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CHMM (IHMM) practice questions

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Question 1Laws and Regulations

Which federal statute established the "cradle-to-grave" system for managing hazardous waste?

  1. Clean Water Act, which regulates discharges through the NPDES permit program
  2. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
  3. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act, which governs chemical reporting
  4. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act Correct answer.

Explanation

RCRA, enacted in 1976 and strengthened by the 1984 Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments, regulates hazardous waste from the point of generation through transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal. That continuous chain of responsibility is what the phrase cradle-to-grave describes.

Question 2Laws and Regulations

Which permit program implements the Clean Water Act prohibition on discharging pollutants from a point source into waters of the United States?

  1. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act permit program for storage facilities
  2. The Underground Injection Control permit program
  3. The Prevention of Significant Deterioration permit program
  4. The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 402 of the Clean Water Act created the NPDES program, under which point-source discharges to waters of the United States require a permit containing effluent limits and monitoring conditions. Most states administer the program under EPA approval.

Question 3Laws and Regulations

Under the National Environmental Policy Act, what document must a federal agency prepare when a proposed major federal action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment?

  1. A categorical exclusion determination signed by the agency director
  2. A risk management plan submitted to the EPA Administrator
  3. A finding of no significant impact supported by an environmental assessment
  4. An environmental impact statement Correct answer.

Explanation

NEPA requires an environmental impact statement for major federal actions that may significantly affect the quality of the human environment. A finding of no significant impact documents the opposite conclusion after an environmental assessment, and a categorical exclusion covers actions an agency has determined normally have no significant effect.

Question 4Laws and Regulations

Under which statute must a pesticide be registered and labeled by EPA before it may be sold or distributed in the United States?

  1. The Toxic Substances Control Act, which regulates industrial chemical substances and mixtures
  2. The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act Correct answer.
  3. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which establishes tolerances for pesticide residues
  4. The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act, which governs chemical release reporting

Explanation

FIFRA requires that pesticides be registered with EPA and bear approved labeling before distribution or sale, and it governs registration, reregistration, and restricted-use classifications. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act sets residue tolerances in food but does not provide the registration scheme.

Question 5Laws and Regulations

Under OSHA's Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response standard, general site workers at an uncontrolled hazardous waste site must complete at least what initial training?

  1. Eight hours of instruction plus a one-day site-specific orientation
  2. Sixteen hours of classroom training with no field component
  3. Twenty-four hours of instruction, which is the level for workers who visit the site only occasionally
  4. Forty hours of off-site instruction Correct answer.

Explanation

29 CFR 1910.120(e) requires 40 hours of off-site instruction and three days of supervised field experience for general site workers who are regularly exposed to hazardous substances or who wear respirators. The 24-hour level applies to occasional site visitors who remain in clean areas and do not disturb contaminated soil.

Question 6Laws and Regulations

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (SARA Title III) was enacted primarily to require which of the following?

  1. Cleanup of abandoned hazardous waste sites and recovery of costs from responsible parties
  2. Emergency planning and public disclosure of chemical hazards Correct answer.
  3. National ambient air quality standards for criteria air pollutants
  4. A manifest system that tracks hazardous waste from generation to disposal

Explanation

EPCRA created state and local emergency planning structures and gave communities access to information about chemicals stored and released locally through mechanisms such as Tier II reporting, Toxics Release Inventory reporting, and release notification. It does not fund site cleanup or set air quality standards.

Question 7Laws and Regulations

A facility generates 1,500 kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month. How is the facility classified under RCRA for that month?

  1. Conditionally exempt small quantity generator
  2. Large quantity generator Correct answer.
  3. Permitted treatment, storage, and disposal facility
  4. Small quantity generator

Explanation

A generator is a large quantity generator in any month in which it generates 1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste, more than 1 kilogram of acutely hazardous waste, or more than 100 kilograms of spill residue from acutely hazardous waste. At 1,500 kilograms the facility exceeds the 1,000-kilogram LQG threshold.

Question 8Laws and Regulations

Under OSHA's Hazard Communication standard, what must a chemical manufacturer or importer provide to downstream employers?

