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FVH Schweine practice questions

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Question 1Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

In a 3-week batch farrowing system, what is the principal management advantage of all-in/all-out (AIAO) room turnover combined with targeted downtime and disinfection?

  1. It allows continuous introduction of fresh replacement gilts into farrowing rooms
  2. It permanently prevents the entry of all airborne viruses from neighboring farms
  3. It breaks the infectious transmission cycle between older shedding batches and susceptible incoming animals Correct answer.
  4. It eliminates the necessity for routine cleaning of slats and slurry pits between batches

Explanation

All-in/all-out (AIAO) batch management ensures that rooms are completely emptied, washed with high-pressure detergent, disinfected, and thoroughly dried between cohorts. This breaks the transmission cycle of endemic viral and bacterial pathogens (such as E. coli, Rotavirus, Lawsonia, and respiratory agents) from older shedding animals to naive incoming groups.

Question 2Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

A farrowing unit identifies a cluster of trembling newborn piglets (congenital tremor type A-II). Which pathogen is the primary etiological agent responsible for this condition?

  1. Porcine Parvovirus type 1 (PPV1)
  2. Atypical Porcine Pestivirus (APPV) Correct answer.
  3. Swine Vesicular Disease Virus (SVDV)
  4. Brachyspira pilosicoli

Explanation

Atypical Porcine Pestivirus (APPV) is the established etiological agent of Congenital Tremor type A-II in newborn piglets. Transplacental infection during mid-gestation leads to hypomyelinogenesis of the central nervous system (spinal cord and cerebellum), resulting in whole-body tremors ('dancing piglet syndrome') that resolve if piglets can suckle successfully.

Question 3Swine reproduction, neonatal health and meaningful herd records

When calculating the farrowing rate (Abferkelrate) in a sow herd database, which mathematical formula is used?

  1. (Number of piglets weaned / Number of sows in herd) × 100
  2. (Number of gilts mated / Total number of pregnant sows) × 100
  3. (Number of sows that farrowed / Total number of sows mated in that service batch) × 100 Correct answer.
  4. (Number of live-born piglets / Total number of farrowing pens) × 100

Explanation

The farrowing rate is defined as the percentage of mated sows in a specific breeding batch that successfully farrow. It is calculated by dividing the number of sows farrowing by the total number of services (sows and gilts served) in that cohort, multiplied by 100. Target farrowing rates in well-managed herds typically exceed 85–90%.

Question 4Swine reproduction, neonatal health and meaningful herd records

A farrow-to-finish herd exhibits pre-weaning piglet mortality of 18%. An audit shows that 60% of all piglet deaths occur within the first 72 hours of life. Which epidemiological parameter is most critical to evaluate first?

  1. Mycotoxin contamination of the nursery post-weaning grower diet
  2. Finishing barn ventilation and ammonia levels
  3. Slaughterhouse pleurisy scoring of cull sows
  4. Colostrum intake, birth weight distribution, farrowing pen temperature, and sow lactation behavior Correct answer.

Explanation

Over 60–70% of pre-weaning piglet mortality globally occurs during the first 72 hours post-farrowing, primarily driven by the hypothermia-starvation-crushing complex. Initial investigation must focus on colostrum intake (adequate neonatal IgG ingestion), farrowing room thermal management (microclimate creep area 32–35°C vs sow comfort at 18–20°C), birth weight uniformity, and sow maternal behavior.

Question 5Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

Which statistical metric is calculated by dividing total feed consumed by total live weight gain over a specific production period in a finishing herd?

  1. Average Daily Gain (ADG / TZN)
  2. Carcass Lean Meat Percentage (MFA)
  3. Feed Conversion Ratio (FCR / Futterverwertung) Correct answer.
  4. Replacement Rate (Remontierungsrate)

Explanation

Feed Conversion Ratio (FCR / Futterverwertungsrate) is defined as kg of feed consumed per kg of live weight gain (Feed / Gain). In modern Swiss fattening pigs, target FCR values range from 2.4 to 2.8 kg feed per kg gain between 25 kg and 110 kg live weight.

Question 6Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

Which diagnostic parameter is primarily assessed when performing a water quality audit on a swine breeding and fattening facility?

  1. Total fat content and soluble starch percentage
  2. Vitamin A and selenium bioavailability
  3. Microbiological count (E. coli, coliforms), physicochemical parameters (pH, nitrates, sulfates, iron), and nipple flow rates Correct answer.
  4. Relative humidity and air velocity in the water lines

Explanation

A comprehensive water audit evaluates: 1) microbiological safety (total bacterial count <1000 CFU/mL, zero E. coli/coliforms), 2) physicochemical parameters (pH 6.5–8.5, iron <0.2 mg/L to prevent biofilm, sulfates <500 mg/L to avoid osmotic diarrhea, nitrates <50 mg/L), and 3) dynamic water flow rates (e.g., 0.5–1.0 L/min for weaners, 1.5–2.0 L/min for finishers, 2.0–4.0 L/min for lactating sows).

Question 7Veterinary pathology, specimens and interpretation

What is the primary epidemiological advantage of collecting pen-based oral fluids (rope sampling) compared to individual blood sampling for herd-level monitoring of PRRSV and Swine Influenza?

  1. Oral fluids provide higher individual diagnostic sensitivity than deep serum PCR for detecting early viremia
  2. Oral fluids allow non-invasive, cost-effective population-level aggregate surveillance of pathogen shedding across multiple pens Correct answer.
  3. Oral fluids completely eliminate maternal antibody interference in young suckling piglets
  4. Oral fluid sampling replaces the statutory requirement for individual blood collection in official Swiss epizootic disease eradication programs

Explanation

Pen-based oral fluid sampling utilizes absorbent cotton ropes chewed by pigs to collect aggregate saliva and transudate. This provides a non-invasive, cost-effective method for monitoring population-level pathogen circulation (such as PRRSV, PCV2, and SIV) across large groups without inducing restraint stress. It represents an aggregate diagnostic sample rather than an individual animal diagnostic test.

