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CPNRE / REx-PN study materials
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CPNRE / REx-PN practice questions

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Question 1Coordinated Care

A practical nurse is assigning client care to a personal support worker. Which task is appropriate to delegate to the support worker?

  1. Performing the initial admission assessment
  2. Administering a scheduled oral analgesic
  3. Assisting a stable client with a morning bath Correct answer.
  4. Teaching a new diabetic client to self-inject insulin

Explanation

Delegation must match the worker's competence and the task's predictability. Assisting with hygiene for a stable client is a routine, low-risk activity within support worker scope, whereas assessment, medication administration, and client teaching require regulated nursing judgment.

Question 2Coordinated Care

Under the principle of client self-determination, what should the nurse do when a competent adult refuses a prescribed treatment?

  1. Report the client to the physician as non-compliant
  2. Obtain consent from the family instead
  3. Respect the refusal and document it clearly Correct answer.
  4. Persuade the client until consent is given

Explanation

A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse any treatment, even one the nurse believes is beneficial. The nurse's obligation is to ensure the client understands the consequences, then respect and document the decision.

Question 3Coordinated Care

Which action best demonstrates the nurse's role as client advocate during a care conference?

  1. Deciding the plan the team should follow
  2. Reporting the client's complaints to the family
  3. Presenting the client's stated preferences to the team Correct answer.
  4. Documenting only the physician's orders

Explanation

Advocacy means ensuring the client's voice and wishes are represented when decisions are made. Bringing the client's expressed preferences to the team protects autonomy and informs collaborative planning.

Question 4Coordinated Care

A nurse is preparing to give a handover report at shift change. Which information is most essential to include?

  1. The client's full medical history since birth
  2. The client's current condition and any recent changes Correct answer.
  3. Rumours about staffing levels
  4. A summary of the nurse's own shift experience

Explanation

Handover must transfer the information the next nurse needs to provide safe care. Current condition, recent changes, and pending priorities are the core content of an effective report.

Question 5Coordinated Care

What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate, timely documentation in the client record?

  1. To replace verbal communication with the team
  2. To protect the nurse from disciplinary action
  3. To satisfy the employer's billing requirements
  4. To provide a legal and clinical account of care delivered Correct answer.

Explanation

The health record is the legal and clinical account of the care provided and the client's response. Accurate documentation supports continuity, accountability, and evidence of professional practice.

Question 6Coordinated Care

A client's care plan states they must be turned every two hours. Which action shows the nurse is following the coordinated plan of care?

  1. Skipping turns when the unit is busy
  2. Delegating turning to an unregulated worker without instruction
  3. Turning the client and recording the time and position Correct answer.
  4. Turning the client only when they request it

Explanation

Following a plan of care means implementing the prescribed interventions and documenting them. Turning at the scheduled interval and recording position and time demonstrates adherence and accountability.

Question 7Coordinated Care

Which statement best describes the practical nurse's accountability within the interprofessional team?

  1. The nurse is accountable for the physician's orders
  2. The nurse is accountable only for delegated tasks
  3. The nurse is accountable for their own actions and decisions Correct answer.
  4. The nurse is accountable only when supervised

Explanation

Every regulated nurse is accountable for their own practice, decisions, and competence regardless of supervision. Accountability cannot be transferred to another team member.

Question 8Coordinated Care

A client asks to see their own health record. What is the most appropriate nursing response?

  1. Provide a verbal summary only
  2. Ask the family to request it instead
  3. Refuse because records belong to the facility
  4. Explain the process for accessing their record Correct answer.

Explanation

Clients generally have a legal right to access their personal health information. The nurse should explain the formal process for requesting and reviewing the record rather than refusing access.

Question 9Coordinated Care

A nurse is caring for four clients and must prioritize care. Which client should the nurse assess first?

  1. A client requesting a scheduled pain pill
  2. A client due for a routine dressing change
  3. A client reporting new shortness of breath Correct answer.
  4. A client asking for help to the bathroom

Explanation

New shortness of breath suggests a potentially life-threatening respiratory or cardiac change and takes priority. Scheduled medications, routine dressings, and toileting can safely wait while an airway or breathing concern is assessed.

