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ANAC Glider Pilot study materials
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ANAC Glider Pilot practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and Operational Regulations

Under the general ICAO framework reflected in national glider regulations, which document must a pilot be able to present on demand during a ramp inspection?

  1. The aircraft maintenance logbook only
  2. The pilot licence and a valid medical declaration where required Correct answer.
  3. The manufacturer's flight manual only
  4. The glider's certificate of airworthiness only

Explanation

Ramp inspections focus on the pilot's authority to fly, so the licence and any required medical documentation must be carried or produced. Aircraft documents such as registration and airworthiness certificates are also checked, but they do not replace the pilot's personal documents.

Question 2Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider pilot holds a licence but has not flown for several years. Which requirement most typically applies before acting as pilot-in-command again?

  1. Payment of a renewal fee only
  2. A new medical examination only
  3. A biennial flight review or proficiency check with an instructor Correct answer.
  4. A written examination set by the national aviation authority

Explanation

Most authorities require recent flight experience, verified through a flight review or proficiency check with a qualified instructor, before a pilot resumes command. The purpose is to confirm that handling skills and knowledge remain current after a long absence.

Question 3Air Law and Operational Regulations

In glider operations, what is the primary purpose of the pre-flight briefing given to a passenger before launch?

  1. To collect the passenger's licence number for the logbook
  2. To verify the passenger's aviation medical certificate
  3. To explain cockpit controls, harness use, emergency egress and expected flight profile Correct answer.
  4. To obtain the passenger's signature on the airworthiness certificate

Explanation

Passengers in gliders must understand how to use the harness, how to exit in an emergency, and what the flight will involve. This briefing reduces panic and injury risk during abnormal situations.

Question 4Air Law and Operational Regulations

Which of the following best describes the pilot-in-command's responsibility regarding the decision to launch a glider?

  1. The club duty instructor decides for all aircraft on the field
  2. The launch director's decision always overrides the pilot's judgment
  3. The winch operator alone decides whether the launch proceeds
  4. The pilot-in-command has final authority and may refuse a launch deemed unsafe Correct answer.

Explanation

Ultimate responsibility for the safety of the flight rests with the pilot-in-command, who may decline a launch even if ground crew consider conditions acceptable. Ground personnel control launch equipment, but they cannot compel a pilot to fly.

Question 5Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider is being flown in a competition. Which statement about right-of-way rules generally applies to all gliders regardless of the flight's purpose?

  1. A glider always has right-of-way over powered aircraft on approach
  2. A glider on the ground always has right-of-way over landing aircraft
  3. A glider overtaking another aircraft must keep clear, altering heading to the right Correct answer.
  4. A glider may pass directly over another glider in a thermal without restriction

Explanation

The overtaking aircraft, whatever its type, must keep out of the way of the aircraft being overtaken, normally by passing to the right. Competition status does not exempt a glider from this collision-avoidance rule.

Question 6Air Law and Operational Regulations

What is the standard meaning of a red light signal directed at a glider in flight from the ground?

  1. Aerodrome is closed, do not land
  2. Land immediately at the nearest suitable field
  3. Clear to land on the active runway
  4. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Correct answer.

Explanation

Under the international light-signal table, a steady red directed at an aircraft in flight means give way to other aircraft and continue circling. It is a sequencing instruction rather than an order to land.

Question 7Air Law and Operational Regulations

Which of the following is normally a condition for carrying a passenger in a two-seat glider flown by a newly licensed pilot?

  1. The flight must be conducted under instrument flight rules
  2. The pilot must hold the appropriate rating and meet any recent-experience requirement Correct answer.
  3. The glider must be insured for commercial passenger transport
  4. The passenger must hold at least a student pilot certificate

Explanation

Carrying passengers requires the pilot to hold the relevant licence and rating and to satisfy recency or experience conditions set by the authority. Passengers themselves need no aviation qualification.

Question 8Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider pilot plans a cross-country flight that will cross an international border. What is the most relevant regulatory consideration?

  1. A flight plan is never required for gliders
  2. Only the departure state's rules apply once airborne
  3. Gliders are exempt from border-crossing formalities
  4. Compliance with the entry, customs and air traffic requirements of both states Correct answer.

Explanation

Crossing a border brings the flight under the regulations of both the departing and receiving states, including customs, immigration and air traffic notification. A glider enjoys no general exemption from these formalities.

Question 9Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot arrives at a glider club and finds the aircraft's certificate of airworthiness has expired. What is the correct course of action?