Question 8Veterinary pathology, specimens and interpretation

For a supplied conservative independent-sampling model with perfect detection, prevalence 0.05 and desired detection probability 0.95, use n = ceiling[ln(0.05)/ln(0.95)]. What sample count follows, rather than claiming the exact finite-population minimum for 500 pigs?

  1. 14 samples
  2. 28 samples
  3. 59 samples Correct answer.
  4. 120 samples

Explanation

The supplied formula gives approximately fifty-eight-point-four independent trials, so the smallest whole number meeting that model is fifty-nine. This is not the exact without-replacement hypergeometric minimum for a five-hundred-animal finite herd. Actual sample design also depends on test performance, clustering and the investigation objective.

Question 9Veterinary epidemiology, zoonoses and food-chain protection

A worker develops concerning illness after handling pigs during a confirmed Streptococcus suis event. Which response best respects the occupational zoonotic risk?

  1. Wait for every herd production record to be reconciled before seeking care.
  2. Assume an animal infection can never be relevant to a human illness.
  3. Use a livestock prescription on the worker without medical assessment.
  4. Arrange prompt human medical assessment and communicate the relevant exposure. Correct answer.

Explanation

Streptococcus suis can cause serious human disease, so the exposure should be communicated during prompt appropriate medical assessment. Veterinary investigation and worker protection are linked, but an animal prescription or a production-record review is not a substitute for human clinical care.

Question 10Species-aware pharmacology, anesthesia and welfare

Which listed resistance mechanism provides a scientific stewardship concern about colistin, without asserting one identical present legal classification or prescribing restriction in every jurisdiction?

  1. Discovery of plasmid-mediated colistin resistance genes (such as mcr-1 to mcr-9) transferable between animal and human Enterobacteriaceae, threatening colistin's critical role as a last-line therapy in human medicine for multi-drug resistant Gram-negative infections (e.g., carbapenem-resistant Klebsiella and Pseudomonas) Correct answer.
  2. Colistin causes immediate anaphylactic cardiac arrest in over 90% of treated pigs
  3. Colistin degrades within 30 seconds of contact with pig saliva, making oral therapy chemically impossible
  4. Colistin was found to stimulate hypersecretion of growth hormone causing gigantism in pigs

Explanation

Mobile mcr-associated resistance can spread through genetic elements among relevant bacteria, creating a stewardship concern across animal and human health. Actual susceptibility, indications and current prescribing requirements matter. This mechanism does not establish that every organism carries those genes or that one legal rule applies identically throughout Europe.

Question 11Species-aware pharmacology, anesthesia and welfare

In porcine therapeutics, which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) exhibits preferential cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) selectivity, is authorized in Switzerland for alleviating post-farrowing inflammation in PDS/MMA and post-castration pain in piglets, and possesses a favorable gastrointestinal safety profile?

  1. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) at high daily oral doses
  2. Meloxicam Correct answer.
  3. Indomethacin
  4. Phenylbutazone

Explanation

Meloxicam is an oxicam-class NSAID with preferential COX-2 inhibitory selectivity over constitutive COX-1. In swine, it is licensed and extensively used for reducing pain and inflammation associated with MMA/PDS, non-infectious locomotor disorders, and perioperative analgesia during piglet castration. Its COX-2 selectivity provides effective anti-inflammatory and analgesic efficacy while preserving homeostatic gastric mucosal prostacyclin synthesis.

Question 12Swiss veterinary duties, antimicrobial records and food-chain decisions

Senecavirus A (Seneca Valley Virus) infection in finishing pigs produces vesicular lesions on the snout, lips, and coronary bands that are clinically indistinguishable from Foot and Mouth Disease. What is the immediate legal obligation of the attending veterinarian upon encountering these lesions in Switzerland?

  1. Prescribe broad-spectrum in-feed tetracyclines and recheck in 10 days
  2. Recommend immediate slaughter of the affected pen without notifying anyone
  3. Apply topically an iodine spray and monitor daily weight gain
  4. Immediately notify the Cantonal Veterinary Office (Kantonstierarzt) as an urgent suspicion of a notifiable vesicular epizootic Correct answer.

Explanation

Because vesicular lesions on the snout, oral mucosa, or coronary bands are clinically identical to Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Swine Vesicular Disease (SVD), and Vesicular Stomatitis, the veterinarian is legally bound under the Swiss Epizootic Diseases Act (TSG) to report the case immediately to the cantonal authorities. Differential laboratory testing (RT-qPCR) must rule out FMD before any other action is taken.

Question 13Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which listed porcine macrophage receptor is important in PRRS-virus susceptibility and genome-release processes, rather than asserting that one modification guarantees resistance to every possible virus variant?

  1. Integrin alpha-v beta-6
  2. Sialoadhesin (CD169) only, without involvement of scavenger receptors
  3. CD163 (scavenger receptor cysteine-rich domain 5) Correct answer.
  4. Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4)

Explanation

CD163 has an important role in PRRS-virus infection of susceptible porcine macrophages, and its domains have been investigated in resistance strategies. Attachment, entry and genome release involve distinct steps and other factors. The mechanism does not justify a universal claim that every edited animal resists every viral variant under all conditions.

Question 14Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which listed named RTX toxin group is associated with Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, recognizing that individual toxins differ in expression and activity and not every isolate expresses an identical set?

  1. RTX toxins ApxI, ApxII, ApxIII, and ApxIV Correct answer.
  2. Alpha, Beta, Epsilon, and Iota enterotoxins
  3. Dermonecrotic toxin PMT and pertussis-like adenylate cyclase
  4. Heat-labile (LT) and heat-stable (STa/STb) enterotoxins

Explanation

APP is associated with the named Apx RTX toxin family, whose members differ in hemolytic and cytotoxic properties and in expression among isolates or conditions. Pore-forming activity contributes to relevant tissue injury. A family list does not mean every toxin or serotype produces an identical lesion or clinical course.

