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CAPA (ABPANC) practice questions

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Question 1Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

According to standard fasting guidelines, how long before elective anesthesia should a patient stop drinking clear liquids?

  1. Two hours Correct answer.
  2. Six hours
  3. Eight hours
  4. Four hours

Explanation

Clear liquids empty rapidly from the stomach, and standard guidelines allow clear liquids up to 2 hours before anesthesia for patients of all ages. Longer intervals apply to breast milk (4 hours) and to light meals (6 hours).

Question 2Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Who should obtain informed consent for a surgical procedure?

  1. The anesthesia technician
  2. The admitting nurse
  3. The unit charge nurse
  4. The operating surgeon Correct answer.

Explanation

Consent must be obtained by the practitioner who will perform the procedure, because that person is responsible for explaining the risks, benefits, and alternatives. Nursing staff may witness the signature but do not obtain consent.

Question 3Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient has no systemic disease, does not smoke, and takes no daily medications. Which ASA physical status classification applies?

  1. ASA II
  2. ASA I Correct answer.
  3. ASA III
  4. ASA IV

Explanation

ASA I describes a healthy, nonsmoking patient with no systemic disease and no regular medications. ASA II indicates mild systemic disease, and higher classes reflect progressively severe disease.

Question 4Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient takes metoprolol daily for angina. What is the appropriate management on the morning of surgery?

  1. Stop it 24 hours before surgery
  2. Hold it until phase II recovery
  3. Continue with a sip of water Correct answer.
  4. Stop it 7 days before surgery

Explanation

Beta blockers are generally continued perioperatively, especially in patients with coronary disease, to prevent reflex tachycardia and myocardial ischemia. Abrupt withdrawal can cause rebound hypertension and ischemia.

Question 5Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Preprocedure pregnancy testing is indicated for which patient before elective surgery?

  1. A 24-year-old with irregular menses Correct answer.
  2. A 45-year-old with prior hysterectomy
  3. A 10-year-old undergoing tonsillectomy
  4. A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman

Explanation

Patients of childbearing potential should be screened when menstrual history is uncertain, because pregnancy alters anesthetic and surgical planning. Testing is elective and based on the possibility of pregnancy, not on age alone.

Question 6Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

For a scheduled left knee arthroscopy, who should mark the operative site?

  1. The preop nurse
  2. The operating surgeon Correct answer.
  3. The surgical technologist
  4. The anesthesia provider

Explanation

Site marking is the responsibility of the surgeon who will perform the procedure, and it should be done with the patient involved when possible. Other team members verify the mark during the time-out rather than creating it.

Question 7Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports taking ginkgo and garlic daily. Which is the most important preprocedure concern?

  1. Reduced anesthetic potency
  2. Elevated blood glucose
  3. Increased bleeding risk Correct answer.
  4. Delayed wound healing

Explanation

Ginkgo, garlic, ginseng, and several other supplements impair platelet function and add to surgical bleeding risk. Many surgeons ask patients to stop these agents 1 to 2 weeks before elective surgery after weighing the benefit.

Question 8Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

With the patient seated, mouth open, tongue protruded, the soft palate, uvula, and tonsillar pillars are all visible. How is this Mallampati class recorded?

  1. Class IV
  2. Class III
  3. Class II
  4. Class I Correct answer.

Explanation

Mallampati I shows the soft palate, uvula, fauces, and tonsillar pillars; each subsequent class hides more structures as the view is obstructed. Higher classes are associated with greater difficulty visualizing the larynx.

Question 9Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient scores 4 on the STOP-BANG questionnaire. How should the perianesthesia nurse interpret this result?

  1. Low risk of aspiration pneumonitis
  2. Low risk of sleep apnea
  3. High risk of sleep apnea Correct answer.
  4. High risk of malignant hyperthermia

Explanation

A STOP-BANG score of 3 or greater identifies high risk for moderate-to-severe obstructive sleep apnea. Such patients need airway planning, cautious sedation, and postoperative monitoring.

