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BCNP practice questions

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Question 1Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which unit expresses the radioactivity of a radiopharmaceutical as decays per second in the SI system?

  1. Curie
  2. Gray
  3. Sievert
  4. Becquerel Correct answer.

Explanation

The becquerel is the SI unit of activity and equals one nuclear transformation per second. The curie is the older non-SI unit equal to 3.7 x 10^10 decays per second. Gray and sievert measure absorbed and equivalent dose, not activity.

Question 2Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A technologist must handle an unsealed vial of F-18 FDG. Which practice best reflects the ALARA principle for reducing occupational exposure?

  1. Maximize distance and minimize time near the source Correct answer.
  2. Rely only on a lead apron for beta-emitting nuclides
  3. Work quickly while holding the vial close to the body
  4. Store the vial in a warm incubator between uses

Explanation

Dose from a point source falls off with the square of distance, so increasing separation and limiting handling time both reduce exposure. Shielding is used too, but distance and time are the most reliable general controls. Holding sources close or relying on a single barrier contradicts ALARA.

Question 3Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

What is the primary purpose of adding sodium chloride to a technetium-99m eluate prior to certain kit preparations?

  1. To oxidize reduced technetium back to pertechnetate
  2. To increase the specific activity of the eluate
  3. To chelate free pertechnetate before injection
  4. To adjust isotonicity and ionic strength for patient comfort Correct answer.

Explanation

Eluate from a generator is saline-based, and the chloride content provides isotonicity and appropriate ionic strength for kits and injection. Sodium chloride does not oxidize, chelate, or concentrate the radionuclide. These functions belong to other agents or to the generator itself.

Question 4Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which radionuclide is most commonly used as the parent in a generator that supplies a positron-emitting daughter for PET?

  1. Iodine-131
  2. Germanium-68 Correct answer.
  3. Molybdenum-99
  4. Strontium-82

Explanation

A germanium-68/gallium-68 generator produces Ga-68, a positron emitter used for PET labeling. Mo-99/Tc-99m supplies a gamma-emitting daughter used mainly in SPECT. Sr-82/Rb-82 exists but is less central to routine PET pharmacy than Ga-68.

Question 5Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which property makes technetium-99m well suited for gamma camera imaging?

  1. A 511 keV positron emission with a 110-minute half-life
  2. A 1.3 MeV gamma emission with a 13-hour half-life
  3. A 140 keV gamma emission with a six-hour half-life Correct answer.
  4. A 364 keV gamma emission with an eight-day half-life

Explanation

Tc-99m emits a 140 keV gamma ray, which is ideal for the sodium iodide detector of a gamma camera, and its six-hour half-life allows imaging while limiting patient dose. The other listed emissions and half-lives belong to different nuclides.

Question 6Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A patient scheduled for a radioactive iodine therapy asks about precautions after discharge. Which instruction is appropriate?

  1. Increase distance from others and use separate bathroom facilities temporarily Correct answer.
  2. Sleep in the same bed as an infant to maintain routine
  3. Discontinue all fluids to limit urinary excretion
  4. Share eating utensils with family members to reduce anxiety

Explanation

After radioiodine therapy, patients excrete radioactivity in urine and saliva, so distance and separate facilities reduce household exposure. Sharing utensils or close sleeping contact with an infant increases contamination and external exposure risk. Adequate hydration actually promotes excretion and should not be restricted.

Question 7Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which document must accompany a radiopharmaceutical dose to record the prescribed activity, patient identity, and lot information?

  1. The dose administration record Correct answer.
  2. The radiation safety committee minutes
  3. The generator elution log
  4. The instrument calibration certificate

Explanation

A dose administration record ties the dispensed activity to a specific patient and prescription and supports traceability. Generator logs, calibration certificates, and committee minutes serve other quality and oversight functions. They do not document individual patient administration.

Question 8Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

In a hospital radiopharmacy, which area is designed for handling large activities and is posted with a radiation warning?

  1. The restricted radiopharmacy hot lab Correct answer.
  2. The general supply storeroom
  3. The patient waiting room
  4. The hospital cafeteria

Explanation

The hot lab is a restricted area where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared, assayed, and stored, and it is posted to warn of radiation hazards. Public and general-use spaces are not appropriate for handling large activities. Access control limits exposure to trained personnel.