  1. Fly only if the flight remains within gliding distance of the field
  2. Fly only with an instructor on board
  3. Fly after recording the expiry in the logbook
  4. Do not fly the glider until the certificate is renewed or the aircraft is otherwise legally permitted Correct answer.

Explanation

An aircraft without a valid airworthiness document may not be flown, regardless of the flight's duration or the crew on board. The certificate must be restored before operations resume.

Question 10Air Law and Operational Regulations

During a launch, the pilot notices the tow rope appears frayed at the weak link. What should the pilot do?

  1. Reduce the launch speed to lessen rope load
  2. Reject the launch and have the rope inspected or replaced before continuing Correct answer.
  3. Continue the launch and monitor the rope during the climb
  4. Note the defect after landing for later maintenance

Explanation

A damaged rope or weak link compromises the launch and may fail at a critical moment, so the launch should be refused until the equipment is checked. Safety-critical defects are resolved before flight, not logged afterwards.

Question 11Air Law and Operational Regulations

Two gliders are approaching the same airfield to land. One is at a lower altitude on final approach. Which aircraft normally has the right-of-way?

  1. The aircraft that radioed its position first
  2. The higher aircraft, because it has more time to manoeuvre
  3. The faster aircraft, to clear the circuit quickly
  4. The lower aircraft, which must not be cut in front of by the higher one Correct answer.

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching to land, the lower one has priority and the higher aircraft must give way, avoiding cutting in front. This prevents the higher aircraft from descending through the lower one's path.

Question 12Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider pilot intends to fly above 10,000 feet in a region where oxygen use rules apply. What is the typical regulatory expectation?

  1. Oxygen is required only for passengers, not the pilot
  2. Oxygen is only advisory and never regulated
  3. Oxygen is unnecessary in unpressurised gliders at any altitude
  4. Crew use supplemental oxygen when altitude and duration thresholds require it Correct answer.

Explanation

Aviation rules set altitude and time thresholds beyond which supplemental oxygen must be used to counter hypoxia. Unpressurised gliders are not exempt, and the pilot's own oxygen need is paramount.

Question 13Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot wishes to fly a glider at night. Which statement best reflects typical regulatory treatment?

  1. Night flying requires specific equipment, lighting and pilot qualification Correct answer.
  2. Night flying is permitted if the pilot carries a torch
  3. Night flying is allowed only in winter months
  4. Gliders may be flown at night without any additional requirement

Explanation

Operating at night generally demands aircraft lighting, instrument and equipment standards, and pilot night qualification. A torch alone does not satisfy these requirements.

Question 14Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot is offered a launch in conditions where the surface wind exceeds the club's stated crosswind limit for the launch method. What is the appropriate response?

  1. Launch if a more experienced pilot agrees to watch
  2. Launch and abort if the climb becomes difficult
  3. Launch anyway because gliders are less affected by crosswind
  4. Decline the launch because the operation exceeds the published limit Correct answer.

Explanation

Published crosswind limits exist to keep the launch within demonstrated safe conditions, and exceeding them is not justified by aircraft type or observers. The pilot should decline the launch.

Question 15Air Law and Operational Regulations

Which of the following documents is normally required to be carried on board, or kept available, for a private glider flight?

  1. Certificate of registration and certificate of airworthiness Correct answer.
  2. The previous owner's bill of sale
  3. The pilot's school report card
  4. The club's membership attendance register

Explanation

Registration and airworthiness certificates establish the aircraft's legal identity and fitness to fly and must be available during inspection. Personal or commercial paperwork unrelated to the flight is not required.

Question 16Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider pilot is planning to operate from a private field not designated as an aerodrome. What is the key regulatory consideration?

  1. The pilot must ensure the site is suitable and that permission and any local approvals are in place Correct answer.
  2. Only the landowner's verbal consent is ever required
  3. Private fields are automatically treated as licensed aerodromes
  4. No consideration is needed because gliders may land anywhere

Explanation

Operating away from a licensed aerodrome places responsibility on the pilot to confirm the site's suitability, obtain permission, and satisfy any local authorisation requirements. A private field is not automatically a licensed aerodrome.

Question 17Air Law and Operational Regulations

What does a flashing red light directed at an aircraft on the ground normally mean?

  1. Stop where you are
  2. Return to the starting point
  3. Clearance to take off
  4. Taxi clear of the landing area in use Correct answer.

Explanation

In the international light-signal table, a flashing red directed at an aircraft on the ground means taxi clear of the landing area in use. A steady red means stop.