Question 10Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which fruit is most strongly associated with cross-reactivity in a patient with latex allergy?

  1. Banana Correct answer.
  2. Grape
  3. Peach
  4. Apple

Explanation

Latex-fruit syndrome results from cross-reacting proteins shared with banana, avocado, kiwi, chestnut, and papaya. Patients with latex allergy should be screened for these sensitivities and managed in a latex-safe environment.

Question 11Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports that a sibling developed high fever and muscle rigidity during a previous anesthetic. Which plan is most appropriate?

  1. Avoid volatile agents and succinylcholine Correct answer.
  2. Premedicate with dantrolene before induction
  3. Proceed with sevoflurane and monitor temperature
  4. Postpone surgery until genetic testing returns

Explanation

A family history of fever with rigidity under anesthesia raises concern for malignant hyperthermia susceptibility, so triggering agents such as volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine are avoided. A trigger-free anesthetic with dantrolene available is the standard approach.

Question 12Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. How long before elective surgery should the drug typically be discontinued?

  1. 1 day
  2. 2 days
  3. 10 days
  4. 5 days Correct answer.

Explanation

Warfarin has a half-life of roughly 36 to 42 hours, so about 5 days is needed for the INR to normalize in most patients. The INR is rechecked on the day of surgery before proceeding.

Question 13Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with type 2 diabetes takes metformin. What is the recommended approach on the day of surgery?

  1. Stop it 3 days before surgery
  2. Replace it with an insulin infusion
  3. Continue it if renal function is normal Correct answer.
  4. Double the dose before surgery

Explanation

Metformin is generally continued perioperatively when renal function is normal, because the risk of lactic acidosis is low in that setting. Holding is reserved for patients with renal impairment or when contrast-induced nephropathy is anticipated.

Question 14Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which statement describes appropriate preprocedure laboratory testing for a healthy 30-year-old having minor hand surgery?

  1. Only a chest radiograph
  2. Testing guided by history and exam Correct answer.
  3. A full panel for every patient
  4. No history is needed if labs are normal

Explanation

Testing should be ordered to answer a specific clinical question raised by the history, examination, or planned procedure. Routine panels for asymptomatic patients rarely change management and can cause unnecessary delays.

Question 15Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A 4-year-old arrives for elective surgery with a low-grade fever, purulent rhinorrhea, and a new cough. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Postpone the surgery Correct answer.
  2. Proceed with the case as scheduled
  3. Give antibiotics and proceed
  4. Change to general anesthesia only

Explanation

An active upper respiratory infection with fever and purulent drainage increases the risk of laryngospasm, bronchospasm, and hypoxia during anesthesia. Elective surgery is typically deferred until symptoms resolve.

Question 16Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which finding during airway assessment suggests a potentially difficult intubation?

  1. Mouth opening of 5 cm
  2. Thyromental distance of 7 cm
  3. Thyromental distance of 4 cm Correct answer.
  4. Mallampati class I with full neck extension

Explanation

A thyromental distance under about 6 cm, or less than three fingerbreadths, suggests limited space for laryngeal visualization. Normal mouth opening and full neck extension are favorable findings.

Question 17Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with diagnosed obstructive sleep apnea is scheduled for outpatient surgery. Which instruction should the preprocedure nurse give?

  1. Skip your morning insulin dose
  2. Take a sedative the night before
  3. Fast from all food and fluids for 24 hours
  4. Bring your CPAP machine to the facility Correct answer.

Explanation

Patients with OSA should bring their CPAP device so therapy can continue postoperatively, when sedatives and residual anesthesia worsen obstruction. Prolonged fasting and sedatives without instruction increase risk.

Question 18Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Who can provide informed consent for an elective procedure on an unemancipated 15-year-old?