Question 9Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A technologist prepares a Tc-99m kit and observes that the final product contains visible particles. What is the correct action?

  1. Filter the product and administer it immediately
  2. Warm the vial until the particles dissolve
  3. Discard the preparation and document the event Correct answer.
  4. Proceed because particles settle after injection

Explanation

Visible particulate matter indicates a failed preparation that must not be administered because of embolic risk. Filtering or warming does not validate sterility or chemical purity and cannot restore a product of assured quality. The event should be documented and investigated.

Question 10Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which parameter is evaluated by the radionuclidic purity test of an eluate?

  1. The fraction of activity present as reduced hydrolyzed technetium
  2. The fraction of total activity from the intended radionuclide Correct answer.
  3. The concentration of the ligand in the kit
  4. The number of particles per milliliter

Explanation

Radionuclidic purity describes the proportion of total activity attributable to the desired radionuclide rather than contaminants. Radiochemical purity concerns chemical forms such as reduced hydrolyzed technetium. Particulate counts and ligand concentration are separate quality attributes.

Question 11Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A vial of Tc-99m sestamibi is assayed and found to have 92 percent radiochemical purity. What does this value most directly indicate?

  1. The percentage of activity in the desired chemical form Correct answer.
  2. The percentage of dose excreted in urine
  3. The percentage of the vial that is sterile
  4. The percentage of activity from Tc-99m rather than other nuclides

Explanation

Radiochemical purity measures the fraction of radioactivity present in the intended chemical species. Radionuclidic purity, by contrast, addresses the identity of the emitting nuclide. Excretion and sterility are unrelated to this measurement.

Question 12Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

An eluate is tested for aluminum ion breakthrough. Which consequence is most associated with excessive aluminum in a Tc-99m eluate?

  1. Enhanced renal clearance of the tracer
  2. Impaired labeling and altered biodistribution Correct answer.
  3. Increased radionuclidic purity
  4. Reduced radiation dose to the bladder

Explanation

Aluminum can interfere with technetium reduction and binding in kits, producing poor labeling and abnormal distribution. It does not improve purity or reduce dose. Aluminum breakthrough is therefore monitored with each eluate or per established protocol.

Question 13Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which practice best protects the sterility of a multi-dose radiopharmaceutical vial during repeated withdrawals?

  1. Store the vial uncapped on the bench between doses
  2. Withdraw doses without disinfecting the closure
  3. Reuse the same needle for all withdrawals to save supplies
  4. Swab the septum with antiseptic and use a fresh needle for each entry Correct answer.

Explanation

Disinfecting the closure and using a fresh sterile needle for each puncture reduces the risk of microbial contamination. Reusing needles or leaving vials uncapped introduces organisms. Aseptic technique is required whenever a multi-dose vial is entered.

Question 14Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A dose of F-18 FDG is calibrated for 10:00, but the patient arrives at 11:30. How should the activity be recalculated?

  1. Assume the activity is unchanged for two hours
  2. Use a 6-hour half-life in the decay formula
  3. Add activity in proportion to the elapsed time
  4. Apply decay using the 110-minute half-life to the elapsed time Correct answer.

Explanation

Activity decays exponentially with the nuclide half-life, so the calibrated activity must be corrected for the 90-minute interval using F-18's 110-minute half-life. Activity decreases rather than increases over time. Assuming no change or using the wrong half-life yields an incorrect dose.

Question 15Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which factor most influences the radiation dose absorbed by the bladder after administration of a renally excreted radiopharmaceutical?

  1. The color of the urine produced
  2. The patient's hair color
  3. The ambient room temperature
  4. The residence time of activity in the bladder Correct answer.

Explanation

The bladder is a major dose-limiting organ for renally excreted tracers because activity accumulates there before voiding. Longer residence time increases absorbed dose, so hydration and frequent voiding are encouraged. The other listed factors have no dosimetric relevance.

Question 16Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A prescription calls for a pediatric radiopharmaceutical dose based on body weight. The adult dose is 370 MBq for a 70 kg adult, and the child weighs 20 kg. Using simple weight-based scaling, what activity is appropriate?

  1. 106 MBq Correct answer.
  2. 20 MBq
  3. 370 MBq
  4. 740 MBq

Explanation

Scaling by weight gives 370 MBq multiplied by 20/70, which is about 106 MBq. Giving the full adult dose would overexpose the child. The value 740 MBq is double the adult dose, and 20 MBq reflects the weight number rather than a calculation.