Question 10Coordinated Care

During a shift, the nurse notices the unit is short-staffed. What is the most appropriate initial action?

  1. Leave the unit to find additional staff personally
  2. Report the staffing concern to the charge nurse Correct answer.
  3. Skip all non-urgent assessments for the shift
  4. Refuse to provide any care to clients

Explanation

Staffing concerns should be escalated through the appropriate chain, beginning with the charge nurse, so workload can be adjusted safely. Abandoning clients or unilaterally omitting assessments creates additional risk.

Question 11Coordinated Care

A client with limited English proficiency is being admitted. Which approach best supports informed consent?

  1. Rely on gestures and written English forms
  2. Use a qualified medical interpreter during the discussion Correct answer.
  3. Proceed without explanation to save time
  4. Ask a child relative to translate the consent

Explanation

Informed consent requires that the client understand the information in a language they comprehend. A qualified medical interpreter ensures accurate communication and protects the validity of consent.

Question 12Coordinated Care

The nurse suspects a colleague is impaired by alcohol at work. What is the priority action?

  1. Report the concern to the supervisor immediately Correct answer.
  2. Confront the colleague privately and take over all their clients
  3. Ignore the concern to avoid conflict
  4. Document the suspicion in the client record

Explanation

An impaired colleague poses an immediate risk to client safety and must be reported through the proper channel without delay. The supervisor is responsible for removing the worker from care and managing the situation.

Question 13Coordinated Care

Which task can a practical nurse appropriately delegate to an unregulated care provider?

  1. Deciding whether to withhold a medication
  2. Assessing a postoperative wound for infection
  3. Interpreting an abnormal laboratory result
  4. Measuring and recording a client's intake and output Correct answer.

Explanation

Delegation requires a task with predictable outcomes and minimal required judgment. Measuring and recording intake and output is a defined, observable activity suitable for an unregulated provider.

Question 14Coordinated Care

A client states they do not want their family informed about their diagnosis. How should the nurse respond?

  1. Inform the family but ask them to keep it secret
  2. Document the request but share details with the family anyway
  3. Respect the client's wish and clarify who may receive information Correct answer.
  4. Tell the family because they are next of kin

Explanation

Confidentiality belongs to the client, and competent adults decide who receives their health information. The nurse should honour the request and clarify any permitted contacts.

Question 15Coordinated Care

A nurse must resolve a conflict between two clients over a shared room television. Which approach reflects effective conflict resolution?

  1. Decide for them which channel to watch
  2. Move one client without explanation
  3. Facilitate a discussion to find an acceptable compromise Correct answer.
  4. Report both clients for disruptive behaviour

Explanation

Effective conflict resolution involves open communication and collaborative problem-solving that respects both parties. Facilitating compromise preserves dignity and reduces escalation.

Question 16Coordinated Care

What is the most appropriate action when a nurse receives a verbal order that seems unclear?

  1. Carry out the order as heard
  2. Wait until the next shift to verify
  3. Read back the order and clarify with the prescriber Correct answer.
  4. Ask another nurse to guess the intent

Explanation

Verbal orders carry a high risk of error and must be verified using read-back and clarification. Confirming the order with the prescriber protects client safety and ensures accuracy.

Question 17Coordinated Care

A nurse is coordinating discharge for a client who needs home oxygen. Which action best supports continuity of care?

  1. Ask the family to source equipment after discharge
  2. Give the client a pamphlet and discharge them
  3. Arrange equipment and home support before discharge Correct answer.
  4. Wait until the client is home to arrange equipment

Explanation

Continuity of care requires that necessary equipment and supports be in place before the client leaves. Coordinating resources beforehand prevents gaps that could endanger the client at home.

Question 18Coordinated Care

A practical nurse is asked to perform a procedure outside their scope of practice. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Ask an unregulated worker to do it instead
  2. Decline and inform the manager of the scope concern Correct answer.
  3. Perform the procedure to avoid delaying care
  4. Perform it only if no one else is available

Explanation

Nurses must practise within their legislated scope and competence. Declining and notifying the manager protects the client and allows appropriate reassignment of the procedure.