  1. Any adult accompanying the patient
  2. An older sibling
  3. The patient alone
  4. A parent or legal guardian Correct answer.

Explanation

Minors cannot legally consent to elective surgery, so a parent or court-appointed legal guardian must sign. The assent of the adolescent should still be sought as part of developmentally appropriate care.

Question 19Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient reports drinking six beers daily. Which perioperative concern should the nurse anticipate?

  1. Reduced need for postoperative analgesia
  2. Faster than normal wound healing
  3. Withdrawal and anesthetic tolerance Correct answer.
  4. Lower requirement for volatile anesthetics

Explanation

Chronic heavy alcohol use induces hepatic enzymes, producing cross-tolerance and higher anesthetic requirements, and places the patient at risk for withdrawal. Postoperative monitoring, benzodiazepine availability, and thiamine supplementation are commonly needed.

Question 20Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for preoperative anxiety?

  1. Delaying questions until induction
  2. Keeping the patient isolated
  3. Avoiding all patient education
  4. Explaining the sequence of events Correct answer.

Explanation

Structured information about what the patient will experience reduces uncertainty and anxiety, and it supports coping. Education should be tailored to the patient's preferred level of detail.

Question 21Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient takes empagliflozin. How should it be managed before elective surgery?

  1. Stop it 3 to 4 days ahead Correct answer.
  2. Stop it 12 hours beforehand
  3. Continue it through surgery
  4. Give an extra dose on call

Explanation

SGLT2 inhibitors are stopped about 3 to 4 days before elective surgery because they can precipitate euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis during fasting and stress. Glucose may appear normal while ketones rise, so the drug is held even when sugars are well controlled.

Question 22Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which patient has the highest thrombotic risk and is most likely to warrant bridging anticoagulation before surgery?

  1. A mechanical mitral valve with prior stroke Correct answer.
  2. Apixaban with a low bleeding risk score
  3. Aspirin taken daily for primary prevention
  4. Warfarin for a provoked DVT two years ago

Explanation

Bridging is considered for patients with high thrombotic risk, such as a mechanical mitral valve or a recent stroke, when anticoagulation must be interrupted. Patients with remote provoked events or low-risk indications usually do not benefit from bridging.

Question 23Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator is scheduled for surgery using monopolar electrocautery. Which action is most important?

  1. Interrogate and reprogram the device preoperatively Correct answer.
  2. Position the grounding pad on the chest over the device
  3. Ask the patient to hold the device during cautery
  4. Reprogram the device only after emergence

Explanation

Monopolar cautery can be misinterpreted by an ICD as ventricular fibrillation, leading to inappropriate shocks, or can inhibit pacing. The device is interrogated and reprogrammed before surgery, with the dispersive pad placed away from the generator, and is rechecked afterward.

Question 24Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with severe aortic stenosis is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

  1. Delay surgery for valve evaluation Correct answer.
  2. Proceed with general anesthesia
  3. Proceed with spinal anesthesia
  4. Cancel the surgery permanently

Explanation

Severe aortic stenosis markedly increases perioperative mortality and is a major cardiac risk factor. Elective surgery is generally deferred until the valve is evaluated and treated, because the anesthetic approach alone does not remove the risk.

Question 25Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Elective nonobstetric surgery in a pregnant patient is ideally scheduled during which period?

  1. First trimester
  2. Second trimester Correct answer.
  3. Third trimester
  4. Any trimester equally

Explanation

The second trimester avoids the organogenesis period of the first trimester and the preterm labor and compression risks of the third. When possible, surgery is timed during that window with obstetric consultation.

Question 26Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

According to standard fasting guidelines, how long before elective surgery should a patient stop drinking clear liquids?

  1. 6 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 2 hours Correct answer.
  4. 4 hours

Explanation

Clear liquids empty from the stomach relatively quickly, so current fasting guidelines permit clear liquids up to 2 hours before elective anesthesia. Longer fasting does not improve safety and can cause dehydration and discomfort.