Question 17Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Why is a reducing agent such as stannous ion included in many Tc-99m kits?

  1. To increase the pH of the final product
  2. To oxidize the ligand into a colored complex
  3. To reduce pertechnetate so it can bind the ligand Correct answer.
  4. To act as a bacteriostatic preservative

Explanation

Pertechnetate contains technetium in the +7 state, which is poorly reactive toward most ligands. Stannous ion reduces it to a lower oxidation state that can coordinate with the kit ligand. Oxidation, pH adjustment, and preservation are different functions.

Question 18Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A radiopharmacy receives a shipment of a Tc-99m kit and must verify it before use. Which check is most appropriate at receipt?

  1. Discard all kits to avoid variability
  2. Confirm expiration date, storage conditions, and integrity of the package Correct answer.
  3. Administer a test dose to a volunteer
  4. Perform a patient biodistribution study

Explanation

Receipt inspection verifies that the product is within its expiration date, stored as labeled, and physically intact. Biodistribution studies and volunteer dosing are not part of routine receipt checks. Discarding usable kits is wasteful and unnecessary.

Question 19Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which statement correctly compares the radiation weighting of alpha particles with that of gamma rays for equivalent dose?

  1. Gamma rays carry a higher weighting factor than alpha particles
  2. Both types have identical weighting factors
  3. Alpha particles carry a much higher weighting factor than gamma rays Correct answer.
  4. Neither type contributes to equivalent dose

Explanation

Alpha particles are densely ionizing and have a much larger radiation weighting factor than gamma rays, so the same absorbed dose yields a far greater equivalent dose. Gamma rays have a weighting factor near one. Equivalent dose therefore depends strongly on radiation type.

Question 20Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A generator elution yields 1.2 GBq of Tc-99m at 08:00. Approximately what activity remains at 14:00?

  1. 0.6 GBq Correct answer.
  2. 0.15 GBq
  3. 2.4 GBq
  4. 1.2 GBq

Explanation

Six hours is one Tc-99m half-life, so the activity falls by half to about 0.6 GBq. Activity never stays constant or increases without new elution. A quarter of the original value would require two half-lives, or about 12 hours.

Question 21Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

During preparation of a Tc-99m labeled product, a technologist notes that the eluate was drawn from a generator that had not been eluted for several days. Which concern is most relevant?

  1. Reduced need for shielding
  2. Increased sterility of the eluate
  3. Lower specific activity of the daughter only
  4. Higher ingrowth of the Mo-99 parent and potential breakthrough Correct answer.

Explanation

A generator left uneluted allows the long-lived Mo-99 parent to accumulate, raising the risk of parent breakthrough in the eluate. Breakthrough is assessed with a dose calibrator or molybdenum assay. Sterility and shielding needs are unaffected by elution timing.

Question 22Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A patient with impaired renal function is scheduled for a renally cleared radiopharmaceutical. What adjustment is most appropriate?

  1. Assume the biodistribution will match a healthy patient
  2. Schedule imaging immediately without considering clearance
  3. Increase the administered activity to compensate for slow clearance
  4. Review the dosing and imaging timing because clearance will be prolonged Correct answer.

Explanation

Reduced renal clearance prolongs retention of the tracer and can increase organ dose while altering image timing and quality. The dose and imaging schedule should be reviewed rather than simply increased. Assuming normal biodistribution ignores the physiologic change.

Question 23Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A kit is prepared with an eluate whose activity is far above the kit's validated range. What is the most likely consequence?

  1. Improved radiochemical purity beyond specification
  2. Suboptimal labeling and increased radiochemical impurities Correct answer.
  3. Complete elimination of free pertechnetate
  4. Reduced need for radiochemical purity testing

Explanation

Kits are validated for a specific activity range because the ratio of reducing agent and ligand to technetium affects labeling efficiency. Excess activity can overwhelm the formulation and raise impurities. Testing is still required, and purity is not improved by exceeding the range.

Question 24Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A shipment of a PET radiopharmaceutical arrives with a dose calibrator reading lower than the certificate value. Which explanation best accounts for the discrepancy?