Question 15Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

What is the primary pathological mechanism by which Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to secondary bacterial bronchopneumonia (e.g., Pasteurella multocida, Trueperella pyogenes)?

  1. Systemic destruction of bone marrow megakaryocytes causing severe thrombocytopenia
  2. Adherence to tracheal and bronchial ciliated epithelium via adhesin P97, causing ciliostasis, loss of cilia, and breakdown of the mucociliary escalator Correct answer.
  3. Acute mucosal ulceration of the pars esophagea in the stomach
  4. Direct osteolytic destruction of the ventral nasal conchae

Explanation

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae adheres specifically to the ciliated respiratory epithelial cells of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles via surface adhesins (such as P97). This binding causes ciliostasis, clumping, and exfoliation of cilia, destroying the mucociliary escalator. This allows opportunistic pathogens to penetrate the lower airways unimpeded, resulting in the characteristic cranioventral enzootic bronchopneumonia.

Question 16Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which microbiological and phenotypic characteristic definitively differentiates classic Brachyspira hyodysenteriae from the milder spirochete Brachyspira pilosicoli on selective blood agar culture?

  1. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae is an obligate aerobe, whereas B. pilosicoli is strictly anaerobic
  2. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae produces Gram-positive non-motile spores
  3. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae exhibits strong (complete/beta) hemolysis and ring-phenomenon, whereas B. pilosicoli exhibits weak (incomplete/alpha) hemolysis Correct answer.
  4. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae grows exclusively on MacConkey agar forming pink colonies

Explanation

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae (the causative agent of classic swine dysentery) is characterized by strong beta-hemolysis with a clear clearing zone (and ring phenomenon) on selective anaerobic blood agar. In contrast, Brachyspira pilosicoli (agent of porcine spirochaetal colitis) produces only weak/incomplete beta-hemolysis. PCR speciation targeting tlyA, nox, and 16S rRNA is used for definitive confirmation.

Question 17Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

What is the underlying immunological pathogenesis of Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome (PDNS) in grower-finisher pigs?

  1. Type III hypersensitivity reaction characterized by systemic deposition of antigen-antibody immune complexes in cutaneous capillaries and renal glomeruli Correct answer.
  2. Type I IgE-mediated anaphylactic mast cell degranulation triggered by feed allergens
  3. Direct cytotoxic lysis of renal tubular epithelium by bacterial endotoxins
  4. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic islet beta cells

Explanation

PDNS is a classic Type III hypersensitivity (immune-complex mediated) disease. Circulating antigen-antibody complexes (predominantly associated with PCV2, and occasionally PRRSV) deposit within the walls of post-capillary venules and glomeruli, activating complement and neutrophils to cause systemic necrotizing vasculitis and bilateral fibrino-necrotizing glomerulonephritis with enlarged pale kidneys and multifocal cutaneous infarctions.

Question 18Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which combination of gross pathological post-mortem lesions is most suggestive of acute Classical Swine Fever (CSFV / Pestivirus)?

  1. Severe fibrous pericarditis and pleuritis without visceral hemorrhages
  2. Massive diffuse pulmonary emphysema with milk spots in the liver
  3. Bilateral symmetrical polyarthritis and gastric ulcers
  4. Widespread petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages in kidneys (turkey-egg appearance), peripheral hemorrhage of lymph nodes (marble appearance), and marginal splenic infarcts Correct answer.

Explanation

Acute Classical Swine Fever (CSF) causes severe vascular endothelial damage and thrombocytopenia. Characteristic lesions include subcapsular petechiation of the kidneys ('turkey-egg kidney'), congested lymph nodes with prominent peripheral/subcapsular hemorrhages ('marbled lymph nodes'), pathognomonic triangular marginal splenic infarcts, button ulcers in the cecum/colon, and widespread petechiae on serosal surfaces.

Question 19Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

In a classical non-suid pseudorabies teaching scenario, which listed severe neurological and pruritic syndrome can occur in susceptible aberrant hosts, without making a current Swiss disease-free-status claim?

  1. Chronic intermittent lameness without neurological impairment
  2. Intense, unremitting localized pruritus ('mad itch' / tollwutähnlicher Juckreiz), self-mutilation, acute CNS signs, and rapid death Correct answer.
  3. Asymptomatic lifelong carrier state with high serum neutralization titers
  4. Severe acute diarrhea and vomiting resolving within 48 hours

Explanation

Severe neurological disease with intense localized pruritus can be a classical pseudorabies presentation in susceptible non-suid hosts. Presentation and course vary, so this is not an absolute requirement in every animal or a numerical time-to-death rule. A real suspect event needs qualified veterinary investigation and the appropriate biosafe pathway.

Question 20Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which listed lesion constellation is classically associated with systemic Glaesserella parasuis disease, rather than being pathognomonic proof from gross appearance alone?

  1. Hyperkeratosis and scaling of the snout without internal organ involvement
  2. Acute hemorrhagic diarrhea with necrotic mucosal casts in the spiral colon
  3. Fibrinous polyserositis (pleuritis, pericarditis, peritonitis), fibrino-purulent polyarthritis, and fibrinous leptomeningitis Correct answer.
  4. Severe bilateral hydronephrosis with ureteral dilation

Explanation

Fibrinous inflammation involving several serosal surfaces, joints and meninges is a classic systemic Glasser disease pattern. Other causes can overlap, so the lesions do not establish the organism by themselves. Integrate clinical context, representative specimens and appropriate laboratory evidence, including possible coinfections and sampling limitations.

Question 21Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

What is the primary public health concern regarding Streptococcus suis serotype 2 infections in swine production?

