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QAI CAST practice questions

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Question 1Software Testing Fundamentals

In software testing terminology, what does a 'defect' most precisely refer to?

  1. A document describing how to reproduce an incident
  2. The process of executing code to find problems
  3. Any behavior of the software that a user finds inconvenient
  4. A flaw in a work product that can cause the software to fail to meet a requirement Correct answer.

Explanation

A defect (also called a bug or fault) is an imperfection in a work product such as code, requirements, or design that may lead to a failure. Failures are observable deviations during execution, while defects are the underlying flaws that cause them.

Question 2Software Testing Fundamentals

Which statement best distinguishes verification from validation?

  1. Verification applies only to code; validation applies only to documentation
  2. Verification is performed only by developers; validation is performed only by end users
  3. Verification happens after release; validation happens before coding
  4. Verification checks whether we built the product right; validation checks whether we built the right product Correct answer.

Explanation

Verification confirms that a work product conforms to its specified requirements, answering whether we built the product right. Validation confirms that the product meets the user's actual needs, answering whether we built the right product. Both can apply to many work products and are not restricted by role or phase.

Question 3Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester designs test cases from the specification without looking at the source code. Which testing approach is this?

  1. Structural testing
  2. Mutation testing
  3. White-box testing
  4. Black-box testing Correct answer.

Explanation

Black-box testing derives tests from external inputs and expected outputs without knowledge of internal structure. White-box and structural testing use code structure, and mutation testing evaluates test effectiveness by altering code.

Question 4Software Testing Fundamentals

Which of the following is a typical entry criterion for starting system testing?

  1. All defects in the backlog have been closed
  2. All unit test cases have been executed and their exit criteria met Correct answer.
  3. The operations team has scheduled deployment
  4. All production users have accepted the release

Explanation

Entry criteria define prerequisites that must be satisfied before a test level begins. For system testing, completion of component and integration testing with acceptable results is a common entry criterion. User acceptance and deployment scheduling belong to later stages.

Question 5Software Testing Fundamentals

What is the primary purpose of a regression test suite?

  1. To replace the need for exploratory testing
  2. To measure how many lines of code each developer wrote
  3. To confirm that changes have not broken previously working functionality Correct answer.
  4. To prove that no defects remain in the product

Explanation

Regression testing re-executes selected tests after changes to detect unintended side effects in unchanged areas. It provides confidence that existing behavior still works, but it cannot prove the absence of all defects.

Question 6Software Testing Fundamentals

In risk-based testing, how is the priority of test effort typically determined?

  1. By combining the likelihood of a failure with its potential impact Correct answer.
  2. By testing only the features requested most recently
  3. By giving equal effort to every requirement regardless of risk
  4. By ordering test cases alphabetically by their identifiers

Explanation

Risk-based testing allocates effort according to risk, commonly modeled as likelihood of occurrence multiplied by impact or severity. Higher-risk areas receive deeper and earlier testing. Arbitrary ordering or equal allocation ignores risk.

Question 7Software Testing Fundamentals

Which document typically records the steps, test data, and expected results for a single test condition?

  1. Incident report
  2. Test strategy
  3. Test case Correct answer.
  4. Test plan

Explanation

A test case specifies preconditions, inputs, actions, and expected results for exercising a particular condition. A test plan covers scope, approach, and schedule for a project, while an incident report documents an observed failure.

Question 8Software Testing Fundamentals

What does a requirement traceability matrix primarily help a test team achieve?

  1. Mapping requirements to test cases so coverage gaps can be identified Correct answer.
  2. Encrypting sensitive test data
  3. Automating the execution of UI tests
  4. Estimating the number of developers needed

Explanation

A traceability matrix links requirements to test cases and results, making it possible to see which requirements are covered and which lack tests. It supports coverage analysis and impact assessment, not automation, staffing, or data security.

Question 9Software Testing Fundamentals

A login field accepts passwords between 8 and 20 characters. Using two-value boundary value analysis on length, which set of lengths should be tested?

  1. 9, 19
  2. 0, 8, 20, 100
  3. 7, 8, 20, 21 Correct answer.
  4. 8, 20

Explanation

Two-value boundary value analysis tests each boundary and its nearest invalid neighbor. For the range 8 to 20, the boundaries are 8 and 20, so the tests are 7, 8, 20, and 21. Testing only 8 and 20 omits the invalid neighbors.