  1. A material safety data sheet prepared on the pre-2012 ANSI format
  2. A completed RCRA biennial report covering the chemical
  3. A safety data sheet in a standardized 16-section format Correct answer.
  4. A Tier II inventory report filed with the local fire department

Explanation

29 CFR 1910.1200 requires chemical manufacturers and importers to prepare a safety data sheet in the 16-section GHS-aligned format and pass it to downstream employers with the shipped product. The older material safety data sheet format was replaced when the standard was aligned with the Globally Harmonized System.

Question 9Laws and Regulations

A facility releases a CERCLA hazardous substance in a quantity equal to or greater than its reportable quantity. To whom must the facility give immediate notification under CERCLA section 103(a)?

  1. The state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee only
  2. The National Response Center Correct answer.
  3. The U.S. Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board
  4. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration area office

Explanation

CERCLA section 103(a) requires the person in charge to notify the National Response Center immediately upon learning of a release of a hazardous substance that equals or exceeds the reportable quantity. EPCRA section 304 imposes a separate, parallel duty to notify the state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee.

Question 10Laws and Regulations

A facility covered by EPCRA section 313 must submit its Toxics Release Inventory Form R for a calendar year by which date?

  1. December 31 of the reporting year
  2. July 1 of the following year Correct answer.
  3. March 1 of the following year
  4. June 30 of the following year

Explanation

Toxics Release Inventory reports covering a calendar year are due by July 1 of the following year under 40 CFR Part 372. March 1 is the deadline for the separate Tier II inventory submission under EPCRA section 312.

Question 11Laws and Regulations

Under EPCRA section 312, at what amount of a hazardous chemical present at a facility must the facility submit a Tier II inventory form?

  1. 25,000 pounds at any one time during the year
  2. 1,000 pounds at any one time during the year
  3. 10,000 pounds at any one time during the year Correct answer.
  4. 100 pounds at any one time during the year

Explanation

The section 312 threshold is 10,000 pounds for a hazardous chemical as defined by OSHA and 500 pounds for an extremely hazardous substance listed under EPCRA section 302. Quantities are measured as the maximum amount present at any time during the calendar year.

Question 12Laws and Regulations

A release of an extremely hazardous substance above its reportable quantity occurs at a facility. Under EPCRA section 304, which parties must be notified immediately?

  1. Only the EPA Regional Administrator, in writing within 30 days
  2. The state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee Correct answer.
  3. The Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration within the Department of Transportation
  4. The Chemical Safety Board and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health

Explanation

EPCRA section 304 requires immediate notification of the community emergency coordinator for the local emergency planning committee and of the state emergency response commission for any area likely to be affected. Where the substance is also a CERCLA hazardous substance and the release exceeds its reportable quantity, the National Response Center must be called as well.

Question 13Laws and Regulations

Under the DOT Hazardous Materials Regulations, how frequently must a hazmat employee receive recurrent training?

  1. At least once every five years
  2. Only when the employee's job function changes
  3. At least once every three years Correct answer.
  4. At least once every two years

Explanation

49 CFR 172.704 requires initial training within 90 days of employment in a hazmat function and recurrent training at least once every three years thereafter. Training must cover general awareness and familiarization, function-specific requirements, safety, and security awareness.

Question 14Laws and Regulations

Under RCRA, what is the maximum amount of non-acute hazardous waste that may be accumulated in a single container at a satellite accumulation area?

  1. 55 gallons Correct answer.
  2. 15 gallons
  3. 30 gallons
  4. 5 gallons

Explanation

40 CFR 262.15 allows a generator to accumulate up to 55 gallons of hazardous waste, or one quart of liquid acutely hazardous waste, or one kilogram of acutely hazardous waste, at or near the point of generation. Once the limit is reached, the container must be dated and moved to central accumulation within three days.

Question 15Laws and Regulations

Which waste stream may be managed under the federal universal waste rule instead of the full hazardous waste requirements?

