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NHRA Dentist Exam study materials
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NHRA Dentist Exam practice questions

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Question 1Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which term describes a white patch on the oral mucosa that cannot be rubbed off and cannot be attributed clinically or pathologically to any other defined disease?

  1. Lichen planus
  2. Leukoplakia Correct answer.
  3. Candidiasis
  4. Erythroplakia

Explanation

Leukoplakia is by definition a predominantly white lesion of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized as any other definable lesion; it is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion requiring biopsy to rule out dysplasia or malignancy.

Question 2Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A patient reports recurrent episodes of painful oral ulcers that heal without scarring and are preceded by a tingling prodrome on the lip. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Herpes labialis Correct answer.
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
  4. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

Explanation

A prodrome of tingling followed by clustered vesicles that rupture into crusted ulcers on the vermilion border is the classic presentation of herpes labialis caused by reactivation of herpes simplex virus. Lesions heal without scarring and recur at the same site.

Question 3Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which condition is characterized by bilateral white striae on the buccal mucosa with a lace-like pattern?

  1. Oral lichen planus Correct answer.
  2. Leukoedema
  3. Frictional keratosis
  4. Linea alba

Explanation

Oral lichen planus classically shows bilateral, symmetric white reticular striae (Wickham striae) on the buccal mucosa. The bilateral symmetry and lace-like pattern distinguish it from localized reactive keratoses.

Question 4Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which organism is most commonly implicated in angular cheilitis in a patient with reduced vertical dimension and lip fold pooling of saliva?

  1. Streptococcus mutans
  2. Candida albicans with Staphylococcus aureus Correct answer.
  3. Porphyromonas gingivalis
  4. Human papillomavirus

Explanation

Angular cheilitis is typically a mixed infection in which Candida albicans and Staphylococcus aureus colonize the moist, macerated commissures created by pooled saliva and loss of vertical dimension. Treatment addresses both the infection and the underlying predisposing factor.

Question 5Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A 55-year-old tobacco user has a painless, indurated ulcer with rolled, everted borders on the lateral tongue that has persisted for eight weeks. Which is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Perform an incisional biopsy for histopathologic examination Correct answer.
  2. Prescribe topical corticosteroid and review in one month
  3. Reassure the patient and observe
  4. Prescribe an antifungal mouth rinse

Explanation

A persistent indurated ulcer with rolled borders in a tobacco user is highly suspicious for squamous cell carcinoma, and biopsy is required for definitive diagnosis. Delay risks progression and worse prognosis.

Question 6Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which clinical finding most strongly suggests oral candidiasis rather than leukoplakia?

  1. The white plaque wipes off leaving an erythematous base Correct answer.
  2. The lesion is surrounded by a red halo
  3. The lesion has a corrugated surface
  4. The lesion is confined to the lateral tongue

Explanation

Pseudomembranous candidiasis forms white plaques that can be wiped away, leaving an erythematous or bleeding base, which distinguishes it from true keratotic lesions. A KOH preparation or culture can confirm the presence of hyphae.

Question 7Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which medication class is most frequently associated with gingival overgrowth?

  1. Proton pump inhibitors
  2. Beta-adrenergic blockers
  3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  4. Calcium channel blockers Correct answer.

Explanation

Calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine and amlodipine commonly cause gingival enlargement, particularly in the presence of plaque-induced inflammation. Phenytoin and cyclosporine are other well-known culprits.

Question 8Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A patient on warfarin requires an extraction and has an INR of 3.8. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Give aspirin preoperatively
  2. Double the warfarin dose before the procedure
  3. Consult the prescribing physician before proceeding Correct answer.
  4. Proceed with extraction without modification

Explanation

An INR of 3.8 exceeds the usual threshold for safe minor oral surgery, so the prescriber should be consulted to adjust anticoagulation rather than proceeding or altering the drug independently. Abrupt self-directed changes risk thromboembolism or bleeding.

