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Question 1Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A simply supported beam of span 6 m carries a central point load of 40 kN. What is the maximum bending moment in the beam?

  1. 240 kN·m
  2. 120 kN·m
  3. 40 kN·m
  4. 60 kN·m Correct answer.

Explanation

For a simply supported beam with a central point load W over span L, the maximum bending moment occurs at midspan and equals W·L/4. Substituting gives 40 × 6 / 4 = 60 kN·m. The reaction at each support is W/2 = 20 kN, and the moment at midspan is 20 × 3 = 60 kN·m.

Question 2Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In a compression ignition (diesel) engine, ignition of the fuel occurs because of:

  1. high temperature of compressed air Correct answer.
  2. an electric glow coil only
  3. a spark plug discharge
  4. premixed flame propagation from a pilot jet

Explanation

A diesel engine draws in air alone and compresses it to a high pressure ratio, raising its temperature above the fuel's auto-ignition point. Fuel injected at the end of compression self-ignites without any external ignition source. This self-ignition by compression heat is the defining feature of the CI cycle.

Question 3Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

The SI unit of electrical resistance, the ohm, is equivalent to which combination of base SI units?

  1. kg·m·s⁻²·A⁻¹
  2. kg·m²·s⁻³·A⁻¹
  3. kg·m²·s⁻³·A⁻² Correct answer.
  4. kg·m²·s⁻²·A⁻¹

Explanation

Resistance equals voltage divided by current, and power equals voltage times current, so R = P/I². Power in base units is kg·m²·s⁻³ and current is A, giving kg·m²·s⁻³·A⁻². This is the derived unit ohm expressed dimensionally.

Question 4Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A rectangular channel 4 m wide carries water at a depth of 1.5 m with a mean velocity of 2 m/s. What is the discharge?

  1. 12 m³/s Correct answer.
  2. 8 m³/s
  3. 3 m³/s
  4. 6 m³/s

Explanation

Discharge equals the cross-sectional area of flow multiplied by the mean velocity. The flow area is width times depth, 4 × 1.5 = 6 m². Multiplying by 2 m/s gives 12 m³/s.

Question 5Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In surveying, a bench mark is best described as:

  1. a fixed reference point of known reduced level Correct answer.
  2. the turning point where the staff is held
  3. the line joining points of equal elevation
  4. a temporary peg set at each chain length

Explanation

A bench mark is a permanent, stable point whose reduced level has been accurately determined and recorded. Levelling operations start and close on bench marks so that elevations are tied to a common datum. Temporary pegs and turning points are working points without known elevation.

Question 6Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A simply supported beam of uniform section has a span L and carries a uniformly distributed load w per unit length over its whole span. The maximum deflection occurs at midspan and equals:

  1. wL³/(48EI)
  2. wL⁴/(384EI)
  3. 5wL⁴/(384EI) Correct answer.
  4. wL⁴/(185EI)

Explanation

For a uniformly loaded simply supported beam the maximum deflection at midspan is 5wL⁴/(384EI). The coefficient 5/384 arises from double integration of the bending moment diagram. The deflection varies with the fourth power of span, so span has a very strong influence.

Question 7Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In a four-stroke engine, the exhaust valve normally opens:

  1. after top dead centre at the start of the intake stroke
  2. at top dead centre at the end of compression
  3. exactly at bottom dead centre at the end of the power stroke
  4. before bottom dead centre near the end of the power stroke Correct answer.

Explanation

The exhaust valve opens slightly before bottom dead centre near the end of the expansion stroke so that burnt gases can begin leaving early. This exhaust valve lead improves scavenging and reduces pumping losses. The valve closes after top dead centre, giving valve overlap with the intake.

Question 8Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

Three resistors of 6 Ω, 3 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?

  1. 2 Ω
  2. 0.5 Ω
  3. 1 Ω Correct answer.
  4. 11 Ω

Explanation

For parallel resistors the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals. Here 1/R = 1/6 + 1/3 + 1/2 = 1, so R = 1 Ω. The equivalent resistance must be smaller than the smallest branch resistance, which confirms the answer.