Question 19Coordinated Care

A client is being transferred to another unit. Which information is most important to communicate to the receiving nurse?

  1. The client's preferred television programs
  2. Current vital signs, treatments, and pending investigations Correct answer.
  3. The nurse's opinion of the client's personality
  4. A list of visitors who came last week

Explanation

Transfer reports must convey the clinical information the receiving team needs to continue safe care. Vital signs, active treatments, and pending tests directly affect ongoing management.

Question 20Coordinated Care

A client's condition deteriorates and the nurse cannot reach the attending physician. What is the priority action?

  1. Escalate to the charge nurse or rapid response team Correct answer.
  2. Ask the client to call their physician later
  3. Wait quietly until the physician responds
  4. Document the attempted call and continue routine tasks

Explanation

When a client is deteriorating and the primary physician is unavailable, the nurse must escalate through other channels such as the charge nurse or rapid response team. Timely escalation prevents harm.

Question 21Coordinated Care

Two nurses disagree about how to implement a wound care order. What is the best first step to resolve the disagreement?

  1. Each nurse follows their own preferred method
  2. Report the other nurse to the manager immediately
  3. Review the order and discuss the evidence together Correct answer.
  4. Ask the client which method they prefer

Explanation

Professional collaboration begins with clarifying the order and discussing the evidence base. This resolves most disagreements and ensures consistent, safe care before escalation is considered.

Question 22Coordinated Care

A nurse is assigning care for the shift. Which client should be assigned to the most experienced nurse?

  1. A client requesting help with menu choices
  2. A client with a new tracheostomy and frequent suctioning Correct answer.
  3. A client awaiting routine discharge teaching
  4. A stable client needing a daily bath

Explanation

Assignment should match client acuity and complexity with nurse competence. A new tracheostomy with frequent suctioning requires advanced skill and close monitoring.

Question 23Coordinated Care

During a busy shift, the nurse must decide which task to delegate to a new unregulated worker on their first day. Which task is safest to delegate?

  1. Transporting a stable client to the dining room by wheelchair Correct answer.
  2. Suctioning a client with a new tracheostomy
  3. Adjusting an IV infusion rate
  4. Assessing a client's chest pain

Explanation

Delegation to a novice worker must involve low-risk, predictable tasks with clear instructions. Transporting a stable client is appropriate, while suctioning, IV adjustments, and chest pain assessment require regulated skill.

Question 24Coordinated Care

A client lacks capacity and has no family present, but requires an urgent decision about treatment. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

  1. Ask any available visitor to sign consent
  2. Delay treatment until family is located
  3. Follow the facility's process for substitute decision-making Correct answer.
  4. Make the treatment decision independently

Explanation

When a client lacks capacity and no substitute decision-maker is present, the nurse must follow the legal and organizational process for urgent decision-making. This protects the client's rights and ensures treatment is authorized.

Question 25Coordinated Care

A nurse notices a pattern of missed care on the unit related to workload. What is the most appropriate professional response?

  1. Name individual nurses in the client record
  2. Document the pattern and raise it through quality improvement channels Correct answer.
  3. Discuss it only informally with colleagues
  4. Ignore it because it is a management issue

Explanation

Missed care is a system issue that should be addressed through formal quality improvement and reporting mechanisms. Documenting the pattern and escalating it supports system-level solutions and client safety.

Question 26Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a client. Which action best reflects the principle of surgical asepsis during the procedure?

  1. Wearing clean gloves and washing the perineum with soap and water before insertion
  2. Cleaning the meatus with sterile solution using sterile gloves and maintaining a sterile field Correct answer.
  3. Reusing the same sterile gloves to adjust the drainage bag after insertion
  4. Applying antiseptic to the catheter tip after it has touched the bed linens

Explanation

Surgical asepsis requires that sterile equipment contact only sterile surfaces, so the meatus is cleansed with sterile solution while sterile gloves and a sterile field are maintained. Any break in sterility, such as touching nonsterile linens, contaminates the equipment and requires replacement.