Question 27Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

When hair removal from the operative site is necessary, which method is preferred?

  1. Shaving with a razor the night before surgery
  2. Clipping with electric clippers immediately before surgery Correct answer.
  3. Waxing the operative site 48 hours before surgery
  4. Applying a chemical depilatory 24 hours before surgery

Explanation

Electric clippers remove hair with less skin trauma than razors and are associated with lower surgical site infection risk. When hair removal is needed, it should be done as close to surgery as possible.

Question 28Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which action best ensures that a patient's advance directive is available and honored during the perioperative period?

  1. Document a verbal report from a family member
  2. Verify and file a copy in the chart before surgery Correct answer.
  3. Have the surgeon address it postoperatively
  4. Ask the family to bring it after surgery

Explanation

The advance directive must be verified and included in the medical record before surgery so the perioperative team can follow the patient's documented wishes. Relying on verbal reports or postoperative review risks delaying or missing important directives.

Question 29Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient takes metoprolol daily for chronic stable angina. What is the usual perioperative management?

  1. Stop metoprolol 24 hours before surgery
  2. Replace metoprolol with a calcium channel blocker
  3. Continue it through the perioperative period Correct answer.
  4. Stop metoprolol on the morning of surgery

Explanation

Beta-blockers taken for chronic cardiac conditions are generally continued perioperatively because abrupt withdrawal can precipitate tachycardia, hypertension, or ischemia. The dose may be adjusted for hemodynamics, but routine discontinuation is avoided.

Question 30Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with normal renal function takes apixaban for atrial fibrillation and is scheduled for elective surgery with low bleeding risk. How long before surgery should apixaban typically be held?

  1. 24 hours
  2. 48 hours Correct answer.
  3. 7 days
  4. 12 hours

Explanation

For low-bleeding-risk procedures in patients with normal renal function, apixaban is generally held for about 48 hours before surgery. The interval is longer for high-bleeding-risk procedures or impaired renal function.

Question 31Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

To reduce postoperative pulmonary complications, at least how long before elective surgery should a smoker ideally stop smoking?

  1. 1 year
  2. 4 weeks Correct answer.
  3. 12 hours
  4. 6 months

Explanation

Smoking cessation at least 4 weeks before elective surgery is associated with fewer pulmonary complications, and longer intervals provide additional benefit. Cessation should be encouraged even when surgery is sooner, but 4 weeks is the commonly cited target.

Question 32Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which patient should receive a preoperative pregnancy test regardless of her reported use of contraception?

  1. A 52-year-old who is postmenopausal
  2. A 35-year-old who had a tubal ligation
  3. A 28-year-old with a missed menstrual period Correct answer.
  4. A 61-year-old scheduled for cataract surgery

Explanation

A missed menstrual period raises concern for unrecognized pregnancy, and anesthesia and surgery carry fetal risks. Pregnancy testing should be offered or performed according to policy for patients of childbearing potential with possible pregnancy.

Question 33Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient can climb two flights of stairs without becoming dyspneic. This level of activity corresponds to approximately which functional capacity?

  1. 1 to 2 METs
  2. 2 to 3 METs
  3. 4 METs or more Correct answer.
  4. 3 to 4 METs

Explanation

Climbing two flights of stairs without symptoms indicates good functional capacity, generally 4 METs or more. Patients with at least 4 METs are usually considered to have adequate functional reserve for most elective surgery.

Question 34Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

Which preoperative finding most strongly increases the risk of postoperative venous thromboembolism?

  1. Mild controlled asthma
  2. Age 40 years
  3. Treated hypertension
  4. A previous DVT or PE Correct answer.

Explanation

A history of venous thromboembolism is a major risk factor for recurrence after surgery and generally warrants careful thromboprophylaxis planning. Hypertension and well-controlled asthma are not strong independent VTE risk factors.