Question 9Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which feature distinguishes a mucocele from a fibroma on the lower lip?

  1. Firm consistency and broad base
  2. History of rapid fluctuation in size with clear fluid Correct answer.
  3. Attachment to underlying muscle
  4. Presence of a central pore

Explanation

A mucocele results from retention or extravasation of saliva and characteristically fluctuates in size and may rupture and drain clear fluid. A fibroma is a firm, slowly growing reactive nodule of connective tissue.

Question 10Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which is the most common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma in the mouth?

  1. Lateral border of the tongue Correct answer.
  2. Hard palate
  3. Gingiva
  4. Buccal mucosa

Explanation

The lateral and ventral borders of the tongue are the most frequent intraoral sites for squamous cell carcinoma, partly because of pooling of carcinogens in the floor of the mouth and tongue. Any persistent ulcer at this site warrants biopsy.

Question 11Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A patient reports a burning sensation in the mouth with no visible mucosal lesions and a normal diet. Which condition should be considered when all organic causes are excluded?

  1. Geographic tongue
  2. Burning mouth syndrome Correct answer.
  3. Oral lichen planus
  4. Erythema migrans

Explanation

Burning mouth syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion defined by intraoral burning without clinically evident mucosal disease and without identifiable systemic or local cause. It is often associated with altered taste and psychological factors.

Question 12Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of a periapical cyst?

  1. Well-defined radiolucency at the apex of a nonvital tooth Correct answer.
  2. Sunburst periosteal reaction
  3. Ground-glass bone pattern
  4. Diffuse radiolucency with ill-defined borders

Explanation

A periapical cyst appears as a well-circumscribed radiolucency at the apex of a nonvital tooth, lined by epithelium and often surrounded by a sclerotic border. It is the most common odontogenic cyst.

Question 13Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which condition is suggested by a history of recurrent unilateral facial pain triggered by chewing and lasting seconds, with a trigger zone on the cheek?

  1. Temporomandibular disorder
  2. Cluster headache
  3. Trigeminal neuralgia Correct answer.
  4. Atypical odontalgia

Explanation

Trigeminal neuralgia causes brief, lancinating, electric shock-like pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or cold air. The paroxysmal nature and trigger zone are characteristic.

Question 14Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which laboratory test is most useful for confirming a diagnosis of primary Sjögren syndrome in a patient with dry eyes and dry mouth?

  1. Complete blood count
  2. Serum anti-SSA/anti-SSB antibodies Correct answer.
  3. Serum amylase
  4. Serum calcium

Explanation

Anti-SSA (Ro) and anti-SSB (La) antibodies support the diagnosis of Sjögren syndrome in a patient with sicca symptoms, along with Schirmer testing, sialometry, and minor salivary gland biopsy. These autoantibodies are part of the classification criteria.

Question 15Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A patient with a history of smoking presents with a firm, nontender submandibular mass that has grown slowly. Which diagnosis should be considered first?

  1. Squamous cell carcinoma of the submandibular gland
  2. Pleomorphic adenoma Correct answer.
  3. Sialolithiasis
  4. Mumps

Explanation

Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign salivary gland tumor and typically presents as a slow-growing, painless, firm mass, most often in the parotid but also in the submandibular gland. Diagnostic workup includes imaging and fine-needle aspiration.

Question 16Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which finding is characteristic of erythema multiforme?

  1. Vesicles in a dermatomal distribution
  2. White reticular striae
  3. Diffuse gingival desquamation
  4. Target lesions with concentric rings Correct answer.

Explanation

Erythema multiforme is characterized by target or iris lesions with concentric color rings, often triggered by infection such as herpes simplex. Oral involvement may include hemorrhagic crusts on the lips and erosions.

Question 17Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with recurrent aphthous ulcers and no systemic disease?

  1. Surgical excision
  2. Antiviral therapy
  3. Systemic antibiotics
  4. Topical corticosteroid and symptomatic care Correct answer.

