governments
  4. Both documents are reissued annually and supersede the National Response Framework for all jurisdictions

Explanation

The National Preparedness Goal articulates the vision and the core capabilities and targets to be achieved across the mission areas. The National Preparedness System supplies the integrated set of processes, tools, and activities used to build, sustain, and deliver those capabilities. Neither function includes funding allocation, and both apply across the whole community.

Question 41Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

In business continuity practice, risk is best expressed as which of the following?

  1. The likelihood and consequence of an event Correct answer.
  2. The number of controls installed in a building
  3. A register listing every hazard identified at a site
  4. The total value of insured assets on a site

Explanation

Risk combines how likely an event is with how severe its consequences would be; both dimensions are needed. A hazard list, an asset value or a control count is only an input to that judgement, not risk itself.

Question 42Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

Which of the following is a natural hazard?

  1. Equipment sabotage
  2. Riverine flood Correct answer.
  3. Ransomware attack
  4. Supplier insolvency

Explanation

Natural hazards originate in environmental or biological processes such as flooding, storms, earthquakes or disease. Attacks, sabotage and supplier failure arise from human or commercial activity.

Question 43Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

What is the primary purpose of a business impact analysis?

  1. To record the maintenance history of critical plant
  2. To verify that backup tapes can be restored
  3. To calculate the insured value of each building
  4. To identify time-critical activities Correct answer.

Explanation

The business impact analysis identifies which activities must continue and how quickly, producing recovery time objectives and recovery point objectives. It is the link between risk assessment and recovery strategy selection.

Question 44Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

Purchasing insurance against the financial cost of a flood is an example of which risk treatment option?

  1. Reduction
  2. Acceptance
  3. Avoidance
  4. Transfer Correct answer.

Explanation

Transfer shifts the financial consequence of a risk to another party, typically an insurer, without removing the hazard itself. Avoidance removes the activity, reduction lowers likelihood or impact, and acceptance retains the risk.

Question 45Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

A standard risk matrix plots likelihood against which other dimension?

  1. Consequence Correct answer.
  2. Cost
  3. Duration
  4. Frequency

Explanation

A risk matrix rates each risk by how likely it is and how severe the outcome would be, and the two ratings combine into a risk score. Cost and duration are types of consequence rather than the second axis.

Question 46Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

Which document records identified risks together with their ratings, owners and treatment actions?

  1. The exercise schedule
  2. The risk register Correct answer.
  3. The emergency response plan
  4. The business impact analysis

Explanation

The risk register is the central log of assessed risks, their scores, owners, controls and treatment status. It allows risks to be tracked, reviewed and escalated over time.

Question 47Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

A hazard is best described as which of the following?

  1. The likelihood that a control will fail
  2. The measured financial loss from an incident
  3. The level of risk an organisation will accept
  4. A source of potential harm Correct answer.

Explanation

A hazard is a source of potential harm such as a floodplain, a chemical store or a hostile actor. Risk is the combination of the likelihood and consequence of that hazard causing harm.

Question 48Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

Which of the following is a technological hazard?

  1. Influenza pandemic
  2. Cooling system failure Correct answer.
  3. Activist protest at the gate
  4. Coastal storm surge

Explanation

Technological hazards arise from the failure or misuse of equipment, systems or industrial processes, such as cooling loss or control system failure. Storm surge and pandemic are natural, and protest is a human-caused hazard.

Question 49Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

A hazard is rated likelihood 4 and consequence 3 on a 1-to-5 scale. Using simple multiplication, what risk score results?

  1. 12 Correct answer.
  2. 7
  3. 1.3
  4. 34

Explanation

Simple additive-style matrices multiply the likelihood rating by the consequence rating, giving 4 x 3 = 12. The score is then read against defined tolerance bands to decide whether treatment or escalation is needed.

Question 50Provisional: risk assessment and hazard analysis

After a generator is installed to address a power loss risk, the risk that remains is called which of the following?

  1. Residual risk Correct answer.
  2. Secondary risk
  3. Risk appetite
  4. Inherent risk

Explanation

Residual risk is what is left after controls or treatments have been applied, and it must be compared against the organisation's tolerance. Inherent risk is the level before any controls are considered.