Question 10Software Testing Fundamentals

An input field accepts one of the values RED, GREEN, or BLUE. Which technique most directly selects representative test inputs for this field?

  1. Load testing
  2. Statement coverage
  3. Pairwise testing of configuration options
  4. Equivalence partitioning Correct answer.

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning divides the input domain into classes expected to behave the same way and selects one representative per class. For an enumerated set, valid classes are RED, GREEN, and BLUE, plus invalid classes for other values.

Question 11Software Testing Fundamentals

A system has a decision: if (age >= 18 AND hasID = true) then allowEntry. Which test input set achieves decision coverage for this single decision?

  1. (age 16, hasID true) and (age 17, hasID true)
  2. (age 20, hasID true) only
  3. (age 18, hasID true) and (age 19, hasID true)
  4. (age 20, hasID true) and (age 20, hasID false) Correct answer.

Explanation

Decision coverage requires each decision to evaluate once to true and once to false. The first pair yields true (20, true) and false (20, false), satisfying decision coverage for that decision.

Question 12Software Testing Fundamentals

A test case checks that a shopping cart total equals the sum of item prices plus tax. Which test design technique is being used?

  1. Decision table testing Correct answer.
  2. Use case testing
  3. Boundary value analysis
  4. State transition testing

Explanation

Decision table testing models combinations of conditions and their resulting actions. The cart rule combines item prices and tax conditions to determine the total, which fits a decision table structure.

Question 13Software Testing Fundamentals

An online order moves through states: Created, Paid, Shipped, Delivered, and can be Cancelled from Created or Paid. Which technique best targets invalid transitions such as shipping a cancelled order?

  1. State transition testing Correct answer.
  2. Equivalence partitioning
  3. Boundary value analysis
  4. Static analysis

Explanation

State transition testing models valid states and events and derives tests for valid and invalid transitions. Attempting to ship a cancelled order is an invalid transition that this technique explicitly targets.

Question 14Software Testing Fundamentals

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between a failure, a defect, and an error?

  1. A human error introduces a defect, which may cause a failure during execution Correct answer.
  2. A failure introduces a defect, which always causes an error
  3. A defect is the observable symptom, and a failure is the root cause
  4. Errors and failures are synonyms, and defects are test cases

Explanation

The standard chain is that a human error (mistake) introduces a defect (fault) into a work product, and when that defect is executed it may produce a failure. Failures are observable deviations from expected behavior.

Question 15Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester reports that a payment page shows a blank screen only when a user has exactly 50 saved cards. Which defect-reporting attribute is most essential to include for efficient reproduction?

  1. The total number of test cases in the project
  2. The developer's name who last edited the file
  3. The precise preconditions and data state that trigger the blank screen Correct answer.
  4. The marketing release date of the feature

Explanation

A good defect report must state the preconditions, steps, and data needed to reproduce the failure. The specific condition of exactly 50 saved cards is the key reproduction detail. Other attributes do not help a developer reproduce the problem.

Question 16Software Testing Fundamentals

A team runs the same automated tests on three browser versions and two operating systems. Which technique most efficiently reduces the number of test combinations?

  1. Exhaustive combinatorial testing
  2. Alpha testing
  3. Pairwise (all-pairs) testing Correct answer.
  4. Statement coverage

Explanation

Pairwise testing covers every pair of parameter values at least once, dramatically reducing combinations while retaining high defect-detection power for interaction faults. Exhaustive testing covers all combinations but is usually impractical.

Question 17Software Testing Fundamentals

During a review, a reviewer finds that a requirement contradicts another requirement. What type of review finding is this?

  1. A defect in the requirements work product Correct answer.
  2. A code coverage gap
  3. A test environment failure
  4. A performance bottleneck

Explanation

Reviews can find defects in any work product, including requirements. Contradictory requirements are requirement defects detected before code exists, which is one of the main benefits of early review.

Question 18Software Testing Fundamentals

Which activity best describes static testing?