  1. Contamination of the dose calibrator
  2. Radioactive decay during transport Correct answer.
  3. Increased radionuclidic purity
  4. A change in the patient's weight

Explanation

Short-lived PET nuclides lose substantial activity during transport, so the measured value at receipt is expected to be lower than the release value. Calibrator contamination would generally raise readings and is not the most likely explanation. Purity and patient weight do not change the measured activity of the vial.

Question 25Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A radiopharmacy must choose between two eluates for labeling a kit with a narrow activity range. Eluate A has high activity but was eluted 30 hours ago, while eluate B was eluted 2 hours ago at moderate activity. Which consideration is most important?

  1. Always choose the eluate with the highest activity
  2. Use an eluate whose activity and timing fit the validated kit range Correct answer.
  3. Always choose the oldest eluate available
  4. Choose based on the color of the vial label

Explanation

Labeling efficiency depends on the amount of activity added relative to the kit formulation and on the time since elution, which affects parent ingrowth. The appropriate choice is the eluate that keeps the preparation within its validated range. Highest activity or oldest eluate is not automatically correct.

Question 26Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which unit is used in the SI system to express the activity of a radiopharmaceutical dose?

  1. Coulomb
  2. Sievert
  3. Becquerel Correct answer.
  4. Gray

Explanation

Activity is the number of nuclear transformations per unit time, and the SI unit of activity is the becquerel, equal to one disintegration per second. The gray and sievert measure absorbed dose and equivalent dose, not activity.

Question 27Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A dose of Tc-99m MDP is prepared at 09:00 with 925 MBq. What activity remains at 13:00, given a half-life of 6 hours?

  1. 578 MBq
  2. 694 MBq
  3. 463 MBq Correct answer.
  4. 231 MBq

Explanation

Four hours is two-thirds of one half-life, so activity decays by the factor 0.5 raised to the power 4/6, which is about 0.63. Multiplying 925 MBq by 0.63 gives roughly 463 MBq, so the other values do not match the decay calculation.

Question 28Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

In a PET radiopharmacy, which shielding material is most practical for a high-activity F-18 source?

  1. Aluminum sheet
  2. Clear acrylic
  3. Thin lead foil
  4. High-density tungsten Correct answer.

Explanation

F-18 emits 511 keV annihilation photons that require dense, high atomic number material to attenuate effectively. Tungsten offers high density and is commonly used for PET shielding, while low-density materials transmit most of the annihilation radiation.

Question 29Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which government agency regulates the medical use of byproduct material such as Tc-99m under federal rules, with authority often delegated to agreement states?

  1. The NRC Correct answer.
  2. The EPA
  3. The DEA
  4. The FDA

Explanation

The Nuclear Regulatory Commission issues the federal rules governing byproduct material, and agreement states administer comparable programs under their own regulations. The FDA handles drug approval, while the EPA and DEA regulate other areas entirely.

Question 30Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A radiopharmacy must keep a written record of each radiopharmaceutical dose dispensed. Which element is essential for that record to support traceability?

  1. Technologist's shift schedule
  2. Number of vials in inventory
  3. Patient name and administered activity Correct answer.
  4. Room temperature at dispensing

Explanation

A dispensing record must link a specific activity to a specific patient so that the dose can be traced if a problem arises. Ancillary details such as room temperature or staffing do not establish that link.

Question 31Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A vial of Tc-99m sulfur colloid is being prepared for a patient with a known allergy to a kit component. What is the most appropriate action before preparation?

  1. Filter the final product to remove the allergen
  2. Review the package insert for excipients and contraindications Correct answer.
  3. Double the stannous ion amount to reduce reaction risk
  4. Proceed because radiopharmaceuticals are exempt from allergy review

Explanation

Kit formulations contain excipients and stabilizers that can trigger hypersensitivity, so the package insert must be reviewed before preparation. Filtering does not remove dissolved allergens, and altering the kit composition is not acceptable.

Question 32Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which condition is most important to verify on a dose calibrator before measuring a patient dose?

  1. That the printer is loaded
  2. That the waste container is empty
  3. That the daily constancy test passed Correct answer.
  4. That the refrigerator is at temperature

Explanation

The dose calibrator must pass its daily constancy check to ensure that reported activities are accurate. Printer status, waste levels, and refrigerator temperature do not affect the accuracy of the activity measurement.