Explanation

Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is managed with topical corticosteroids to reduce pain and duration, along with avoidance of triggers and symptomatic care. Systemic therapy is reserved for severe or refractory cases.

Question 18Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A patient with diabetes reports a dry mouth and multiple new carious lesions. Which management approach is most appropriate?

  1. Recommend sugar-free gum and topical fluoride with glycemic control Correct answer.
  2. Increase dietary sugar intake
  3. Prescribe antibiotics
  4. Discontinue all medications

Explanation

Xerostomia from diabetes and polypharmacy increases caries risk, so management includes salivary stimulation, topical fluoride, dietary counseling, and improved glycemic control. Addressing the underlying cause reduces further demineralization.

Question 19Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which mucosal lesion is most strongly associated with the use of smokeless tobacco?

  1. Tobacco pouch keratosis Correct answer.
  2. Median rhomboid glossitis
  3. Hairy tongue
  4. Nicotinic stomatitis

Explanation

Tobacco pouch keratosis is a white, wrinkled keratotic change at the site where smokeless tobacco is held, and it carries an increased risk of malignant transformation. Cessation usually leads to regression.

Question 20Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which autoantibody is most specific for pemphigus vulgaris?

  1. Anti-desmoglein 3 Correct answer.
  2. Anti-BP180
  3. Anti-laminin 332
  4. Anti-desmoglein 1 only

Explanation

Pemphigus vulgaris is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3, leading to intraepithelial acantholysis and suprabasal blisters. Anti-desmoglein 1 is more associated with pemphigus foliaceus.

Question 21Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

A patient presents with a sudden inability to close one eye and drooping of the mouth on one side, with no limb weakness. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Trigeminal neuralgia
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Bell palsy Correct answer.
  4. Stroke

Explanation

Bell palsy is an acute idiopathic peripheral facial nerve palsy causing unilateral facial weakness, inability to close the eye, and loss of nasolabial fold, without limb involvement. Eye protection is important to prevent corneal injury.

Question 22Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which feature best differentiates a dentigerous cyst from an odontogenic keratocyst?

  1. Presence of keratinized epithelium
  2. Attachment to the cementoenamel junction of an unerupted tooth Correct answer.
  3. Multilocular radiolucency
  4. High recurrence rate

Explanation

A dentigerous cyst encloses the crown of an unerupted tooth and attaches at the cementoenamel junction, producing a well-defined radiolucency around the crown. This anatomic relationship is the key distinguishing feature.

Question 23Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which condition is most likely when a patient reports a persistent dry mouth and has bilateral swelling of the parotid glands with a history of sarcoidosis?

  1. Sialadenosis
  2. Heerfordt syndrome Correct answer.
  3. Pleomorphic adenoma
  4. Mikulicz disease

Explanation

Heerfordt syndrome is a manifestation of sarcoidosis consisting of parotid enlargement, facial palsy, uveitis, and fever. Recognizing it links the systemic granulomatous disease to the salivary findings.

Question 24Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology, and Oral Diagnosis

Which oral finding is most characteristic of secondary syphilis?

  1. Gumma
  2. Chancre
  3. Rhagades
  4. Mucous patches Correct answer.

Explanation

Secondary syphilis presents with mucous patches, which are painless, grayish-white plaques on the oral mucosa, along with a rash and lymphadenopathy. The primary chancre and tertiary gumma occur at other stages.

Question 25Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which dental material is most commonly used as a direct esthetic restoration for anterior teeth because it bonds micromechanically to etched enamel?

  1. Composite resin Correct answer.
  2. Zinc phosphate cement
  3. Glass ionomer cement
  4. Amalgam

Explanation

Composite resin bonds to acid-etched enamel through micromechanical interlocking after the enamel is conditioned, usually with phosphoric acid. Its shade range and polishability make it the standard direct esthetic material for anterior restorations.

Question 26Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

What is the primary function of the smear layer in endodontic treatment?