  1. Examining code or documents without executing the software Correct answer.
  2. Executing test cases and comparing actual to expected results
  3. Measuring response time under concurrent users
  4. Running load tests against a production server

Explanation

Static testing evaluates work products such as requirements, designs, and code without running them, typically through reviews or static analysis tools. Dynamic testing executes software and observes behavior.

Question 19Software Testing Fundamentals

A team must decide how much testing is enough before release. Which approach is most defensible?

  1. Base the decision on documented exit criteria such as residual risk and coverage targets Correct answer.
  2. Stop when the first test cycle passes without any failures
  3. Stop when the scheduled end date arrives regardless of results
  4. Stop when testers run out of ideas for new tests

Explanation

Exit criteria provide an objective, agreed basis for deciding when testing is sufficient, typically combining coverage, defect detection rates, and residual risk. Calendar dates, a single clean cycle, or tester fatigue are weak and subjective stopping rules.

Question 20Software Testing Fundamentals

Which statement best explains why exhaustive testing is generally impossible?

  1. The input domain and execution paths are effectively infinite, so only a risk-based sample can be tested Correct answer.
  2. Requirements are always complete and unambiguous
  3. Testers are not permitted to run more than one hundred test cases
  4. Automated tools cannot execute more than ten tests per day

Explanation

Exhaustive testing would require every possible input, sequence, and path, which is practically infinite for real systems. Testers therefore select representative samples guided by risk, techniques, and coverage to maximize confidence within constraints.

Question 21Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester uses equivalence partitioning on a numeric field that accepts integers from 1 to 100. Which partition set is most appropriate?

  1. Valid: 1, 100; invalid: 0, 101
  2. Valid: all even numbers; invalid: all odd numbers
  3. Valid: 1 to 100; invalid: below 1; invalid: above 100 Correct answer.
  4. Valid: 1 to 50; invalid: 51 to 100

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning divides the domain into classes treated alike. For a range of 1 to 100, the classes are the valid range and the two invalid regions below 1 and above 100. Boundary values are selected later from within these partitions.

Question 22Software Testing Fundamentals

A defect is found in acceptance testing that originated in an ambiguous requirement. What is the most valuable process improvement?

  1. Strengthen requirements review so ambiguity is resolved before development Correct answer.
  2. Reduce the amount of documentation produced
  3. Increase the number of regression cycles after release
  4. Add more testers to the acceptance test team

Explanation

When defects trace back to ambiguous requirements, earlier and more rigorous requirements review prevents them from propagating into code and later test levels. Adding testers or post-release cycles treats symptoms rather than the root cause.

Question 23Software Testing Fundamentals

A team claims 100 percent statement coverage. Which conclusion is justified?

  1. Every executable statement has run, but some decisions and data combinations may remain untested Correct answer.
  2. The software is ready for release without further testing
  3. Every branch and condition has been exercised
  4. All possible defects have been eliminated from the code

Explanation

Statement coverage measures whether each executable statement has been executed at least once. It does not guarantee that every decision outcome, condition combination, or data interaction has been tested, so it is a weak adequacy measure on its own.

Question 24Software Testing Fundamentals

A decision contains the condition (A OR B). Which test set achieves condition coverage but may fail to achieve decision coverage?

  1. A true, B false and A false, B true
  2. A false, B false and A true, B true
  3. A true, B false Correct answer.
  4. A true, B true

Explanation

Condition coverage requires each atomic condition to take both true and false values. The set A true, B false exercises A as true and B as false, but neither condition takes both values, so condition coverage is not fully achieved either; more fundamentally, a single case cannot cover both outcomes of each condition.

Question 25Software Testing Fundamentals

A test manager observes that the defect detection rate has flattened while coverage keeps rising. What is the most reasonable interpretation?

  1. Coverage metrics are always meaningless
  2. Testing should continue indefinitely until a defect is found
  3. Additional tests may be yielding diminishing returns, so exit criteria and residual risk should be reviewed Correct answer.
  4. The software must now be completely defect-free

Explanation

A flattening defect detection curve despite rising coverage can indicate diminishing returns from further testing. Combined with exit criteria and residual risk assessment, this informs a reasoned decision about when to stop rather than proving zero defects.