Question 35Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with type 1 diabetes is scheduled for morning surgery. Which insulin plan is most appropriate?

  1. Take basal insulin with adjustment; hold rapid-acting Correct answer.
  2. Double the usual basal insulin dose
  3. Omit all insulin on the morning of surgery and monitor glucose
  4. Take only rapid-acting insulin as usual

Explanation

Patients with type 1 diabetes need basal insulin even when fasting to prevent diabetic ketoacidosis. The basal dose is often adjusted and rapid-acting mealtime insulin is held until the patient resumes eating.

Question 36Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient has taken prednisone 20 mg daily for 6 months and is scheduled for major abdominal surgery. Which perioperative risk is most important to address?

  1. Hypertension requiring additional antihypertensives
  2. Wound infection only
  3. Adrenal insufficiency requiring stress steroids Correct answer.
  4. Hyperglycemia alone

Explanation

Long-term glucocorticoid therapy suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, and major surgery can precipitate adrenal insufficiency. Stress-dose glucocorticoids are often considered for patients with chronic steroid exposure undergoing major surgical stress.

Question 37Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient received a drug-eluting coronary stent 3 months ago and is scheduled for elective hernia repair. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

  1. Switch clopidogrel to warfarin before surgery
  2. Stop aspirin and clopidogrel for 7 days before the operation
  3. Postpone surgery and continue dual antiplatelet therapy Correct answer.
  4. Proceed without consulting cardiology

Explanation

Elective surgery soon after drug-eluting stent placement carries a high risk of stent thrombosis if antiplatelet therapy is interrupted. Unless cardiology agrees that interruption is safe, elective surgery should be postponed while dual antiplatelet therapy continues.

Question 38Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

In an enhanced recovery pathway, what is the main purpose of a preoperative carbohydrate-containing clear drink?

  1. Prevent aspiration pneumonitis
  2. Increase gastric residual volume
  3. Reduce insulin resistance Correct answer.
  4. Prolong the fasting period

Explanation

Carbohydrate loading before surgery helps reduce preoperative thirst and postoperative insulin resistance. It does not replace appropriate fasting and is used within enhanced recovery protocols for selected patients.

Question 39Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient with limited English proficiency is scheduled for an elective operation. Which approach best supports the informed consent process?

  1. Have the patient sign the English consent form
  2. Use the patient's adult child to interpret
  3. Use hand gestures and pictures
  4. Use a qualified medical interpreter Correct answer.

Explanation

Valid informed consent requires that the patient understand the information presented, so a qualified medical interpreter should be used when needed. Family members, gestures, and untranslated forms do not reliably ensure comprehension.

Question 40Preprocedure Assessment and Preparation

A patient scheduled for major elective surgery has iron-deficiency anemia with a hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL. What is the most appropriate preoperative management?

  1. Cancel surgery permanently
  2. Treat the iron deficiency before surgery Correct answer.
  3. Give erythropoietin alone on the morning of surgery
  4. Proceed with surgery and transfuse only if bleeding occurs

Explanation

Preoperative anemia is associated with increased morbidity and transfusion risk, so iron deficiency should be identified and treated before elective surgery when time allows. This may include iron studies and iron replacement, with transfusion reserved for specific indications.

Question 41Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

According to ASA fasting guidelines, how long must a patient abstain from clear liquids before elective procedural sedation?

  1. 6 hours
  2. 4 hours
  3. 2 hours Correct answer.
  4. 8 hours

Explanation

The ASA fasting guidelines set a minimum of 2 hours for clear liquids because gastric emptying of water, juice without pulp, and similar fluids is rapid. Longer intervals apply to breast milk and infant formula (4 hours), a light meal (6 hours), and fatty or fried meals (8 hours).

Question 42Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Which medication specifically reverses benzodiazepine-induced sedation?