Question 27Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client with an active Clostridioides difficile infection. Which personal protective equipment is essential when entering the room?

  1. N95 respirator only
  2. Shoe covers only
  3. Gown and gloves Correct answer.
  4. Surgical mask only

Explanation

C. difficile is spread by contact with spores, so gown and gloves are required on room entry and hand hygiene with soap and water is preferred because alcohol does not reliably kill spores. Masks and respirators are not the primary barrier for contact transmission.

Question 28Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection. Which action reflects safe sharps handling?

  1. Recapping the needle using a one-handed scoop technique before disposal Correct answer.
  2. Bending the needle before placing it in the sharps container
  3. Placing the uncapped syringe on the bedside table until the injection is complete
  4. Recapping the needle with two hands while holding the cap steady

Explanation

The one-handed scoop technique allows recapping without bringing the hand into the path of the needle, reducing needlestick risk. Recapping with two hands, bending needles, and leaving uncapped devices unattended are all recognized causes of sharps injuries.

Question 29Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. Which statement about alcohol-based hand rub is accurate?

  1. It is preferred for routine hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled Correct answer.
  2. It requires a minimum of five minutes of rubbing to be effective
  3. It should be used instead of soap and water when hands are visibly soiled
  4. It is ineffective against most gram-positive organisms

Explanation

Alcohol-based hand rub is the preferred method for routine decontamination when hands are not visibly soiled because it is fast, effective, and less drying than soap and water. Soap and water are required when hands are visibly soiled or after contact with spore-forming organisms.

Question 30Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which precaution is correct?

  1. Airborne precautions with an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room Correct answer.
  2. Contact precautions with gown and gloves only
  3. Standard precautions with no additional room restrictions
  4. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask and a private room

Explanation

Tuberculosis is transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in air, so airborne precautions with a fit-tested N95 respirator and negative-pressure ventilation are required. Surgical masks and standard precautions alone do not protect against airborne transmission.

Question 31Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and repeatedly attempts to climb out of bed. Which intervention is the priority to prevent falls?

  1. Keep the bed in the lowest position with side rails up and the call bell within reach Correct answer.
  2. Apply physical restraints to all four extremities
  3. Leave the room dark and quiet to promote sleep
  4. Raise the bed to a high position for easier staff access

Explanation

Keeping the bed low, using side rails appropriately, and ensuring the call bell is accessible reduces the chance that a confused client will fall while attempting to exit the bed. Least restrictive measures are tried before restraints, which require a specific order and carry their own risks.

Question 32Safety and Infection Control

A nurse receives a needlestick injury from a contaminated hollow-bore needle. What is the first action the nurse should take?

  1. Wait to see whether symptoms develop before reporting
  2. Apply a tight tourniquet above the puncture site
  3. Wash the site with soap and water and report the exposure immediately Correct answer.
  4. Squeeze the wound firmly to express blood before washing

Explanation

Immediate washing with soap and water followed by prompt reporting allows timely postexposure evaluation and prophylaxis. Squeezing, tourniquets, and delaying report are not recommended and can delay essential treatment.

Question 33Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is required before starting the transfusion?

  1. Warm the blood in a microwave before infusion
  2. Begin the transfusion at the maximum rate to save time
  3. Verify the client identity and blood product with a second qualified staff member at the bedside Correct answer.
  4. Add medications to the blood bag to prevent reactions

Explanation

Bedside verification by two qualified staff of client identity and product compatibility is the critical safeguard against a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Rapid infusion, added medications, and improper warming all increase risk and violate transfusion standards.

Question 34Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which action is correct when transporting the client to radiology?

  1. Transport the client without a mask and without informing radiology staff
  2. Have the client wear an N95 respirator during transport
  3. Remove all precautions during transport to reduce client embarrassment
  4. Place a surgical mask on the client during transport and notify the receiving department Correct answer.

Explanation

When a client on droplet precautions must leave the room, a surgical mask on the client contains respiratory droplets and the receiving department should be notified so it can prepare. Standard transport does not require an N95 for the client.

Question 35Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is assessing a client who had a central venous catheter inserted two hours ago. Which finding requires immediate notification of the provider?