  1. It is a major zoonotic pathogen causing severe purulent meningitis, septicemia, and permanent sensorineural hearing loss in humans handling raw pork or infected pigs Correct answer.
  2. It produces enterotoxins that survive cooking and cause human staphylococcal-like food poisoning
  3. It causes widespread milk contamination in dairy cows co-housed on pig farms
  4. It triggers avian leukosis when wild birds enter pig barns

Explanation

Streptococcus suis (especially serotype 2) is a serious zoonotic pathogen transmitted through cutaneous abrasions or mucosal exposure to swine blood/fluids. In occupational workers (veterinarians, farmers, slaughterhouse personnel), it causes fulminant bacteremia, toxic shock-like syndrome, purulent meningitis, and a high incidence (>50%) of permanent bilateral sensorineural deafness.

Question 22Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

What epidemiological phenomenon makes swine a critical 'mixing vessel' for the generation of novel pandemic Influenza A virus strains?

  1. Pigs possess anucleated respiratory epithelial cells that replicate viruses without immune detection
  2. Swine tracheal epithelium co-expresses both alpha-2,3-linked (avian-preferred) and alpha-2,6-linked (human-preferred) sialic acid receptors Correct answer.
  3. Pigs cannot produce neutralizing antibodies against hemagglutinin
  4. Influenza viruses in pigs mutate exclusively via bacterial horizontal gene transfer

Explanation

Swine respiratory epithelial cells uniquely express both NeuAc(alpha-2,3)Gal (avian-type) and NeuAc(alpha-2,6)Gal (human-type) sialic acid receptor linkages. This permits dual co-infection of a single porcine cell with avian and human/swine influenza strains, facilitating genetic reassortment (antigenic shift) of segmented viral RNA into novel pandemic strains.

Question 23Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

What is the hallmark microscopic histological lesion of Porcine Intestinal Adenomatosis (PIA) caused by Lawsonia intracellularis in the terminal ileum?

  1. Complete transmural infarction with gas bubble formation in the serosa
  2. Severe granulomatous lymphadenitis with multinucleated giant cells
  3. Marked enterocyte hyperplasia of immature crypt epithelium containing curved intracellular bacteria demonstrated by Warthin-Starry silver staining Correct answer.
  4. Eosinophilic infiltration of the submucosa without epithelial proliferation

Explanation

Lawsonia intracellularis is an obligate intracellular Gram-negative bacterium that invades dividing enterocytes in the intestinal crypts. It drives continuous proliferation and hyperplasia of immature crypt epithelial cells without goblet cells, thickening the ileal mucosa ('garden-hose gut'). Warthin-Starry or Steiner silver stains reveal numerous curved rod-shaped bacteria located in the apical cytoplasm of hyperplastic crypt cells.

Question 24Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which pathogen and associated virulence factor are responsible for Progressive Atrophic Rhinitis (PAR / Rhinitis atrophicans) characterized by irreversible osteolytic atrophy of the nasal turbinate bones and snout deviation?

  1. Mycoplasma hyorhinis adhesins
  2. Staphylococcus hyicus exfoliative toxin C
  3. Swine pox virus inclusion proteins
  4. Toxigenic Pasteurella multocida (capsular type D or A) producing the dermonecrotic Pasteurella multocida toxin (PMT) Correct answer.

Explanation

Progressive Atrophic Rhinitis (PAR) is caused by toxigenic strains of Pasteurella multocida (producing PMT / dermonecrotic toxin), typically following pre-damage of the nasal mucosa by Bordetella bronchiseptica or ammonia. PMT stimulates osteoclasts and suppresses osteoblastic bone formation, leading to severe, progressive osteolysis and complete atrophy of the ventral and dorsal turbinate scrolls and facial distortion.

Question 25Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which virulence factor produced by virulent strains of Staphylococcus hyicus cleaves desmoglein-1 in the stratum spinosum of porcine epidermis, causing Exudative Epidermitis (Greasy Pig Disease)?

  1. Streptolysin O
  2. Hemolysin BL
  3. Endotoxin Lipid A
  4. Exfoliative toxins (ExhA, ExhB, ExhC, ExhD / SHET) Correct answer.

Explanation

Staphylococcus hyicus produces specific exfoliative toxins (ExhA, ExhB, ExhC, ExhD) that act as serine proteases specifically cleaving the intercellular adhesion molecule desmoglein-1 in the stratum spinosum. This causes intraepidermal blister formation, detachment of the superficial stratum corneum, and profuse exudation of sebum, serum, and debris (greasy skin crusts).

Question 26Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which biovar of Brucella suis is widely endemic in European wild boar (Sus scrofa) populations, representing a major biosecurity hazard for outdoor-housed domestic pigs in Switzerland?

  1. Brucella suis biovar 1
  2. Brucella suis biovar 2 Correct answer.
  3. Brucella suis biovar 4
  4. Brucella suis biovar 5

Explanation

Brucella suis biovar 2 is the predominant biovar circulating in wild boars and European brown hares across central and western Europe, including Switzerland. In contrast to biovars 1 and 3 (which are highly pathogenic and zoonotic), biovar 2 has low zoonotic potential for humans but causes reproductive failure, orchitis, mummification, and systemic granulomas in domestic swine following direct or indirect contact with wild boars.

Question 27Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which combination of fimbrial adhesins and enterotoxins characterizes classic neonatal Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) responsible for severe watery secretory diarrhea in piglets during the first 3 days of life?

  1. F18 fimbriae combined exclusively with Shiga-toxin 2e (Stx2e)
  2. F4 (K88), F5 (K99), or F6 (987P) fimbriae combined with Heat-Stable (STa/STb) and/or Heat-Labile (LT) enterotoxins Correct answer.
  3. Intimin (eae) adhesin combined with Cytolethal Distending Toxin (CDT)
  4. Type IV bundle-forming pili combined with alpha-hemolysin (HlyA) only

Explanation

Neonatal porcine ETEC colonizes the small intestinal enterocytes via specific fimbrial adhesins-primarily F4 (K88), F5 (K99), F6 (987P), and F41. Once adhered, they elaborate heat-stable (STa, STb) and/or heat-labile (LT) enterotoxins. These toxins hyperstimulate enterocyte adenylate cyclase (LT) or guanylate cyclase (STa), causing massive net secretion of electrolytes (Na+, Cl-, HCO3-) and water into the intestinal lumen without causing histological villous blunting.