Question 9Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In soil mechanics, the coefficient of uniformity of a soil is defined as:

  1. D₁₀/D₆₀
  2. D₃₀²/(D₁₀·D₆₀)
  3. D₆₀/D₁₀ Correct answer.
  4. D₆₀ − D₁₀

Explanation

The coefficient of uniformity is the ratio of the particle diameter at 60 percent finer to that at 10 percent finer, that is D₆₀/D₁₀. A value near 1 indicates a uniformly graded soil, while larger values indicate a well-graded soil. It is read from the particle size distribution curve.

Question 10Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A simply supported beam of span 4 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m over its entire span. What is the maximum shear force in the beam?

  1. 10 kN
  2. 20 kN Correct answer.
  3. 40 kN
  4. 5 kN

Explanation

The total load is 10 kN/m × 4 m = 40 kN, shared equally by the two supports. The maximum shear force occurs at the supports and equals the reaction, which is 40/2 = 20 kN. Shear then decreases linearly to zero at midspan.

Question 11Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

Which statement correctly describes the function of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

  1. It restores voltage after a temporary dip.
  2. It converts alternating current into direct current.
  3. It limits the current by adding series reactance.
  4. It melts to break the circuit when current exceeds a set value. Correct answer.

Explanation

A fuse contains a calibrated metal element that melts when the current exceeds its rated value. Melting opens the circuit and interrupts the fault current, protecting conductors and equipment. It is a one-time protective device that must be replaced after operation.

Question 12Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

The plasticity index of a soil is defined as:

  1. plastic limit minus shrinkage limit
  2. liquid limit minus shrinkage limit
  3. liquid limit minus plastic limit Correct answer.
  4. natural water content minus plastic limit

Explanation

The plasticity index is the range of water content over which a soil behaves plastically. It is calculated as the liquid limit minus the plastic limit. A large plasticity index indicates a highly compressible clay, while a small value indicates a silty or low-plasticity soil.

Question 13Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

Water flows through a horizontal pipe that narrows from a diameter of 100 mm to 50 mm. If the velocity in the wider section is 2 m/s, what is the velocity in the narrower section?

  1. 4 m/s
  2. 1 m/s
  3. 8 m/s Correct answer.
  4. 2 m/s

Explanation

For steady incompressible flow, continuity requires A₁V₁ = A₂V₂. Area varies with the square of diameter, so halving the diameter quarters the area. The velocity therefore increases fourfold, from 2 m/s to 8 m/s.

Question 14Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In a single-phase transformer, the ratio of primary to secondary voltage is equal to:

  1. the square of the turns ratio
  2. the ratio of secondary to primary current
  3. the ratio of primary to secondary turns Correct answer.
  4. the ratio of secondary to primary turns

Explanation

For an ideal transformer the voltage ratio equals the turns ratio, so V₁/V₂ = N₁/N₂. The current ratio is the inverse of this, and the impedance ratio varies as the square of the turns ratio. This relationship follows from the common flux linking both windings.

Question 15Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A right-angled triangle has a base of 6 m and a height of 8 m. What is the position of its centroid measured from the base?

  1. 8/3 m Correct answer.
  2. 16/3 m
  3. 3 m
  4. 4 m

Explanation

For a triangle the centroid lies at one third of the height from the base. With a height of 8 m, the centroid is 8/3 m above the base. The horizontal distance from the vertical side is similarly one third of the base, that is 2 m.

Question 16Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

Which of the following is a correct statement about the working of a centrifugal pump?

  1. It displaces a fixed volume of liquid per revolution.
  2. It must be primed only when handling hot liquids.
  3. It converts kinetic energy of the liquid into pressure energy in the casing. Correct answer.
  4. It is self-priming under all suction conditions.

Explanation

An impeller imparts kinetic energy to the liquid, and the volute or diffuser casing converts much of that kinetic energy into pressure energy. A centrifugal pump is not a positive displacement machine. It generally needs priming because it cannot pump air effectively.

Question 17Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A 10 kW, 250 V DC shunt motor draws a line current of 50 A at full load. What is the back EMF if the armature resistance is 0.2 Ω?

  1. 240 V Correct answer.
  2. 260 V
  3. 230 V
  4. 250 V

Explanation

The back EMF is the terminal voltage minus the armature resistance drop. Here the armature current is 50 A and the drop is 50 × 0.2 = 10 V. Therefore the back EMF is 250 − 10 = 240 V.