  1. It is a debris layer that must be removed for disinfectants to reach dentinal tubules Correct answer.
  2. It seals the canal against bacterial leakage
  3. It provides a substrate for sealer adhesion
  4. It prevents irrigant extrusion into the periapical tissues

Explanation

Instrumentation creates a smear layer of organic and inorganic debris that occludes dentinal tubules and can harbor bacteria. Removing it with chelating agents and irrigants allows disinfecting solutions to penetrate the tubules.

Question 27Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of a chronic periapical lesion of endodontic origin?

  1. A diffuse radiopacity at the apex
  2. An intact lamina dura with normal apex
  3. A well-defined radiolucency at the apex Correct answer.
  4. A widened periodontal ligament space only

Explanation

Chronic apical periodontitis typically presents as a well-defined radiolucency at the apex, reflecting bone resorption from persistent inflammation. Early disease may show only widening of the periodontal ligament space, but an established lesion appears as a distinct radiolucent area.

Question 28Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

What is the working length in endodontic treatment?

  1. The total length of the root as measured on a radiograph
  2. The distance from the incisal edge to the radiographic apex
  3. The distance from a coronal reference point to the apical constriction Correct answer.
  4. The length of the master gutta-percha cone

Explanation

Working length is the distance from a stable coronal reference point to the apical constriction, where instrumentation and obturation should terminate. This landmark is typically 0.5 to 1 mm short of the radiographic apex.

Question 29Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which bur is best suited for removing carious dentin while preserving sound dentin during cavity preparation?

  1. A diamond fissure bur
  2. A round steel bur used at low speed Correct answer.
  3. A tapered fissure carbide bur
  4. A flame-shaped finishing bur

Explanation

A round steel bur at low speed allows controlled excavation of soft carious dentin while leaving firm, sound dentin intact. High-speed cutting instruments remove tissue indiscriminately and risk unnecessary loss of sound structure.

Question 30Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which irrigant is most commonly used during root canal treatment for its antimicrobial and tissue-dissolving properties?

  1. Sodium hypochlorite Correct answer.
  2. Saline
  3. Chlorhexidine gluconate
  4. Hydrogen peroxide

Explanation

Sodium hypochlorite is the primary endodontic irrigant because it dissolves necrotic tissue and kills a broad range of microorganisms. Typical concentrations range from about 0.5% to 5.25%, with higher concentrations increasing tissue dissolution but also cytotoxicity.

Question 31Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which property of glass ionomer cement makes it useful in pediatric restorative dentistry?

  1. High flexural strength
  2. High wear resistance
  3. Complete polymerization on command
  4. Fluoride release Correct answer.

Explanation

Glass ionomer cement releases fluoride over time, which can help inhibit secondary caries adjacent to restorations. This property, along with chemical adhesion to tooth structure, supports its use in selected pediatric restorations.

Question 32Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

What is the purpose of etching enamel with phosphoric acid before placing a composite restoration?

  1. To create microporosity for resin penetration Correct answer.
  2. To increase enamel hardness
  3. To remove the smear layer from dentin
  4. To sterilize the enamel surface

Explanation

Phosphoric acid etching removes surface mineral and creates microporosities in enamel. Resin infiltrates these pores and forms resin tags after polymerization, producing micromechanical retention.

Question 33Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

A patient reports sharp pain that lingers several seconds after a cold stimulus is removed from a molar with a deep carious lesion. Which pulpal diagnosis is most consistent with this finding?

  1. Pulpal necrosis
  2. Reversible pulpitis
  3. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis Correct answer.
  4. Normal pulp

Explanation

Pain that persists after the stimulus is removed suggests that the pulp inflammation has become irreversible. Reversible pulpitis typically produces brief pain that resolves quickly once the stimulus is gone.

Question 34Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

During access preparation for a maxillary first molar, which canal is often difficult to locate because it lies under the mesiobuccal cusp and may have a second canal?