Question 26Software Testing Fundamentals

Which statement best describes the objective of a test oracle in software testing?

  1. A mechanism to determine whether an observed test outcome is correct Correct answer.
  2. A document that records the steps to reproduce a defect
  3. A tool that automatically generates test input data
  4. A metric that measures the percentage of code executed by tests

Explanation

A test oracle is the principle or mechanism used to decide whether a test has passed or failed. It provides the expected result against which actual results are compared. Without an oracle, a tester cannot judge correctness.

Question 27Software Testing Fundamentals

In the V-model of testing, which test level is most directly associated with verifying the detailed design of individual modules?

  1. Acceptance testing
  2. Integration testing
  3. System testing
  4. Unit testing Correct answer.

Explanation

In the V-model, each development phase has a corresponding test level. Unit testing corresponds to detailed design and verifies individual components in isolation. System and acceptance testing map to higher-level requirements.

Question 28Software Testing Fundamentals

Which of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

  1. Test execution is deferred until all requirements are frozen
  2. Test cases are fully scripted in advance and executed exactly as written
  3. Tests are derived exclusively from the internal code structure
  4. Testers simultaneously design and execute tests while learning about the system Correct answer.

Explanation

Exploratory testing is an approach where test design and execution are concurrent and guided by the tester's evolving understanding. It emphasizes learning, feedback, and adaptation rather than pre-scripted steps. It is not the same as ad hoc testing because it is structured by charters and session notes.

Question 29Software Testing Fundamentals

Which test level typically focuses on validating that the system meets business needs and is acceptable to users?

  1. Integration testing
  2. Component testing
  3. Acceptance testing Correct answer.
  4. System testing

Explanation

Acceptance testing is performed to determine whether the system satisfies business requirements and is fit for use. It is often the last test level before release and may involve users or customers. System testing, by contrast, verifies the complete system against specified requirements.

Question 30Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester is designing tests for a function that calculates a discount based on customer type (new, returning, VIP) and purchase amount (less than $100, $100 or more). Which technique is most appropriate to ensure all combinations of these two conditions are tested?

  1. Boundary value analysis
  2. Decision table testing Correct answer.
  3. Statement coverage
  4. Exploratory testing

Explanation

Decision table testing systematically captures combinations of conditions and their corresponding actions. With two conditions having three and two values respectively, a decision table ensures all six combinations are considered. Boundary value analysis focuses on edges of ranges, not combinations.

Question 31Software Testing Fundamentals

A test case is designed to verify that a user can successfully reset a password by entering a registered email address. Which test type is this?

  1. Regression test
  2. Negative test
  3. Positive test Correct answer.
  4. Non-functional test

Explanation

A positive test uses valid input and verifies that the system behaves as expected. Here the registered email is valid input and the expected outcome is a successful password reset. Negative tests would use invalid or missing data.

Question 32Software Testing Fundamentals

A team is testing a module that has been changed to fix a defect. They want to ensure the fix did not introduce new faults in unchanged areas. Which type of testing is most appropriate?

  1. Regression testing Correct answer.
  2. Usability testing
  3. Confirmation testing
  4. Smoke testing

Explanation

Regression testing re-executes tests to detect unintended side effects of changes. It focuses on ensuring that existing functionality still works after modifications. Confirmation testing, in contrast, verifies that the specific defect has been fixed.

Question 33Software Testing Fundamentals

During a review, a reviewer identifies that a requirement is ambiguous and could be interpreted in two different ways. What type of review finding is this?

  1. A defect in the test data
  2. A defect in the requirement Correct answer.
  3. A defect in the design
  4. A defect in the code

Explanation

Reviews can find defects in any work product, including requirements. Ambiguity is a requirement defect because it can lead to incorrect implementation or testing. It is not a code or design defect at this stage.

Question 34Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester is applying equivalence partitioning to a field that accepts a person's age between 0 and 120 inclusive. Which set of partitions is most appropriate?

  1. Ages less than 0, ages 0 to 120, ages greater than 120 Correct answer.
  2. Ages 0 to 60, ages 61 to 120
  3. Ages 0, 60, 120
  4. Ages less than 0, ages 0 to 60, ages 61 to 120, ages greater than 120

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning divides inputs into classes where all values are expected to be treated the same. For a valid range of 0 to 120, the valid partition is 0–120, and the invalid partitions are below 0 and above 120. Subdividing the valid range without a reason is unnecessary.