Question 28Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

A litter of 2-day-old piglets develops acute bloody diarrhea, rapid collapse, and near 100% mortality. Necropsy reveals dark red, emphysematous, necrotizing hemorrhagic jejunitis with mucosal necrosis. What is the definitive causative agent and its key lethal virulence factor?

  1. Clostridium perfringens Type A producing exclusively alpha toxin and enterotoxin (CPE)
  2. Clostridioides difficile producing toxins A and B in the spiral colon
  3. Clostridium perfringens Type C producing trypsin-labile beta toxin (CPB) Correct answer.
  4. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae producing strong beta-hemolytic cytotoxins in the cecum

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens Type C causes acute necrotizing enteritis in piglets less than 7 days old. Its major lethal factor is beta toxin (CPB), a pore-forming necrotizing toxin. Neonatal piglets are exceptionally vulnerable because colostral trypsin inhibitors prevent the proteolytic degradation of the trypsin-labile beta toxin, allowing extensive necrosis of the jejunal mucosa, transmural hemorrhage, and emphysema.

Question 29Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Which histological and pathophysiological feature distinguishes Porcine Rotavirus (predominantly Group A) infection in 1- to 3-week-old piglets from secretory ETEC diarrhea?

  1. Rotavirus selectively infects and destroys mature enterocytes on the tips and upper halves of small intestinal villi, causing villous atrophy, malabsorptive/osmotic diarrhea, and secondary lactase deficiency, unlike ETEC which induces pure secretory diarrhea without villous blunting Correct answer.
  2. Rotavirus produces heat-stable enterotoxin causing crypt hyperplasia without any loss of villus height
  3. Rotavirus exclusively replicates in the submucosal Brunner's glands of the duodenum without affecting jejunal enterocytes
  4. Rotavirus causes transmural infarction and colon perforation indistinguishable from acute mesenteric volvulus

Explanation

Rotaviruses infect and lyse the mature ciliated enterocytes of the mid-to-distal small intestine (jejunum and ileum), leading to blunting and fusion of intestinal villi. The loss of enterocyte brush-border digestive enzymes (particularly lactase) causes undigested lactose to accumulate in the lumen, drawing water osmotically into the bowel (malabsorptive/osmotic diarrhea). In contrast, ETEC adheres without damaging enterocyte architecture, causing pure hypersecretory diarrhea.

Question 30Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

At post-mortem abattoir inspection, how does the anatomical distribution of chronic pleurisy (graded via SPES / BPEX pleurisy scoring) distinguish lesions caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae (APP) from those secondary to Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae pneumonia?

  1. APP causes exclusively tracheal ulceration, whereas Mycoplasma affects only the urinary bladder
  2. APP typically induces severe, localized fibrinous/fibrous pleurisy over the dorsocaudal diaphragmatic lung lobes (often accompanied by underlying necrotizing sequelae), whereas Mycoplasma-associated pleurisy is typically cranioventral and secondary to chronic anterior bronchopneumonia consolidation Correct answer.
  3. APP causes only pleural effusion without fibrin, whereas Mycoplasma causes generalized pleural mineralization
  4. There is no anatomical difference; both pathogens produce identical lesions confined to the visceral pleura of the heart

Explanation

The listed distributions describe useful classical associations: APP can cause severe pleuropneumonic injury, while enzootic pneumonia often has a cranioventral pattern. Lesions and coinfections overlap, and distribution alone does not definitively identify a pathogen. Use the relevant scoring scheme, specimens and herd context without transferring one score to another system.

Question 31Swine reproduction, neonatal health and meaningful herd records

A producer observes a sudden increase in non-productive days (NPD / Leertage) in a sow herd. What is the definition of a Non-Productive Day in sow herd recording?

  1. Days when the farm manager is absent from the breeding barn
  2. Days spent by gestating sows in outdoor exercise yards
  3. Days when gilts are fed ad libitum prior to first mating
  4. Any day an adult breeding female is neither gestating nor lactating Correct answer.

Explanation

The stated recording convention counts breeding-female days outside gestation or lactation as nonproductive days. Specify when females enter and leave the monitored pool and apply the same convention across periods. The count can support investigation but does not establish a universal profitability target or one biological cause of increased open time.

Question 32Swine reproduction, neonatal health and meaningful herd records

In the pathogenesis of Postpartum Dysgalactia Syndrome (PDS / MMA) in sows, what is the central endocrine-immunological mechanism responsible for the sudden inhibition of milk ejection and agalactia within 12 to 48 hours post-farrowing?

  1. Absorption of coliform lipopolysaccharide (LPS) endotoxins triggers massive systemic release of pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-α, IL-1, IL-6), suppressing prolactin secretion and blocking oxytocin receptors in mammary tissue Correct answer.
  2. Direct ascending streptococcal colonization destroys all mammary glandular alveoli within 6 hours of farrowing, causing irreversible tissue necrosis
  3. Severe hypocalcemia reduces intracellular acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction of the myoepithelial cells, preventing milk let-down without inflammatory mediators
  4. Excessive endogenous progesterone synthesis by persistent corpora lutea prevents prolactin binding to lactotrophic receptors in the anterior pituitary

Explanation

PDS (formerly termed Metritis-Mastitis-Agalactia / MMA) is primarily driven by endotoxemia. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) derived from Gram-negative coliforms (especially Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp. originating from the intestinal tract, urogenital canal, or subclinical mastitis) stimulate pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-α, IL-1, IL-6). These cytokines suppress pituitary prolactin secretion and disrupt oxytocin receptor signaling on mammary myoepithelial cells, leading to acute failure of milk ejection and hypogalactia.