  1. Palatal canal
  2. Distolingual canal
  3. Distobuccal canal
  4. Mesiobuccal canal Correct answer.

Explanation

The mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar frequently contains two canals, MB1 and MB2, and the second canal is easily missed. Careful troughing under magnification helps locate the MB2 orifice.

Question 35Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which factor most strongly influences the bond strength of a dentin adhesive to dentin?

  1. The shade of the composite resin
  2. The thickness of the remaining enamel
  3. The degree of dentin moisture control and hybridization Correct answer.
  4. The type of matrix band used

Explanation

Dentin bonding depends on forming a hybrid layer in which resin infiltrates demineralized collagen. Excess or insufficient moisture disrupts this hybridization and reduces bond strength, so moisture control is critical.

Question 36Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

A rubber dam is placed for endodontic treatment. Which benefit is most directly related to infection control?

  1. Isolation of the tooth from oral fluids and microorganisms Correct answer.
  2. Reduction of patient gag reflex
  3. Faster access to the pulp chamber
  4. Improved visibility of the operating field

Explanation

A rubber dam isolates the tooth from saliva and oral bacteria, protecting the canal from contamination during treatment. It also protects the patient from irrigant and instrument aspiration.

Question 37Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which statement best describes the concept of minimal intervention dentistry in restorative care?

  1. Replacing all existing restorations at each recall
  2. Removing all questionable dentin to ensure a sterile cavity
  3. Preserving maximum sound tooth structure while controlling disease Correct answer.
  4. Using only amalgam for posterior restorations

Explanation

Minimal intervention dentistry emphasizes disease prevention and preservation of sound tissue, removing only irreversibly infected dentin. This approach extends restoration longevity and reduces repeated intervention.

Question 38Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

A patient has a fractured cusp on a mandibular molar with a large existing restoration. Which restoration is most appropriate when significant cuspal coverage is needed?

  1. Class I composite
  2. Class III composite
  3. Preventive resin restoration
  4. Indirect onlay or crown Correct answer.

Explanation

When a large portion of the cuspal structure is lost, indirect cuspal coverage such as an onlay or crown distributes occlusal forces and protects remaining tooth structure. Direct intracoronal restorations are inadequate for this amount of structural loss.

Question 39Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which technique best reduces the risk of instrument separation during root canal preparation?

  1. Reusing files beyond their recommended lifespan
  2. Skipping irrigation between file sizes
  3. Using a crown-down sequence with recapitulation and irrigation Correct answer.
  4. Applying excessive apical pressure with a single file

Explanation

A crown-down approach with recapitulation and frequent irrigation reduces torsional and cyclic stress on instruments. Reusing files beyond their lifespan increases the risk of fatigue failure.

Question 40Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which statement about the smear layer and sealer is most accurate?

  1. Removing the smear layer allows sealer to penetrate dentinal tubules Correct answer.
  2. Sealer bonds only to the smear layer
  3. The smear layer prevents all bacterial growth
  4. The smear layer improves sealer penetration into tubules

Explanation

Removing the smear layer opens dentinal tubules, allowing sealer to penetrate and improving the seal. A retained smear layer can block tubule openings and reduce sealer adaptation.

Question 41Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

A patient reports pain on biting that resolves quickly after pressure is removed from a tooth with a cracked cusp. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Irreversible pulpitis
  2. Pulpal necrosis
  3. Cracked tooth syndrome Correct answer.
  4. Apical abscess

Explanation

Cracked tooth syndrome typically produces sharp pain on biting that resolves quickly when pressure is released, because the crack opens and closes under load. The pulp may remain vital in early stages.

Question 42Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which factor most affects the success of a direct pulp cap?

  1. The shade of the restorative material
  2. The size of the exposure and control of hemorrhage Correct answer.
  3. The patient's age alone
  4. The type of matrix band used

Explanation

Direct pulp capping succeeds best when the exposure is small, hemorrhage is controlled, and the pulp is free of contamination. Larger exposures and persistent bleeding reduce the likelihood of pulpal healing.