Question 18Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In a closed traverse survey, the sum of the interior angles of a polygon with n sides should equal:

  1. (2n − 4) × 90°
  2. n × 180°
  3. (n − 2) × 180° Correct answer.
  4. (n + 2) × 90°

Explanation

A closed polygon can be divided into n − 2 triangles, each contributing 180°. Hence the theoretical sum of interior angles is (n − 2) × 180°. This check is used to distribute the angular error in a closed traverse.

Question 19Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

The rate of flow through a soil sample in a constant head permeability test depends on which combination of factors?

  1. The plasticity index and liquid limit
  2. Only the hydraulic gradient
  3. Only the coefficient of permeability
  4. Hydraulic gradient, cross-sectional area and coefficient of permeability Correct answer.

Explanation

Darcy's law states that discharge equals the coefficient of permeability times the hydraulic gradient times the flow area. All three quantities must be known to compute flow. The coefficient of permeability itself depends on soil grain size and void ratio.

Question 20Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A Carnot engine operates between a source at 600 K and a sink at 300 K. What is its thermal efficiency?

  1. 100%
  2. 75%
  3. 50% Correct answer.
  4. 25%

Explanation

The Carnot efficiency is 1 minus the ratio of sink temperature to source temperature in kelvin. Here 1 − 300/600 = 0.5, so the efficiency is 50 percent. No real engine operating between these temperatures can exceed this value.

Question 21Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In a star-connected three-phase balanced system, the relationship between line voltage and phase voltage is:

  1. line voltage equals phase voltage
  2. line voltage equals √3 times phase voltage Correct answer.
  3. line voltage equals 3 times phase voltage
  4. line voltage equals phase voltage divided by √3

Explanation

In a star connection, the line voltage is the phasor difference of two phase voltages displaced by 120°. This gives a magnitude of √3 times the phase voltage, while the line and phase currents remain equal. In a delta connection the reverse holds for currents.

Question 22Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A mild steel specimen has a gauge length of 50 mm and extends to 62.5 mm at fracture. What is its percentage elongation?

  1. 30%
  2. 20%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 25% Correct answer.

Explanation

Percentage elongation is the increase in gauge length divided by the original gauge length, multiplied by 100. The increase is 62.5 − 50 = 12.5 mm, so the elongation is 12.5/50 × 100 = 25 percent. This is a standard measure of ductility.

Question 23Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

Which of the following best explains why a Pelton wheel is preferred for high head installations?

  1. It requires a draft tube to recover pressure at the outlet.
  2. It uses a jet impinging on buckets at atmospheric pressure, so high heads can be converted to high velocity. Correct answer.
  3. It operates fully submerged and uses reaction from the casing.
  4. It uses a diffuser to convert pressure into velocity inside the runner.

Explanation

A Pelton wheel is an impulse turbine in which a high-velocity jet strikes buckets that run in air at atmospheric pressure. High head converts to high jet velocity through a nozzle, so the wheel suits large heads and small flows. Reaction turbines such as Francis and Kaplan suit lower heads.

Question 24Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

A reinforced concrete beam section is said to be under-reinforced when:

  1. the steel reaches its yield stress before the concrete reaches its crushing strain Correct answer.
  2. the section contains no compression reinforcement
  3. the steel and concrete reach their limits simultaneously
  4. the concrete crushes before the steel yields

Explanation

In an under-reinforced section the steel yields first, giving a gradual and ductile failure with visible deflection and cracking. Balanced sections reach both limits simultaneously, and over-reinforced sections fail by sudden concrete crushing. Ductile behaviour is why codes favour under-reinforced design.

Question 25Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) Examination

In an induction motor, the slip is defined as:

  1. (synchronous speed − rotor speed) divided by synchronous speed Correct answer.
  2. synchronous speed divided by rotor speed
  3. rotor speed divided by synchronous speed
  4. (rotor speed − synchronous speed) divided by rotor speed

Explanation

Slip is the fractional difference between the rotating magnetic field speed and the actual rotor speed. It is expressed as (Ns − N)/Ns and is usually given as a percentage. At standstill the slip is one, and at synchronous speed it is zero.

Question 26Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 14
  3. Article 17 Correct answer.
  4. Article 15

Explanation

Article 17 of the Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, and enforcement of any disability arising from it is a punishable offence under law. It appears in the chapter on Fundamental Rights and is one of the few rights that operates directly against private individuals as well as the State.