  1. A temperature of 37.2 degrees Celsius
  2. Mild tenderness at the insertion site
  3. Serous drainage on the dressing
  4. Sudden shortness of breath and decreased oxygen saturation Correct answer.

Explanation

Sudden dyspnea and falling oxygen saturation after central line insertion may indicate pneumothorax or air embolism and require urgent assessment and provider notification. Mild tenderness and small serous drainage are expected, and 37.2 degrees Celsius is within normal range.

Question 36Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action best reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

  1. Resting the drainage bag on the floor beside the bed
  2. Disconnecting the tubing to obtain urine samples daily
  3. Maintaining a closed drainage system with the bag below the level of the bladder Correct answer.
  4. Irrigating the catheter routinely every shift

Explanation

A closed system kept below bladder level prevents urine backflow and entry of organisms, which is the cornerstone of preventing catheter-associated infection. Routine irrigation and unnecessary disconnection introduce pathogens.

Question 37Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication via intravenous infusion. Which practice is most important for preventing a medication error?

  1. Programming the pump quickly without verifying the concentration
  2. Preparing the infusion in a dimly lit medication room
  3. Independent double-check of the dose calculation and pump settings by a second nurse Correct answer.
  4. Relying on memory for the usual dose range

Explanation

High-alert medications carry a high risk of serious harm, so an independent double-check of the calculation, concentration, and pump programming by a second qualified nurse is a key safeguard. Memory-based dosing and unverified pump settings increase error risk.

Question 38Safety and Infection Control

A nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Remove the client from immediate danger Correct answer.
  2. Activate the fire alarm
  3. Extinguish the fire with an extinguisher
  4. Close all doors on the unit

Explanation

Fire response follows the rescue, alarm, contain, and extinguish sequence, so rescuing anyone in immediate danger comes first. Alarm activation, containment, and extinguishing follow once the client is safe.

Question 39Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery and has a drain at the incision site. Which action reflects correct use of standard precautions?

  1. Reusing gloves between clients after rinsing them
  2. Handling the drain without gloves because the drainage is contained
  3. Wearing gloves only when the client is watching
  4. Wearing gloves when handling the drain and performing hand hygiene after glove removal Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard precautions require gloves when contact with blood, body fluids, or drainage is anticipated, and hand hygiene after glove removal prevents transmission. Gloves are single-use and are not a substitute for hand hygiene.

Question 40Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a client who has difficulty swallowing. Which action is safest?

  1. Crush the medication only if it is on the approved list and mix it with a small amount of soft food Correct answer.
  2. Dissolve enteric-coated tablets in juice before administration
  3. Place the whole tablet in the client's mouth and encourage a sip of water
  4. Crush all medications together and mix them in a full glass of water

Explanation

Only medications approved for crushing may be altered, and mixing with a small amount of soft food eases swallowing. Enteric-coated and extended-release forms must not be crushed because doing so can cause rapid release and harm.

Question 41Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which action is most important to maintain airway safety?

  1. Deflate the cuff every hour to prevent pressure
  2. Cover the stoma with a dry gauze pad at all times
  3. Suction the airway routinely every fifteen minutes regardless of need
  4. Keep suction equipment and a spare tracheostomy tube at the bedside Correct answer.

Explanation

A client with a new tracheostomy is at risk of tube obstruction or dislodgement, so suction equipment and a spare tube of the same size must be immediately available. Routine unneeded suctioning and covering the stoma interfere with airway assessment and breathing.

Question 42Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is teaching a client about home oxygen safety. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?

  1. I will smoke only when the oxygen is turned off
  2. I will use petroleum jelly on my nose to prevent dryness
  3. I will store the tank in a closet next to the furnace
  4. I will keep the oxygen tank away from open flames and heat sources Correct answer.

Explanation

Oxygen supports combustion, so tanks and tubing must be kept away from flames, heat, and spark sources. Petroleum products are flammable and should not be used near oxygen, and smoking is unsafe even when flow is off because oxygen remains in the environment.

Question 43Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is reviewing isolation signage for a client with a wound infected by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which precaution is appropriate?