Question 33Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A technologist must dispose of a used Tc-99m generator column. Which approach follows decay-in-storage principles?

  1. Discard it immediately in regular trash
  2. Store it until activity decays to background, then survey and dispose Correct answer.
  3. Flush it down the sanitary sewer at once
  4. Return it to the manufacturer without documentation

Explanation

Decay-in-storage requires holding radioactive waste until the activity has decayed to background levels, then surveying to confirm and documenting the disposal. Immediate discard or undocumented returns violate the intent of the rule.

Question 34Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which personal monitoring device is worn to estimate a worker's whole-body dose from external radiation?

  1. Geiger-Mueller probe
  2. Ring badge
  3. Film or thermoluminescent dosimeter Correct answer.
  4. Survey meter

Explanation

A whole-body badge, such as film or thermoluminescent dosimeter, records cumulative external dose for the torso. Ring badges measure extremity dose, and survey meters provide instantaneous readings rather than personal cumulative dose.

Question 35Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A worker's badge shows 0.6 mSv for the month. Which statement best reflects the ALARA principle in response?

  1. Review procedures and identify ways to reduce future exposure Correct answer.
  2. No action is needed because the reading is below any limit
  3. Increase shielding only if the annual limit is exceeded
  4. Reassign the worker to non-radioactive duties permanently

Explanation

ALARA requires keeping doses as low as reasonably achievable regardless of whether regulatory limits are met, so even low readings prompt a review for improvement. Waiting for a limit to be exceeded contradicts the principle.

Question 36Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which practice most reduces external exposure when handling a high-activity Tc-99m source?

  1. Increasing distance and minimizing handling time Correct answer.
  2. Using thinner gloves for better dexterity
  3. Working with the source at eye level
  4. Wearing a lead apron for all manipulations

Explanation

External dose falls with the square of distance and accumulates with time, so maximizing distance and minimizing handling time are the most effective controls. A lead apron offers limited benefit against the 140 keV photons and does not replace time and distance.

Question 37Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A patient scheduled for a Tc-99m bone scan has a recent nuclear medicine study using a long-lived radionuclide. Why does this matter for scheduling?

  1. It requires a larger dose of the bone agent
  2. It increases the half-life of Tc-99m
  3. It may cause residual background activity that interferes with imaging Correct answer.
  4. It changes the biodistribution of the bone agent

Explanation

Residual activity from a prior study can contribute background counts that degrade image quality, so timing must be considered. It does not alter the physical half-life of Tc-99m or the biodistribution of the bone agent.

Question 38Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which patient instruction is appropriate before a Tc-99m bone scan?

  1. Empty the bladder shortly before imaging Correct answer.
  2. Fast for twelve hours before the study
  3. Avoid all fluids for six hours
  4. Stop all medications for one week

Explanation

Emptying the bladder before imaging reduces pelvic activity that can obscure the bones of the pelvis. Fasting and prolonged fluid restriction are not standard requirements for a bone scan.

Question 39Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A radiopharmaceutical dose is prepared for a patient who weighs 50 kg using a weight-based regimen of 7.4 MBq/kg. What activity should be drawn?

  1. 370 MBq Correct answer.
  2. 500 MBq
  3. 185 MBq
  4. 250 MBq

Explanation

Multiplying 7.4 MBq/kg by 50 kg gives 370 MBq, which is the activity to be drawn for this patient. The other values result from incorrect multiplication or from using a different weight.

Question 40Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which property of a radiopharmaceutical most directly determines its suitability for imaging a specific organ?

  1. Its biodistribution and target uptake Correct answer.
  2. Its manufacturer's lot number
  3. Its color in solution
  4. Its container size

Explanation

A radiopharmaceutical is useful for imaging when it concentrates in the target tissue while clearing from background. Color, container size, and lot number do not determine target uptake.

Question 41Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A technologist notes that a Tc-99m labeled product shows a second peak on chromatography that should not be present. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. The product is acceptable because one peak is present
  2. The result indicates the dose calibrator is faulty
  3. An impurity is present and the product should not be released Correct answer.
  4. The second peak confirms radiochemical purity

Explanation

Chromatography separates the labeled product from impurities, and an unexpected peak indicates a radiochemical impurity that fails the release specification. A single acceptable peak does not justify release when an extra impurity peak is present.