Question 18Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot's medical declaration becomes invalid shortly before a planned flight. What should the pilot do?

  1. Fly only if accompanied by another licensed pilot
  2. Fly if the flight is shorter than one hour
  3. Fly if the pilot feels well on the day
  4. Do not act as pilot-in-command until a valid declaration is restored Correct answer.

Explanation

A valid medical declaration is a precondition for exercising the privileges of the licence. Feeling well does not substitute for the required documentation, and another pilot's presence does not cure the deficiency.

Question 19Air Law and Operational Regulations

Which statement best describes the requirement for a glider pilot to maintain a personal flying logbook?

  1. Only competition flights need to be logged
  2. A logbook is optional and only for personal interest
  3. Only flights carrying passengers need to be logged
  4. Flights must be recorded to evidence experience and recency Correct answer.

Explanation

The logbook is the evidentiary record of flight time and experience used to demonstrate recency and eligibility for ratings. It is a regulatory record, not a personal diary.

Question 20Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot is unsure whether a planned flight over a congested area complies with minimum-height rules. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Rely on the altimeter and remain above 500 feet everywhere
  2. Study the applicable minimum-height and congestion rules before flight and plan accordingly Correct answer.
  3. Assume gliders are exempt from minimum-height rules
  4. Ask a passenger to watch for obstacles during the flight

Explanation

Minimum-height rules vary with the type of area and the phase of flight, so the pilot must know and apply them during planning. A single blanket altitude or an assumption of exemption is unsafe and incorrect.

Question 21Air Law and Operational Regulations

A club operates a winch launch. Which regulatory principle governs the competence of the winch operator?

  1. The operator's competence is irrelevant because the pilot controls the launch
  2. The pilot may operate the winch remotely during the launch
  3. Any club member may operate the winch without training
  4. The operator must be trained and authorised for the launch method in use Correct answer.

Explanation

Ground crew performing safety-critical launch roles must be trained and authorised for that method, since their actions directly affect launch safety. The pilot's authority does not remove the need for a competent operator.

Question 22Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider pilot flying in a competition is asked by an official to alter the planned task to remain clear of controlled airspace. How should the pilot respond?

  1. Refuse, because competition tasks override airspace restrictions
  2. Comply only if the official provides written authority
  3. Ignore the request and fly the original task
  4. Comply, because airspace rules apply regardless of competition status Correct answer.

Explanation

Competition rules never override airspace regulation, and a task that would penetrate controlled airspace without clearance must be changed. Officials may adjust tasks precisely to keep competitors compliant.

Question 23Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot is planning a flight in which the glider will be operated above its maximum certificated mass by carrying water ballast. Which statement is correct?

  1. The flight is prohibited unless the aircraft's approved limits and any ballast conditions are met Correct answer.
  2. Maximum mass limits apply only to powered aircraft
  3. Water ballast may be carried freely because it can be jettisoned
  4. The pilot may exceed the limit if the launch is a winch launch

Explanation

Maximum mass is a certificated limitation, and ballast may only be carried within the approved envelope and any associated conditions. The ability to jettison ballast does not authorise exceeding the limit at launch.

Question 24Air Law and Operational Regulations

During a flight, a pilot realises the transponder, where fitted and required, has failed in controlled airspace. What is the most appropriate regulatory response?

  1. Continue the flight without informing anyone
  2. Descend immediately without communication
  3. Switch off all radios to avoid confusion
  4. Notify air traffic control as required and follow their instructions or the applicable procedures Correct answer.

Explanation

Equipment failures affecting airspace access must be reported so that air traffic control can manage separation and advise on procedures. Silence or unilateral action undermines the safety system.

Question 25Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot is offered a flight in a glider whose annual inspection is due in two days, but the flight will occur after the due date. What is the correct interpretation?

  1. The glider may be flown if the pilot inspects it personally
  2. The glider may be flown for up to 30 days after the due date
  3. The glider may be flown if the flight is local only
  4. The glider may not be flown once the inspection becomes overdue Correct answer.

Explanation

Maintenance due dates are hard limits, and once an inspection is overdue the aircraft is no longer airworthy for flight. Local flight or self-inspection does not extend the deadline.

Question 26Air Law and Operational Regulations

Under the standard ICAO right-of-way rules, when two gliders are converging head-on at approximately the same altitude, what should each pilot do?