Question 33Swine reproduction, neonatal health and meaningful herd records

When excessive lactational body-condition loss has been established in a sow, which listed subsequent reproductive and welfare pattern can be consistent with that assessment, rather than a guaranteed response at one universal numerical cutoff?

  1. Prolonged Weaning-to-Estrus Interval (WEI >6–7 days), increased incidence of anestrus, smaller subsequent litter size (Second Litter Syndrome), and elevated risk of shoulder decubital ulcers (Schultergeschwüre) Correct answer.
  2. Immediate development of hyperthyroidism and permanent lactation without cyclicity
  3. Total cessation of colostrogenesis in all subsequent pregnancies
  4. Spontaneous transformation of maternal blood group antigens causing neonatal isoerythrolysis

Explanation

Marked loss of body reserves can be associated with delayed reproductive recovery and welfare concerns in the relevant sow. The size and direction of effects depend on the animal, production stage, nutrition and other disease or management factors. A body-condition measurement does not guarantee the same interval or next-litter outcome for every sow.

Question 34Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

In a herd health investigation of severe tail-biting lesions in finishing pigs, which multivariate risk factor analysis approach should the herd veterinarian prioritize?

  1. Immediate blanket antimicrobial mass medication of all pens via drinking water
  2. Single-factor analysis focusing solely on dietary crude protein percentage
  3. Holistic auditing of environmental enrichment quality, air drafts/gas concentrations, stocking density, feeder space, and enteric health Correct answer.
  4. Routine tail docking of all remaining pigs in the finishing pens

Explanation

Tail biting is an abnormal, multi-factorial behavioral disorder triggered by systemic stress. An audit must simultaneously examine: 1) lack of manipulable enrichment (straw, roughage, wood), 2) ventilation failure (drafts, fluctuating temperature, ammonia/CO2), 3) competition for resources (inadequate feeder/drinker space, overstocking), and 4) underlying subclinical gut or respiratory disease. Tail docking is legally prohibited in Switzerland under TSchV without strict veterinary medical indication and anesthesia.

Question 35Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

A breeding herd experiences an outbreak of hyperestrogenism in prepubertal replacement gilts, characterized by swelling and hyperemia of the vulva (vulvovaginitis), mammary enlargement, and rectal prolapses. Sows show prolonged luteal phases (pseudopregnancy). Which mycotoxin and cellular mechanism is responsible?

  1. Fumonisin B1 inhibiting ceramide synthase and damaging pulmonary capillary endothelium
  2. Ochratoxin A inhibiting renal phenylalanine-tRNA synthetase causing proximal tubular atrophy
  3. Zearalenone (ZEN), a Fusarium mycotoxin that functions as a partial agonist at estrogen receptors (ER-α and ER-β), mimicking hyperestrogenism Correct answer.
  4. Aflatoxin B1 forming DNA adducts in hepatocyte microsomes causing acute hepatic lipidosis

Explanation

Zearalenone (ZEN) is a resorcylic acid lactone produced by Fusarium graminearum and F. culmorum on cereal grains. Swine are exceptionally sensitive to ZEN because its chemical structure mimics 17β-estradiol, binding with high affinity to estrogen receptors. In prepubertal gilts, concentrations as low as 1–3 mg/kg feed induce pronounced vulvovaginitis, vaginal/rectal prolapse, and false estrus. In mature sows, it maintains persistent corpora lutea, causing pseudopregnancy and anestrus.

Question 36Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

A batch of finishing pigs shows a sharp, sudden reduction in daily feed intake, vomiting, and impaired daily gain after introduction of a new grain shipment. Lab analysis confirms Deoxynivalenol (DON / Vomitoxin). What is the primary cellular mechanism of DON toxicity in swine?

  1. Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels in peripheral sensory nerves
  2. Destruction of gastric parietal cells leading to complete anchlorhydria
  3. Direct competitive antagonism of insulin receptors in skeletal muscle
  4. Binding to the 60S ribosomal subunit inhibiting protein synthesis (ribotoxic stress response), stimulating pro-inflammatory cytokine release and neuroendocrine satiety signaling via serotonin and peptide YY Correct answer.

Explanation

Deoxynivalenol (DON) is a type B trichothecene mycotoxin. It binds to the peptidyl transferase center of 60S eukaryotic ribosomes, activating mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) via the 'ribotoxic stress response'. This triggers intense up-regulation of pro-inflammatory cytokines and induces peripheral/central secretion of serotonin (5-HT) and peptide YY (PYY), which act on the vomiting center (area postrema) to cause feed refusal, emesis, and intestinal barrier disruption.

Question 37Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

Why is precision phase feeding using Standardized Ileal Digestible (SID) amino acids-specifically balancing the SID Lysine to Net Energy (NE) ratio-implemented in modern Swiss swine production?

  1. To accurately match changing amino acid requirements across grower and finisher stages, maximizing protein deposition while minimizing surplus dietary crude protein, nitrogen excretion, and slurry ammonia emissions Correct answer.
  2. To completely replace the requirement for dietary water in the barn
  3. To prevent the development of porcine circovirus infection through metabolic starvation
  4. To ensure that all dietary carbohydrates are fermented into methane within the stomach

Explanation

As pigs grow from 25 kg to 110 kg slaughter weight, their relative requirement for amino acids per unit of net energy declines because fat deposition increases and muscle protein deposition plateaus. Formulating diets on a Standardized Ileal Digestible (SID) amino acid basis across 3 to 4 distinct feeding phases optimizes lean growth efficiency, prevents wasteful catabolism of excess crude protein, and significantly reduces urinary nitrogen excretion, directly lowering ammonia emissions from manure.

Question 38Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

An assessed pig-welfare plan specifies continuous access to suitable exploratory material. Which listed arrangement best follows that supplied plan rather than relying on a bare metal chain alone?