Question 35Software Testing Fundamentals

A test manager wants to measure how much of the code has been exercised by a test suite. Which metric is most direct for this purpose?

  1. Test execution time
  2. Mean time between failures
  3. Defect density
  4. Statement coverage Correct answer.

Explanation

Statement coverage measures the percentage of executable statements that have been run by tests. It directly indicates how much code has been exercised. Defect density and MTBF are reliability metrics, not coverage metrics.

Question 36Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester is using a tool that records the number of times each line of code is executed during a test run. Which type of testing is being supported?

  1. Usability testing
  2. White-box testing Correct answer.
  3. Acceptance testing
  4. Black-box testing

Explanation

White-box testing uses knowledge of the internal code structure to design tests. Tools that measure line execution support structural coverage, a white-box technique. Black-box testing relies on external behavior only.

Question 37Software Testing Fundamentals

A tester observes that a web application crashes when a user uploads a file larger than 10 MB. Which artifact should the tester create first?

  1. A test plan
  2. A defect report Correct answer.
  3. A requirement specification
  4. A test strategy

Explanation

When a failure is observed, the immediate action is to document it in a defect report. The report captures steps to reproduce, expected and actual results, and environment details. Test plans and strategies are created earlier in the process.

Question 38Software Testing Fundamentals

A team is selecting a test approach for a safety-critical system where failures could cause harm. Which consideration should most strongly influence the choice of test techniques?

  1. The cost of test execution
  2. The size of the test team
  3. The availability of test automation tools
  4. The risk associated with potential failures Correct answer.

Explanation

In safety-critical systems, risk drives the depth and rigor of testing. Techniques that provide strong assurance, such as formal methods and thorough coverage, are prioritized. Cost and team size are secondary to safety risk.

Question 39Software Testing Fundamentals

A developer writes a function that is supposed to return the sum of two integers. The function returns the concatenation of the two numbers as strings when both are positive. Which type of defect is this?

  1. A logic error Correct answer.
  2. A runtime error
  3. A syntax error
  4. A compilation error

Explanation

A logic error occurs when the code compiles and runs but produces incorrect results due to flawed reasoning. Here the function returns a string concatenation instead of a numeric sum. Syntax and compilation errors would prevent execution.

Question 40Software Testing Fundamentals

A test suite achieves 100% decision coverage but only 80% condition coverage. Which statement is necessarily true?

  1. Every possible path through the code has been executed
  2. Every condition in each decision has been evaluated both true and false
  3. Every decision has been evaluated both true and false at least once Correct answer.
  4. Every statement in the code has been executed at least once

Explanation

Decision coverage requires that each decision outcome (true and false) is exercised at least once. 100% decision coverage therefore guarantees that every decision has taken both outcomes. Condition coverage and path coverage are separate and not guaranteed.

Question 41Test Planning and Design

In a CAST-based test plan, which artifact defines the conditions that must be satisfied before a test cycle can be declared ready to execute?

  1. The requirements traceability matrix column for coverage
  2. The defect triage log from the previous cycle
  3. The entry criteria section of the test plan Correct answer.
  4. The test environment provisioning checklist

Explanation

Entry criteria are the agreed, verifiable conditions that must hold before execution begins, such as approved requirements, a stable build, and available environments. They give the test manager an objective gate for starting a cycle rather than a subjective judgement.

Question 42Test Planning and Design

A team is designing tests for a discount engine that applies percentage, fixed-amount, and stacking rules. Which test design technique is most appropriate for systematically covering combinations of rule types and boundary values?

  1. Checklist-based testing
  2. Error guessing
  3. Exploratory session-based testing
  4. Classification tree or combinatorial (pairwise) design Correct answer.

Explanation

Combinatorial and classification-tree methods let designers model independent factors such as rule type, order value band, and customer tier, then select a covering set of combinations. This gives systematic, traceable coverage of interaction risks that ad hoc approaches miss.