  1. Both turn to the left
  2. The lower glider maintains its heading
  3. The glider with the higher performance climbs away
  4. Both turn to the right Correct answer.

Explanation

The general right-of-way rule for converging aircraft at similar altitude is that each aircraft alters heading to the right, so the two pass clear of one another. This applies to gliders meeting head-on just as it does to other aircraft. Neither pilot gains priority from performance or altitude in this situation.

Question 27Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider is being launched by aerotow. Which statement best describes the pilot's responsibility for the decision to release from tow?

  1. Only the tug pilot may order a release
  2. Release requires prior clearance from the launch marshal
  3. Release is permitted only after the tug signals
  4. The pilot in command may release at any time considered necessary for safety Correct answer.

Explanation

The pilot in command of the glider holds final authority over the aircraft and may release whenever safety or the flight plan requires it, for example on encountering sink, a rope problem, or an emergency. The tug pilot cannot override that decision. No third party on the ground is required to authorise a release.

Question 28Air Law and Operational Regulations

A glider pilot intends to enter controlled airspace that requires prior clearance. Which action best reflects the regulatory requirement?

  1. Notify the club safety officer instead of air traffic control
  2. Enter first and request clearance once established inside
  3. Obtain the clearance before entering the airspace Correct answer.
  4. Rely on the transponder to alert the controller automatically

Explanation

Controlled airspace that is notified as requiring a clearance may only be entered after that clearance has been obtained from the responsible air traffic control unit. Requesting clearance after penetration defeats the purpose of the rule and is a serious infringement. Neither a transponder nor a club official can substitute for the clearance.

Question 29Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot is preparing to fly a glider whose maximum take-off mass has been increased above the placarded value by filling a tail ballast tank. What is the correct regulatory position?

  1. Ballast may be added freely because gliders are exempt from mass limits
  2. Only the club chief instructor can authorise exceeding the limit
  3. The glider must remain within its certificated limits unless an approved change exists Correct answer.
  4. Exceeding mass is acceptable provided the pilot holds a cross-country rating

Explanation

A glider must be operated within its certificated mass and centre-of-gravity limitations. Any increase in maximum mass requires an approved modification and updated documentation, not a pilot's own decision. Ballast may be carried only within the limits stated in the flight manual and placards.

Question 30Air Law and Operational Regulations

A pilot plans a flight and finds that the glider's third-party insurance has lapsed, although the aircraft is otherwise serviceable. What is the most appropriate regulatory response?

  1. Do not fly until valid insurance cover is in place Correct answer.
  2. Fly after recording the lapse in the aircraft logbook
  3. Fly anyway because insurance is only a commercial matter
  4. Fly only if the flight stays within gliding distance of the field

Explanation

Where national rules require third-party liability insurance as a condition of flight, operating without it is unlawful regardless of the aircraft's mechanical condition. Insurance is a regulatory precondition, not merely a commercial arrangement. Logging the lapse or limiting the route does not cure the deficiency.

Question 31Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

Which instrument in a glider indicates the rate of climb or descent without reference to the horizon?

  1. The altimeter
  2. The turn coordinator
  3. The variometer Correct answer.
  4. The airspeed indicator

Explanation

A variometer measures the rate of change of static pressure and displays it as climb or sink rate, usually in knots or metres per second. It is the primary instrument for locating and centring thermals. The other instruments show speed, height, or yaw behaviour rather than vertical velocity.

Question 32Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the purpose of the total energy compensator fitted to a glider variometer?

  1. To average the climb rate over a longer period
  2. To reduce the lag of the static pressure sensing
  3. To correct the reading for outside air temperature
  4. To remove the false climb reading caused by pulling up Correct answer.

Explanation

When the pilot pulls up, airspeed falls and the total energy of the glider is redistributed, which makes an uncompensated variometer show a spurious climb. A total energy probe compensates for this change so the instrument indicates energy gain or loss rather than a manoeuvre artefact. This lets the pilot judge lift honestly even while changing speed.

Question 33Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

In a glider, what does the yaw string taped to the outside of the canopy indicate?

  1. The load factor during a pull-up
  2. The amount of positive or negative flap deflection
  3. The direction of the relative airflow in yaw Correct answer.
  4. The angle of attack of the wing

Explanation

The yaw string aligns itself with the local airflow over the canopy, so it points along the relative wind. If the string is deflected to one side, the glider is slipping or skidding and the pilot should apply rudder to centralise it. It gives no information about angle of attack, flap setting, or load factor.