  1. A plain suspended galvanized iron chain without organic material fully satisfies all Swiss legal enrichment standards
  2. Enrichment is only required for breeding boars, while piglets and fatteners do not require any manipulable substrate
  3. Enrichment can be completely substituted by playing radio music at high volume in the barn
  4. Pigs must have continuous access to sufficient quantities of manipulable, chewable, rootable, and preferably edible organic material (such as straw, hay, silage, wood, or roughage) that satisfies their innate foraging and exploring instincts Correct answer.

Explanation

Suitable material allows relevant exploratory, manipulative, chewing or rooting behavior under the actual animal and housing conditions. An object name or the existence of a bare chain does not establish that the need is met. Assess accessibility, suitability and actual welfare, alongside the current applicable Swiss requirements.

Question 39Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

A group of fattening pigs develops acute neurological signs-wandering aimlessly, blindness, dog-sitting posture, head pressing, and epileptiform seizures-24 hours after an unobserved mechanical failure of the drinker supply line was repaired and pigs drank voraciously. What is the diagnosis and its pathognomonic histopathological brain lesion?

  1. Aujeszky's disease with non-suppurative ganglioneuritis and intranuclear inclusion bodies
  2. Streptococcus suis meningitis with diffuse purulent leptomeningeal exudation
  3. Water deprivation / Salt toxicity (Sodium ion toxicosis) with laminar cortical necrosis and eosinophilic perivascular cuffing (meningoencephalitis) Correct answer.
  4. Selenium toxicity with symmetrical bilateral poliomyelomalacia of the lumbar spinal cord

Explanation

Water deprivation / salt poisoning occurs when restricted water intake leads to hypernatremia; sodium passively diffuses into the cerebrospinal fluid and cerebral tissues. When unlimited fresh water is suddenly restored, water rapidly enters the hyperosmolar brain cells along the osmotic gradient, causing acute cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, and cerebral cortical ischemia (laminar necrosis). The hallmark histopathological lesion in swine is eosinophilic perivascular cuffing in the cerebral cortex and meninges.

Question 40Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

In a herd experiencing sudden deaths in finishing pigs with profound pallor and black tarry feces (melena), necropsy demonstrates severe ulceration of the Pars oesophagea of the stomach with massive intra-gastric hemorrhage. What major dietary physical factor is the primary predisposing cause?

  1. Finely ground feed with small particle size (<400–500 µm) and pelleted rations, which increase stomach fluidity and allow hydrochloric acid/bile to erode the non-glandular stratified squamous epithelium Correct answer.
  2. Excessive coarse whole cereal grains (>1500 µm) and long straw in the diet
  3. High concentrations of dietary calcium carbonate acting as an alkaline buffer
  4. Inclusion of organic acids (formic and propionic acid) at 0.5% in the feed

Explanation

Gastric ulceration of the non-glandular Pars oesophagea occurs because finely ground feeds (<400–500 µm mean particle diameter) and pelleted diets increase the fluidity of gastric contents. This breaks down the normal viscosity stratification of the stomach, allowing highly acidic gastric juice and bile acids from the ventral glandular region to splash against the unprotected stratified squamous epithelium of the Pars oesophagea, inducing hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, erosions, and fatal arterial ulceration.

Question 41Swine nutrition, water, environmental conditions and welfare

Osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD) and secondary arthrosis are leading causes of locomotor failure, sow culling, and carcass trimming in finishing pigs. What is the primary pathogenesis and most frequent anatomical predilection site for OCD in swine?

  1. Septic bacterial infection of the intervertebral discs caused by Erysipelothrix
  2. Autoimmune destruction of the synovial membrane of the temporomandibular joint
  3. Excessive intake of dietary vitamin C causing bone demineralization
  4. Failure of endochondral ossification due to focal ischemia of growth cartilage vessels (ischemic chondronecrosis), leading to cartilage necrosis, fissure formation, and subchondral bone clefts; predominantly affecting the medial condyle of the distal femur and the humeral condyle (elbow joint) Correct answer.

Explanation

Porcine Osteochondrosis (OC) is a non-infectious developmental disorder of growing cartilage caused by failure of endochondral ossification. Focal failure of the cartilage canal blood supply leads to ischemic chondronecrosis of the growth cartilage (epiphyseal or physeal). Mechanical loading on the necrotic cartilage causes cartilage clefts, separation of a cartilage flap into the joint cavity (Osteochondrosis dissecans / OCD), and degenerative joint disease. The medial condyle of the distal femur (stifle) and the humeral condyle (elbow) are the primary predilection sites.

Question 42Veterinary pathology, specimens and interpretation

In a herd investigating recurring post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome, what specific diagnostic criteria must ALL be fulfilled to confirm a clinical diagnosis of PCV2-Systemic Disease (PCV2-SD / PMWS) in an individual pig?

  1. Clinical signs of wasting/dyspnea, characteristic lymphoid depletion with histiocytic inflammation, and moderate-to-high PCV2 antigen/DNA within lesions Correct answer.
  2. Presence of PCV2 antibodies in serum by ELISA, normal lymphoid histology, and absence of fever
  3. High PCV2 DNA load in pen oral fluids, normal body condition, and concurrent Actinobacillus infection
  4. Isolation of PCV2 from nasal swabs, low serum antibody titer, and elevated lung lesion score

Explanation

The universally accepted diagnostic criteria for PCV2-Systemic Disease (PCV2-SD) require the triad of: 1) compatible clinical signs (wasting, unthriftiness, respiratory signs, pallor), 2) characteristic histological lesions in lymphoid tissue (lymphoid depletion and granulomatous/histiocytic infiltration), and 3) demonstration of moderate to high amounts of PCV2 antigen or viral DNA within the microscopic lesions (via IHC or ISH).

Question 43Veterinary pathology, specimens and interpretation

When interpreting a diagnostic test with 90% sensitivity and 95% specificity applied to a low-prevalence disease population (true prevalence = 1%), what is the expected impact on the Positive Predictive Value (PPV)?