  1. Flumazenil Correct answer.
  2. Sugammadex
  3. Naloxone
  4. Neostigmine

Explanation

Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site of the GABA-A receptor and reverses sedation and respiratory depression from drugs such as midazolam. It should be titrated carefully because abrupt reversal in chronic benzodiazepine users can precipitate withdrawal seizures.

Question 43Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

A patient receiving IV fentanyl and midazolam becomes unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and pinpoint pupils. Which drug should be given first?

  1. Naloxone Correct answer.
  2. Dantrolene
  3. Flumazenil
  4. Atropine

Explanation

Pinpoint pupils with marked hypoventilation after an opioid indicates opioid-induced respiratory depression, so naloxone, a competitive opioid antagonist, is the specific treatment. Ventilation and oxygenation must be supported simultaneously, since the opioid effect may outlast a single naloxone dose.

Question 44Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Which end-tidal CO2 value falls within the normal adult range?

  1. 40 mmHg Correct answer.
  2. 30 mmHg
  3. 25 mmHg
  4. 15 mmHg

Explanation

Normal end-tidal CO2 in a healthy adult is 35 to 45 mmHg and closely approximates arterial CO2. Values below this range suggest hyperventilation, low pulmonary blood flow, or apnea, while elevated values suggest hypoventilation.

Question 45Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

A patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating is assigned which ASA physical status?

  1. ASA II
  2. ASA III Correct answer.
  3. ASA IV
  4. ASA I

Explanation

ASA III designates severe systemic disease with definite functional limitation, such as poorly controlled diabetes or stable angina. The classification reflects increasing perioperative risk from ASA I (healthy) through ASA IV (disease that is a constant threat to life).

Question 46Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Which Mallampati classification describes full visibility of the soft palate, fauces, uvula, and tonsillar pillars?

  1. Class III
  2. Class IV
  3. Class II
  4. Class I Correct answer.

Explanation

Mallampati class I is the most favorable airway, with the soft palate, fauces, uvula, and tonsillar pillars all visible. Higher classes correlate with increasing difficulty of direct laryngoscopy, with classes III and IV carrying the greatest risk.

Question 47Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Which drug is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia?

  1. Sodium bicarbonate
  2. Neostigmine
  3. Succinylcholine
  4. Dantrolene Correct answer.

Explanation

Dantrolene inhibits ryanodine receptor-mediated calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, breaking the uncontrolled muscle contraction of a malignant hyperthermia crisis. Management also requires stopping triggering agents, hyperventilating with 100% oxygen, and active cooling.

Question 48Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Pulse oximetry provides a noninvasive estimate of which variable?

  1. Minute ventilation
  2. Arterial carbon dioxide tension
  3. Arterial oxygen saturation Correct answer.
  4. Cardiac output

Explanation

Pulse oximetry compares light absorption by oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin to estimate arterial oxygen saturation. It does not measure ventilation or CO2 elimination, and readings lag behind actual desaturation, especially with poor perfusion.

Question 49Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Which statement best describes the level of consciousness in moderate sedation?

  1. Purposeful response to verbal commands Correct answer.
  2. No response to painful stimulation
  3. Assisted ventilation is generally required
  4. Absent protective airway reflexes

Explanation

Moderate sedation is a drug-induced depression of consciousness in which the patient responds purposefully to verbal commands, alone or with light tactile stimulation. Airway, spontaneous ventilation, and cardiovascular function are maintained throughout.

Question 50Sedation, Analgesia, and Anesthesia Care

Which effect is characteristic of propofol when used for procedural sedation?

  1. Rapid reversal with flumazenil
  2. Dose-dependent apnea and hypotension Correct answer.
  3. Substantial analgesia at sedative doses
  4. Rare hypotension

Explanation

Propofol causes dose-dependent respiratory depression ranging from hypoventilation to apnea, along with vasodilation that produces hypotension, particularly after rapid boluses or in hypovolemic patients. It has no analgesic properties and no specific reversal agent.