Question 34Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

A glider is equipped with a static port on each side of the fuselage connected together. Why is this arrangement used?

  1. To increase the sensitivity of the airspeed indicator
  2. To allow water ballast to drain from the fuselage
  3. To provide a backup path if one port becomes blocked
  4. To average pressure errors caused by sideslip and yaw Correct answer.

Explanation

When a glider yaws or slips, the pressure at a single side-mounted static port changes with the local airflow. Connecting ports on both sides averages these errors so the static pressure stays close to the true ambient value. This keeps the airspeed and altimeter readings more reliable during manoeuvring.

Question 35Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the function of the pitot tube on a glider?

  1. To measure the outside air temperature
  2. To sense the rate of change of pressure for the variometer
  3. To supply total pressure to the airspeed indicator Correct answer.
  4. To supply static pressure to the altimeter

Explanation

The pitot tube faces into the airflow and captures total pressure, which is the sum of static and dynamic pressure. The airspeed indicator compares this total pressure with static pressure to display speed. Static pressure for the altimeter and variometer is taken from separate static ports.

Question 36Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What happens to the indicated airspeed if the pitot tube becomes completely blocked while the static ports remain clear?

  1. It stays exactly constant at the speed at the moment of blockage
  2. It behaves like an altimeter, rising in a climb and falling in a descent Correct answer.
  3. It drops steadily to zero as the glider climbs
  4. It fluctuates rapidly with each control input

Explanation

With the pitot blocked, total pressure inside the instrument is trapped and constant. The static pressure continues to change with height, so the indicated speed changes as if the instrument were measuring altitude. In a climb the static pressure falls, the pressure difference grows, and the reading rises.

Question 37Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the purpose of the airbrakes, or dive brakes, on a glider?

  1. To increase the glide ratio for long cross-country flights
  2. To improve the climb rate in weak thermals
  3. To allow the pilot to steepen the approach and control the touchdown point Correct answer.
  4. To reduce the stall speed for safer landings

Explanation

Airbrakes deliberately spoil lift and add drag so the glide path becomes steeper. This lets the pilot lose excess height on final approach and land accurately without excessive sideslipping. They are normally retracted in thermals because they degrade climb performance.

Question 38Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

A pilot selects positive flap on a flaperon-equipped glider. What is the main effect during thermalling?

  1. Lower stall speed and a tighter thermal circle Correct answer.
  2. Lower drag at high speed
  3. Higher stall speed and a wider thermal circle
  4. A steeper glide path for landing

Explanation

Positive flap increases camber, which lowers the stall speed and lets the glider be flown more slowly. A slower thermalling speed reduces the bank angle and radius needed to stay in the thermal. Negative flap is used at high speed to reduce drag, and airbrakes steepen the approach.

Question 39Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

Why is water ballast carried in the wings of some high-performance gliders?

  1. To increase the wing loading and improve penetration at high speed Correct answer.
  2. To lower the wing loading for weak lift
  3. To cool the brakes during a long descent
  4. To move the centre of gravity rearward in flight

Explanation

Water ballast raises the all-up mass and therefore the wing loading, which improves the speed for best glide and reduces the effect of sink between thermals. It is jettisoned when lift weakens so the glider can again climb efficiently. Ballast is carried in wing tanks to keep the centre of gravity within limits.

Question 40Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the primary structural purpose of the spar in a glider wing?

  1. To carry the bending loads from lift toward the fuselage Correct answer.
  2. To house the aileron control rods
  3. To protect the wing from hail damage
  4. To provide a smooth aerodynamic surface

Explanation

The spar is the main load-bearing member of the wing and carries bending moments and shear from the lift distribution inboard to the fuselage attachment. The skin and ribs transfer aerodynamic loads into it. Fairings and leading-edge components do not carry the primary bending loads.

Question 41Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

Why are glider wings often fitted with a stall warning device such as a reed or a stick shaker?

  1. To indicate that the airbrakes are extended
  2. To warn that the glider is exceeding manoeuvring speed
  3. To signal that the altimeter has reached a set height
  4. To warn of an approaching stall at low airspeed Correct answer.

Explanation

A stall warning device senses the change in pressure distribution near the leading edge as the angle of attack increases. It sounds or shakes before the stall so the pilot can lower the nose. It does not indicate airbrake position, overspeed, or altitude.

Question 42Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

During a pre-flight inspection the pilot notices that the wing spar attachment pins are not fully seated. What is the correct action?