  1. The PPV will be above 95% because test specificity is high
  2. The PPV will be substantially reduced (often <20%), meaning most positive test results will be false positives Correct answer.
  3. The PPV is mathematically independent of true disease prevalence
  4. The PPV will equal the test sensitivity (90%)

Explanation

Under the stipulated one-percent prevalence, ninety-percent sensitivity and ninety-five-percent specificity, the expected positive predictive value is 0.009/(0.009+0.0495), approximately fifteen-point-four percent. Most positives in that model are false positives. The model assumptions and actual confirmation pathway matter; the result does not prescribe one universal test sequence.

Question 44Veterinary pathology, specimens and interpretation

What is the primary epidemiological purpose of monitoring 'Sentinels' (naive indicator pigs) in high-health breeding herds or AI boar stations?

  1. To test palatability of experimental roughage batches
  2. To act as highly susceptible, seronegative biosensors that rapidly seroconvert upon introduction of an undetected subclinical pathogen Correct answer.
  3. To produce excess colostrum for cross-fostering
  4. To stimulate aggressive behavior among young boars

Explanation

Sentinel animals are immunologically naive (seronegative, unvaccinated) pigs housed in direct or indirect contact with the resident herd or incoming animals. Because they have no maternal or vaccine-induced antibodies, they serve as sensitive biological indicators: regular serological testing of sentinels allows early detection of pathogen introduction (e.g., PRRSV, APP, M. hyo) before wide dissemination occurs.

Question 45Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

During post-mortem inspection of market hogs, multiple white, fibrous, starlike spots are observed beneath the liver capsule ('milk spot liver' / 乳斑肝). Which parasite's larval migration through the hepatic parenchyma causes this pathognomonic lesion?

  1. Ascaris suum (猪蛔虫幼虫移行) Correct answer.
  2. Metastrongylus apri (猪后圆线虫)
  3. Stephanurus dentatus (猪肾虫)
  4. Oesophagostomum dentatum (猪结节线虫)

Explanation

When infective eggs of Ascaris suum (pig roundworm) hatch in the gut, L3 larvae penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate via the portal vein to the liver. Their destructive migration and resulting eosinophilic inflammatory fibrosis produce hallmark chronic white interstitial hepatitis patches termed 'milk spots' (乳斑肝).

Question 46Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

A pig breeding farm experiences widespread reproductive failure in pregnant sows (late-term abortions, mummified fetuses, stillbirths) along with severe interstitial pneumonia, eyelid edema, and blue-purple discoloration of the ears in nursery piglets ('Blue-Ear Disease' / 蓝耳病). What pathogen is responsible?

  1. Porcine Parvovirus (PPV / 猪细小病毒)
  2. Swine Influenza Virus (SIV / 猪流感病毒)
  3. Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus (PRRSV / 猪繁殖与呼吸综合征病毒 - Arteriviridae) Correct answer.
  4. Japanese Encephalitis Virus (JEV / 乙型脑炎病毒)

Explanation

The combined reproductive and respiratory herd pattern makes PRRS virus the most consistent listed cause in this teaching scenario. Clinical signs alone do not exclude other serious infections or coinfection. Representative testing and the relevant veterinary authority pathway are needed for a real herd event; no animal movement or vaccine programme is prescribed by this answer.

Question 47Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Nursery and growing pigs (6–12 weeks old) present with progressive emaciation, dyspnea, pallor, rough hair coat, and generalized enlargement of superficial inguinal lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy enlarged 3–5 times). Histopathology reveals marked depletion of lymphoid follicles with infiltration of histiocytes and multinucleated syncytial cells containing intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies. What is the causative pathogen?

  1. Porcine Circovirus Type 2 (PCV2 / 猪圆环病毒2型 - PMWS断奶仔猪多系统衰竭综合征) Correct answer.
  2. Swine Pox Virus (猪痘病毒)
  3. Porcine Parvovirus (猪细小病毒)
  4. Haemophilus parasuis (猪副嗜血杆菌)

Explanation

PCV2-associated systemic disease can involve wasting, enlarged lymph nodes and characteristic lesions in the relevant age group. Detecting PCV2 alone is not sufficient to establish that it caused the complete clinical syndrome. Histopathology, antigen or nucleic-acid findings in the appropriate lesions and the whole herd pattern contribute to diagnosis.

Question 48Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) is caused by a(n):

  1. Coronavirus
  2. Arterivirus Correct answer.
  3. Circovirus
  4. Pestivirus

Explanation

PRRSV is a single-stranded RNA arterivirus (family Arteriviridae). Causes reproductive losses (late-term abortion, stillbirths, mummies, weak piglets) and respiratory disease in growers. Highly variable - PRRS-1 (EU) and PRRS-2 (NA) strains; vaccine efficacy is limited.

Question 49Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2) vaccination of growing pigs is now standard because:

  1. It prevents PRRS
  2. It has dramatically reduced PMWS/PCVAD - wasting, poor growth, and mortality in nursery/finisher pigs Correct answer.
  3. It prevents swine flu
  4. It prevents foot-and-mouth

Explanation

Pre-vaccine, PCV2-associated disease (PMWS/PCVAD) caused major economic losses. Since 2006 PCV2 vaccines are the most-used swine vaccine and control clinical disease effectively. PCV3 has since emerged and is under surveillance.

Question 50Swine population medicine, infection and production systems

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae causes:

  1. Exudative epidermitis
  2. Enzootic (mycoplasmal) pneumonia - chronic nonproductive cough and reduced ADG Correct answer.
  3. Ileitis
  4. Erysipelas

Explanation

M. hyopneumoniae is the primary agent of enzootic pneumonia and a key driver of porcine respiratory disease complex (PRDC) alongside PRRSV and secondary bacteria. Vaccination (often one-shot at weaning) and all-in/all-out management are control pillars.