Question 27Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

The Battle of Plassey was fought in which year?

  1. 1857
  2. 1764
  3. 1757 Correct answer.
  4. 1761

Explanation

The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 between the forces of the East India Company under Robert Clive and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. The Company's victory established its political power in Bengal and is conventionally treated as a starting point of British territorial rule in India.

Question 28Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which of the following is the SI unit of electric current?

  1. Volt
  2. Ohm
  3. Coulomb
  4. Ampere Correct answer.

Explanation

The ampere is the SI base unit of electric current, defined by the fixed numerical value of the elementary charge. Current measures the rate of flow of charge, so it is a base quantity rather than one derived from other units.

Question 29Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

A shopkeeper marks an article at Rs. 800 and allows a discount of 15% on the marked price. What is the selling price?

  1. Rs. 700
  2. Rs. 640
  3. Rs. 720
  4. Rs. 680 Correct answer.

Explanation

Discount is calculated on the marked price, so the reduction equals 15% of 800, which is 120. Subtracting this from the marked price gives 800 minus 120, that is, Rs. 680.

Question 30Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which vitamin deficiency causes the disease scurvy?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  4. Vitamin B12

Explanation

Scurvy results from a prolonged deficiency of vitamin C, also called ascorbic acid, which is needed for the synthesis of collagen. Its classic features include bleeding gums, easy bruising and poor wound healing, and it is prevented by fresh fruits and vegetables.

Question 31Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. Occurence
  2. Occurrence Correct answer.
  3. Occurrance
  4. Ocurrence

Explanation

The correct spelling is 'occurrence', formed by doubling the final consonant of 'occur' before adding the suffix -ence. Words ending in a stressed final syllable of the consonant-vowel-consonant pattern double that consonant before a vowel suffix.

Question 32Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which of the following is a prime number?

  1. 91
  2. 87
  3. 99
  4. 97 Correct answer.

Explanation

A prime number has exactly two factors, 1 and itself. The number 97 is not divisible by any prime up to its square root, so it has no factor other than 1 and 97.

Question 33Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which gas is most abundant in the Earth's atmosphere?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Argon
  3. Nitrogen Correct answer.
  4. Oxygen

Explanation

Nitrogen makes up roughly 78 per cent of the atmosphere by volume, far exceeding any other gas. Oxygen follows at about 21 per cent, while argon and carbon dioxide occur only in small fractions.

Question 34Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

A sum of Rs. 5000 is invested at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually. What is the amount after two years?

  1. Rs. 6000
  2. Rs. 5500
  3. Rs. 6050 Correct answer.
  4. Rs. 6100

Explanation

For annual compounding the amount equals the principal multiplied by the square of one plus the rate. Here 5000 multiplied by 1.1 gives 5500 after one year, and 5500 multiplied by 1.1 gives 6050 after two years.

Question 35Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

The Governor of a State is appointed by whom?

  1. The Chief Justice of India
  2. The President of India Correct answer.
  3. The Prime Minister of India
  4. The State Legislature

Explanation

Article 155 provides that the Governor of a State is appointed by the President, and Article 156 fixes the term at five years subject to pleasure. In practice the appointment is made on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.

Question 36Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

  1. Godavari
  2. Kaveri
  3. Krishna
  4. Narmada Correct answer.

Explanation

The Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley formed by faulting between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, which is why it lacks a large delta. Most other peninsular rivers flow eastwards across the plateau into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 37Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

A train 150 metres long crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is its speed in km per hour?

  1. 50
  2. 45
  3. 54
  4. 60 Correct answer.

Explanation

Crossing a pole means the train covers its own length, so the speed is 150 divided by 9 metres per second. Converting to kilometres per hour by multiplying by 18/5 gives 60 km/h.

Question 38Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to 'frugal'.

  1. Thrifty
  2. Economical
  3. Prudent
  4. Extravagant Correct answer.

Explanation

'Frugal' describes a person who is sparing with money or resources, so its antonym must describe wasteful spending. 'Extravagant' means spending excessively, which is the direct opposite of being frugal.

Question 39Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which part of the human brain regulates body temperature, hunger and thirst?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Hypothalamus Correct answer.

Explanation

The hypothalamus is the main integrating centre for homeostasis, controlling body temperature, hunger, thirst and the release of hormones from the pituitary. It lies below the thalamus at the base of the forebrain.