Question 42Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which action is required when a Tc-99m eluate is found to contain molybdenum-99 breakthrough above the limit?

  1. Dilute it with saline and proceed
  2. Store it overnight and use it the next day
  3. Discard the eluate and do not use it Correct answer.
  4. Use it only for patients who are not pregnant

Explanation

Eluate exceeding the Mo-99 breakthrough limit must not be used because the contaminant increases patient dose and degrades image quality. Dilution or storage does not correct the underlying contamination.

Question 43Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which statement best describes the role of the radiopharmacy in a hospital's quality assurance program?

  1. It manages only the billing records
  2. It replaces the need for physician oversight
  3. It ensures products meet specifications before patient administration Correct answer.
  4. It only tracks inventory levels

Explanation

Quality assurance in the radiopharmacy centers on verifying that each product meets specifications before it reaches a patient. Inventory tracking and billing are administrative tasks, and physician oversight remains essential.

Question 44Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A patient is to receive a radiopharmaceutical that is excreted renally and has a narrow therapeutic window. Which factor most affects the radiation dose to the kidneys?

  1. The patient's renal clearance Correct answer.
  2. The time of day of administration
  3. The color of the vial label
  4. The size of the syringe

Explanation

For renally excreted agents, slower clearance prolongs retention in the kidneys and increases absorbed dose. Label color, syringe size, and time of day do not materially change renal retention.

Question 45Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which precaution is most appropriate for a technologist who is pregnant and assigned to work with radioiodine?

  1. Wear a second badge for extra protection
  2. Increase the dose to shorten the procedure
  3. Review workload and consider reassignment to reduce exposure Correct answer.
  4. Continue all duties without modification

Explanation

A declared pregnancy warrants a review of duties and consideration of reassignment to keep fetal dose as low as reasonably achievable. A second badge does not reduce exposure, and increasing the dose is never appropriate.

Question 46Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which practice best ensures that a multi-dose radiopharmaceutical vial remains suitable for repeated use throughout the day?

  1. Swabbing the septum with an approved disinfectant before each entry Correct answer.
  2. Storing the vial uncapped on the bench
  3. Leaving the vial at room temperature for extended periods
  4. Using the same needle for all withdrawals

Explanation

Disinfecting the septum before each puncture reduces the risk of microbial contamination during repeated withdrawals. Uncapped storage, needle reuse, and prolonged room-temperature holding increase contamination and degradation risk.

Question 47Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A generator is eluted and the technologist must decide whether the eluate is suitable for labeling. Which combination of results best supports release for use?

  1. Visible particles and adequate activity
  2. Cloudy appearance and low activity
  3. Breakthrough above limits and high activity
  4. Breakthrough within limits and adequate activity for the kit Correct answer.

Explanation

An eluate is suitable when breakthrough is within limits and the activity is adequate for the kit being labeled. High activity cannot compensate for excessive breakthrough, and visible particles or cloudiness indicate a failing product.

Question 48Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of a written directive in radiopharmaceutical therapy?

  1. It replaces the need for informed consent
  2. It is required only for diagnostic imaging
  3. It documents only the billing charges
  4. It authorizes a specific therapy for a specific patient before administration Correct answer.

Explanation

A written directive is a physician order that specifies the patient, the radionuclide, and the dose before therapy is given. It does not replace informed consent and is not a billing or diagnostic document.

Question 49Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

A patient asks how long to maintain distance from family members after receiving a therapeutic dose of a radionuclide. Which response is most appropriate?

  1. Advise that no precautions are necessary
  2. Give written, agent-specific instructions based on the prescribed activity Correct answer.
  3. Tell the patient to avoid all contact for a year
  4. Refer the patient to the internet for guidance

Explanation

Release instructions should be written and tailored to the specific radionuclide, activity, and patient circumstances so that family dose remains reasonable. Blanket statements or unverified sources are not appropriate.

Question 50Nuclear Pharmacy Practice

Which unit is used to express the activity of a radiopharmaceutical dose in the International System of Units?

  1. Gray
  2. Coulomb per kilogram
  3. Becquerel Correct answer.
  4. Sievert

Explanation

Activity, the number of nuclear transformations per unit time, is expressed in becquerels in the SI system, where one becquerel equals one disintegration per second. Gray and sievert describe absorbed and equivalent dose, not activity.