  1. Launch normally and check the pins after landing
  2. Tighten the pins in flight using the cockpit lever
  3. Refuse the launch and have the defect rectified Correct answer.
  4. Reduce the launch height to lower the risk

Explanation

Spar attachment pins are primary structural connections, and an unseated pin means the wing is not properly secured to the fuselage. The glider must not be flown until the defect is corrected and inspected. No in-flight action can remedy a structural attachment problem.

Question 43Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the function of the tow release mechanism on a glider?

  1. To adjust the tension of the tow rope during the launch
  2. To cut the tow rope in an emergency only
  3. To lock the tow rope until the glider reaches release altitude
  4. To allow the pilot to release the tow rope at any time Correct answer.

Explanation

The tow release must allow the pilot to free the glider from the rope at any moment during the launch or tow. It is operated by a cockpit control, usually a handle or a knob. The mechanism must work under load and is checked before every flight.

Question 44Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

A glider is fitted with a cable-operated tow release. During the pre-flight check the pilot finds the release handle moves stiffly but still operates. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Accept it because the release still functions
  2. Fly the launch and report the stiffness afterwards
  3. Have the mechanism lubricated and checked before flight Correct answer.
  4. Use a shorter tow rope to reduce the load

Explanation

A stiff release may indicate corrosion, a kinked cable, or a misaligned mechanism that could fail under the full load of a launch. The correct action is to have it serviced and functionally checked before flying. A release that works on the ground at low load is not proof that it will work under tow tension.

Question 45Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What does the term 'empty mass' mean in the glider's mass and balance documentation?

  1. The mass of the glider with full water ballast
  2. The mass of the glider without crew, ballast, or removable equipment Correct answer.
  3. The mass of the glider with the pilot but without ballast
  4. The maximum mass permitted for launch

Explanation

Empty mass is the mass of the glider in its basic configuration, excluding the pilot, parachute, ballast, and removable equipment. It is the starting point for calculating the all-up mass and centre of gravity. The maximum launch mass is a separate limitation.

Question 46Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

A pilot loads the glider so that the centre of gravity moves behind the aft limit. What is the likely consequence?

  1. A lower stalling speed with unchanged recovery behaviour
  2. Increased longitudinal stability and a stronger pitch-down tendency
  3. Reduced longitudinal stability and a risk of an unrecoverable stall or spin Correct answer.
  4. A higher stall speed with no change in handling

Explanation

Moving the centre of gravity aft reduces the restoring pitch moment, so the glider becomes less stable in pitch and may be reluctant to recover from a stall or spin. Handling becomes more sensitive and recovery less predictable. Loading must always keep the centre of gravity within the certified range.

Question 47Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

Which of these is a normal function of the glider's altimeter?

  1. Showing the rate of climb
  2. Showing the heading relative to magnetic north
  3. Showing height above a selected pressure datum Correct answer.
  4. Showing the glider's speed through the air

Explanation

The altimeter is a pressure instrument that converts static pressure into an indicated height above the datum set in its sub-scale. Pilots set the sub-scale to the appropriate pressure reference before flight. It does not measure speed, climb rate, or heading.

Question 48Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the purpose of the magnetic compass in a glider?

  1. To show the direction of the relative wind
  2. To indicate the glider's heading relative to magnetic north Correct answer.
  3. To measure the glider's rate of turn
  4. To indicate the glider's track over the ground

Explanation

The magnetic compass senses the earth's magnetic field and indicates the aircraft heading relative to magnetic north. It is subject to turning and acceleration errors during manoeuvres, so it is read in steady flight. Track over the ground requires a map, wind estimate, or navigation system.

Question 49Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

Why does a magnetic compass show a turn error during a turn in the northern hemisphere?

  1. Because the compass is affected by the glider's electrical system
  2. Because the compass card is affected by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field Correct answer.
  3. Because the compass is influenced by the glider's airspeed
  4. Because the compass is not compensated for altitude

Explanation

The compass card pivots about a point and is affected by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field, which tilts the card during a banked turn. This produces a false reading that leads or lags the actual turn. The error is most pronounced on headings near north and south.

Question 50Glider General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Instruments, and Equipment)

What is the purpose of the static pressure source in an airspeed indicator?

  1. To provide the total pressure that drives the needle
  2. To provide the reference pressure against which total pressure is compared Correct answer.
  3. To supply the instrument with electrical power
  4. To measure the outside air temperature

Explanation

The airspeed indicator compares total pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static source. The difference between them is dynamic pressure, which is converted into indicated speed. Without a correct static reference the speed reading would be wrong.