Question 40Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

The Rowlatt Act of 1919 is best described by which statement?

  1. It introduced separate electorates for Muslims
  2. It transferred education to Indian control
  3. It allowed detention without trial for a specified period Correct answer.
  4. It abolished the zamindari system

Explanation

The Rowlatt Act empowered the government to arrest and detain persons suspected of sedition without trial, and it was passed despite unanimous Indian opposition in the Imperial Legislative Council. The widespread protests against it, culminating at Jallianwala Bagh, marked a turning point in the national movement.

Question 41Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

If the ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 96, what is the larger number?

  1. 48
  2. 36
  3. 60 Correct answer.
  4. 72

Explanation

Let the numbers be 3x and 5x, so their sum 8x equals 96 and x equals 12. The larger number is therefore 5 multiplied by 12, that is, 60.

Question 42Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which of the following is an input device?

  1. Scanner Correct answer.
  2. Monitor
  3. Plotter
  4. Speaker

Explanation

An input device sends data into a computer for processing, and a scanner converts printed images or text into digital form for that purpose. Plotters, monitors and speakers all present output produced by the system.

Question 43Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission?

  1. Article 356
  2. Article 324
  3. Article 280 Correct answer.
  4. Article 263

Explanation

Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States. It also advises on grants-in-aid and other fiscal matters referred to it.

Question 44Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

A sum doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times itself at the same rate?

  1. 20 years
  2. 24 years Correct answer.
  3. 16 years
  4. 32 years

Explanation

Doubling under simple interest means the interest earned in 8 years equals the principal, so the annual rate is 12.5 per cent. To become four times the principal, the total interest must be three times the principal, which takes 3 multiplied by 8, that is, 24 years.

Question 45Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Choose the correct passive form of: 'The committee has approved the proposal.'

  1. The proposal is being approved by the committee.
  2. The proposal has been approved by the committee. Correct answer.
  3. The proposal has approved by the committee.
  4. The proposal was approved by the committee.

Explanation

The active sentence uses the present perfect tense, so the passive must use the present perfect of 'be' followed by the past participle: 'has been approved'. The object 'the proposal' becomes the subject of the passive sentence.

Question 46Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas released in large quantities by paddy fields and livestock?

  1. Ozone
  2. Sulphur dioxide
  3. Methane Correct answer.
  4. Nitrogen

Explanation

Methane is produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in waterlogged paddy fields and by enteric fermentation in ruminant livestock. It is a potent greenhouse gas, trapping far more heat per molecule than carbon dioxide over a short horizon.

Question 47Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

A can complete a work in 12 days and B in 18 days. Working together, in how many days will they finish it?

  1. 9 days
  2. 7.5 days
  3. 7.2 days Correct answer.
  4. 6 days

Explanation

A does 1/12 of the work per day and B does 1/18, so together they do 1/12 plus 1/18, which equals 5/36 of the work daily. The time taken is the reciprocal, 36/5, that is, 7.2 days.

Question 48Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Which of the following pairs correctly matches a classical dance form with its State of origin?

  1. Kuchipudi - Odisha
  2. Odissi - Andhra Pradesh
  3. Sattriya - Assam Correct answer.
  4. Kathakali - Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Sattriya originated in the Vaishnava monasteries of Assam and was codified by Srimanta Sankardeva, so the pairing with Assam is correct. The other classical forms are each associated with different States, which makes the remaining pairs mismatched.

Question 49Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

A boat covers 24 km downstream and returns upstream in a total of 6 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/h, what is the speed of the boat in still water?

  1. 6 km/h
  2. 10 km/h
  3. 8 km/h Correct answer.
  4. 12 km/h

Explanation

Let the still-water speed be b, so downstream speed is b+2 and upstream speed is b-2. The equation 24/(b+2) plus 24/(b-2) equals 6 simplifies to b squared minus 8b equals 0, giving b equal to 8 km/h since speed cannot be zero.

Question 50Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

Read the sentence and identify the part that contains an error: 'Neither the manager (1) nor his assistants (2) was present (3) at the meeting (4).'

  1. Part 4
  2. Part 3 Correct answer.
  3. Part 1
  4. Part 2

Explanation

When two subjects are joined by 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. The nearer subject here is 'assistants', which is plural, so the verb should be 'were present' rather than 'was present'.