Question 43Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which property of amalgam explains its continued use in some posterior restorations despite esthetic limitations?

  1. Superior esthetics
  2. Chemical bonding to enamel
  3. High fluoride release
  4. Excellent long-term durability and low technique sensitivity Correct answer.

Explanation

Amalgam has a long record of durability in posterior teeth and is relatively forgiving of moisture and technique. These properties support its continued use in selected situations despite poor esthetics and lack of bonding.

Question 44Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which factor most increases the risk of vertical root fracture in an endodontically treated tooth?

  1. Loss of coronal tooth structure and excessive canal enlargement Correct answer.
  2. Use of a rubber dam during treatment
  3. Placement of a temporary restoration
  4. Use of a small apical file size

Explanation

Removal of coronal structure and excessive dentin removal during canal enlargement weaken the root and increase fracture risk. Post space preparation and heavy occlusal loading further contribute.

Question 45Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which irrigant activation method is intended to improve penetration of sodium hypochlorite into complex canal anatomy?

  1. Static needle irrigation alone
  2. Dry canal placement
  3. Use of a paper point
  4. Passive ultrasonic activation Correct answer.

Explanation

Passive ultrasonic activation uses acoustic streaming and cavitation to move irrigant into fins, isthmuses, and lateral canals. It improves tissue dissolution and disinfection compared with static needle irrigation.

Question 46Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

A patient has a necrotic pulp with a periapical radiolucency and no swelling. Which initial treatment is most appropriate?

  1. Immediate extraction
  2. Pulpotomy only
  3. Topical fluoride application
  4. Root canal treatment with drainage if needed Correct answer.

Explanation

A necrotic pulp with a periapical lesion requires root canal treatment to remove the infected tissue and allow healing. Drainage is added if an abscess with fluctuance is present.

Question 47Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which statement about the hydraulic calcium silicate cements used in endodontics is most accurate?

  1. They do not induce hard tissue formation
  2. They require a completely dry canal to set
  3. They are contraindicated for perforation repair
  4. They set in the presence of moisture and release calcium hydroxide Correct answer.

Explanation

Hydraulic calcium silicate cements set in a moist environment and release calcium hydroxide as they hydrate. This supports their use in perforation repair, apexification, and pulp capping.

Question 48Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which factor most limits the effectiveness of a single-cone obturation technique in an oval canal?

  1. The cone cannot adapt to uninstrumented recesses Correct answer.
  2. The sealer sets too quickly
  3. The canal is too dry
  4. The gutta-percha is too radiopaque

Explanation

In oval canals, a single cone may not fill uninstrumented recesses, leaving voids and sealer-only areas. Warm vertical compaction or carrier-based techniques improve adaptation in these anatomies.

Question 49Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which factor most influences the decision between vital pulp therapy and root canal treatment in a mature permanent tooth with a deep carious lesion?

  1. The type of rubber dam clamp used
  2. The shade of the composite resin used
  3. The reversibility of pulpal inflammation and control of the exposure Correct answer.
  4. The patient's preference for a specific bur

Explanation

Vital pulp therapy is appropriate when the pulp inflammation is reversible and the exposure can be controlled and sealed. Irreversible inflammation or uncontrolled hemorrhage indicates a need for root canal treatment.

Question 50Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

Which dental material is most commonly used as a base or liner to protect the pulp beneath a metallic restoration because of its low thermal conductivity and ability to release fluoride?

  1. Composite resin
  2. Glass ionomer cement Correct answer.
  3. Amalgam alloy
  4. Zinc phosphate cement

Explanation

Glass ionomer cement is widely placed as a liner or base beneath restorations because it insulates against thermal change and leaches fluoride over time, which helps inhibit recurrent caries. It also bonds chemically to dentin and enamel, making it a useful protective layer under metallic restorations. These combined properties explain its common use in this role.