  1. Airborne precautions with a negative-pressure room
  2. Contact precautions with gown and gloves for room entry Correct answer.
  3. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask within three feet
  4. No precautions because MRSA is not transmissible

Explanation

MRSA is transmitted mainly by direct and indirect contact, so contact precautions with gown and gloves on room entry are required. Airborne and droplet precautions do not match the transmission route of a wound infection.

Question 44Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes into the transfusion the client reports chills and flank pain, and the nurse notes dark urine. What is the priority action?

  1. Flush the tubing with the blood product to clear the line
  2. Slow the transfusion rate and reassess in thirty minutes
  3. Stop the transfusion and maintain intravenous access with normal saline Correct answer.
  4. Continue the transfusion and administer an antipyretic

Explanation

Fever, chills, flank pain, and dark urine suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, which requires immediately stopping the transfusion and keeping the vein open with saline. Continuing or merely slowing the infusion allows further hemolysis and worsening harm.

Question 45Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been placed on airborne precautions for suspected measles. Which action indicates a need for further teaching?

  1. The nurse keeps the door to the room closed
  2. The nurse ensures the room has negative-pressure airflow
  3. The nurse removes the N95 respirator inside the client's room before leaving Correct answer.
  4. The nurse performs hand hygiene after removing the respirator

Explanation

The respirator is contaminated on its exterior and must be removed after leaving the room and closing the door, followed by hand hygiene. Removing it inside the room and before exiting exposes the nurse to airborne organisms still present in the space.

Question 46Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous dose of insulin to a client. Which action best prevents a wrong-client medication error?

  1. Checking the medication label against the medication administration record in the medication room only
  2. Verifying the client's identity by asking the roommate
  3. Confirming identity by the client's stated room number
  4. Scanning the client's identification band and comparing it to the medication order at the bedside Correct answer.

Explanation

Using two client identifiers, such as scanning the identification band and matching it to the order at the bedside, confirms the right client immediately before administration. Relying on room numbers, roommates, or remote verification does not confirm the correct client at the point of care.

Question 47Safety and Infection Control

A nurse on a medical unit receives a client with suspected active shingles (herpes zoster) that is disseminated. Which precaution is required?

  1. No precautions if the lesions are covered
  2. Airborne and contact precautions Correct answer.
  3. Standard precautions only
  4. Droplet precautions only

Explanation

Disseminated herpes zoster is transmitted by both airborne droplet nuclei and contact with vesicle fluid, so airborne and contact precautions are both required. Standard or droplet precautions alone do not address both routes.

Question 48Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter who develops sudden chest pain, hypotension, and a rapid pulse after the catheter hub is disconnected. Which complication should the nurse suspect first?

  1. Catheter-related bloodstream infection
  2. Air embolism Correct answer.
  3. Localized phlebitis
  4. Infiltration of the surrounding tissue

Explanation

Sudden chest pain, hypotension, and tachycardia after an open central line hub suggest air embolism, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate occlusion of the line and positioning on the left side. Phlebitis and infiltration produce local signs, and infection develops over hours to days rather than suddenly.

Question 49Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is assessing a client for risk of falls using a standardized tool. Which client factor most strongly increases fall risk?

  1. A stable, unassisted gait
  2. A recent prescription for a sedative medication Correct answer.
  3. A hemoglobin level of 130 grams per liter
  4. A body mass index of 24

Explanation

Sedatives and hypnotics impair alertness, coordination, and balance, which are major modifiable contributors to falls. Normal hemoglobin, mid-range body mass index, and a stable gait do not increase risk.

Question 50Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to clean a blood spill on the floor. Which action reflects correct infection control practice?

  1. Wipe the spill with a dry paper towel and bare hands
  2. Rinse the area with water only
  3. Wear gloves and use an approved disinfectant according to the facility's spill protocol Correct answer.
  4. Cover the spill with a sheet and leave it for housekeeping

Explanation

Blood spills require gloves and an approved disinfectant used according to the facility's protocol to inactivate bloodborne pathogens. Dry wiping with bare hands, covering, or rinsing with water alone does not decontaminate the surface.