Question 43Test Planning and Design

A test analyst derives equivalence partitions for an age field that accepts integers from 18 to 65 inclusive. Which set of partitions correctly represents the valid and invalid classes?

  1. One valid class of 18 to 65 only, with no invalid classes needed
  2. Three valid classes: 18, 30, and 65
  3. Two classes: even numbers and odd numbers within the range
  4. One valid class of 18 to 65, and two invalid classes: below 18 and above 65 Correct answer.

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning divides the input domain into classes expected to be processed the same way. For a bounded integer range there is one valid class inside the bounds and two invalid classes outside them, one on each side.

Question 44Test Planning and Design

For a field that accepts a loan amount from 1,000 to 50,000 inclusive, which values form a complete two-value boundary analysis set?

  1. 999, 1,000, 50,000, and 50,001 Correct answer.
  2. 1,000 and 50,000 only
  3. 1,000, 25,500, and 50,000
  4. 0, 1,000, 50,000, and 100,000

Explanation

Two-value boundary analysis tests each boundary and its nearest neighbour on the outside. That yields 999 and 1,000 at the lower boundary and 50,000 and 50,001 at the upper boundary, exercising both accepted and rejected edges.

Question 45Test Planning and Design

A decision table for a claims system has four condition stubs, each with two possible values. Applying full decision-table coverage, how many rule columns must be designed before impossible combinations are collapsed?

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 16 Correct answer.
  4. 12

Explanation

A full decision table enumerates every combination of condition outcomes, so four binary conditions produce two to the fourth power, which is sixteen rule columns. Collapsing infeasible combinations afterwards reduces the executable set but does not change the initial enumeration.

Question 46Test Planning and Design

During test design for a payment gateway, the team must decide how deeply to test each interface. Which factor most directly justifies deeper, more rigorous test design for one interface over another?

  1. The interface was built by the newest team member
  2. The interface has the largest number of automated unit tests already
  3. The interface documentation was written most recently
  4. The interface handles authorisation and settlement with high transaction volume and regulatory exposure Correct answer.

Explanation

Risk-based test design allocates depth according to likelihood and impact of failure. Financial settlement with regulatory exposure and high volume carries high impact, so it warrants more rigorous techniques and coverage.

Question 47Test Planning and Design

Which statement best describes the purpose of a requirements traceability matrix in test planning and design?

  1. It records the execution status of each test case per cycle
  2. It maps requirements to the test conditions and cases that cover them, exposing gaps and orphans Correct answer.
  3. It captures the estimated effort for each test activity
  4. It lists the environments and data sets required for execution

Explanation

A traceability matrix links each requirement to the tests that verify it, which reveals uncovered requirements and tests with no requirement behind them. It is a coverage and scope-control instrument used throughout planning and design.

Question 48Test Planning and Design

A test designer must verify that a workflow engine correctly processes a sequence of states from draft through review to published, including rejection loops. Which technique is the most direct fit?

  1. Boundary value analysis
  2. State transition testing Correct answer.
  3. Equivalence partitioning
  4. Pairwise combinatorial testing

Explanation

State transition testing models the system as states, events, and transitions, and derives tests that cover valid transitions, invalid transitions, and loops. That matches a workflow with rejection paths far better than input-domain techniques.

Question 49Test Planning and Design

A team applies pairwise design to a configuration matrix with five factors, each having three values. What is the primary benefit compared with exhaustive combination testing?

  1. It eliminates the need for boundary value analysis on numeric fields
  2. It guarantees detection of every possible defect in the configuration space
  3. It removes the need to document expected results for each test
  4. It reduces the number of test cases while still covering every pair of factor values at least once Correct answer.

Explanation

Pairwise design covers all two-way interactions of factor values with far fewer cases than the full Cartesian product. It is justified by evidence that most interaction defects involve at most two factors, but it is not exhaustive.

Question 50Test Planning and Design

Which test design work product typically precedes and feeds the writing of detailed test cases in a structured test process?

  1. The defect closure record
  2. The test conditions derived from the test basis Correct answer.
  3. The production incident log
  4. The final test summary report

Explanation

Test conditions are the items or aspects to be verified, derived from the test basis such as requirements, designs, and risks. Detailed test cases are then designed to exercise those conditions, giving a traceable design chain.