  1. Electroplating sludge containing chromium
  2. Discarded munitions from a firing range
  3. Spent mercury-containing fluorescent lamps Correct answer.
  4. Spent halogenated solvents from a degreasing operation

Explanation

The federal universal waste rule covers batteries, pesticides, mercury-containing equipment, lamps, and aerosol cans, applying streamlined accumulation, labeling, and shipping requirements. Solvent and plating wastes remain fully regulated hazardous wastes.

Question 16Laws and Regulations

Under 40 CFR Part 279, used oil that will be recycled and that exhibits a hazardous waste characteristic is:

  1. Regulated as a hazardous waste unless a delisting petition is approved
  2. Regulated under the universal waste rule until it is burned for energy recovery
  3. Regulated under Part 279 rather than as a hazardous waste Correct answer.
  4. Regulated as a listed hazardous waste

Explanation

The used oil management standards create a separate regime: used oil that is recycled is not regulated as a hazardous waste even if it exhibits a characteristic, provided it has not been mixed with hazardous waste. Mixing used oil with a hazardous waste can bring the resulting mixture back under Subtitle C.

Question 17Laws and Regulations

Which statute gives EPA authority to regulate the manufacture, processing, distribution, and disposal of polychlorinated biphenyls?

  1. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, which governs solid and hazardous waste
  2. The Clean Air Act, which regulates emissions of hazardous air pollutants
  3. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
  4. The Toxic Substances Control Act Correct answer.

Explanation

TSCA section 6(e) directed EPA to prohibit the manufacture, processing, and distribution of PCBs and to regulate their use and disposal, with implementing rules at 40 CFR Part 761. TSCA also supplies the framework for new chemical review and for asbestos and lead abatement programs.

Question 18Laws and Regulations

Under CERCLA section 107, the liability of a responsible party for government response costs is best characterized as:

  1. Strict, joint and several, and applied retroactively to pre-enactment disposal Correct answer.
  2. Capped at the fair market value of the contaminated property before cleanup
  3. Limited to the amount the party paid into the Superfund trust fund
  4. Based on negligence, with each party paying only its proportional share of the harm

Explanation

Courts have consistently read CERCLA section 107 to impose strict liability that may be joint and several where the harm is indivisible, and to reach disposal that occurred before the statute was enacted. The Act provides only limited defenses, such as an act of God or an act of a third party with whom the defendant has no contractual relationship.

Question 19Laws and Regulations

Which document accompanies a hazardous waste shipment and tracks it from the generator through the transporter to the designated facility?

  1. A safety data sheet for each waste stream in the shipment
  2. A commercial bill of lading issued by the transporter for the load
  3. A uniform hazardous waste manifest, EPA Form 8700-22 Correct answer.
  4. A Tier II inventory form filed with the local fire department

Explanation

The uniform hazardous waste manifest, EPA Form 8700-22, is the shipping paper that creates the cradle-to-grave record; the generator certifies the waste description and the designated facility returns a signed copy confirming receipt. Discrepancies and missing returns trigger exception reporting.

Question 20Laws and Regulations

Under Title V of the Clean Air Act, which sources must obtain an operating permit?

  1. Only sources that emit more than 100 tons per year of a single pollutant
  2. Major sources and other sources specifically designated by regulation Correct answer.
  3. Only sources that exceed a risk management program threshold quantity
  4. Only sources subject to a new source performance standard

Explanation

Title V requires operating permits for major sources, generally those emitting 100 tons per year or more of a regulated pollutant or less in nonattainment areas, and for other categories designated in 40 CFR Part 70, including certain area sources. The permit consolidates all applicable requirements into a single document.

Question 21Laws and Regulations

Under Clean Air Act section 112(r), how often must an owner or operator of a covered process update and resubmit the risk management plan?

  1. At least every five years Correct answer.
  2. Every ten years, unless the process changes
  3. Only after an accidental release requiring off-site notification
  4. Every year, together with the annual emissions inventory

Explanation

40 CFR 68.190 requires that the risk management plan be reviewed, updated, and resubmitted to EPA at least once every five years. A plan must also be revised within three years of a change at the source and within six months of a change that increases off-site risk.

Question 22Laws and Regulations

Which statute created the bona fide prospective purchaser defense to CERCLA liability and authorized funding for assessment and cleanup of brownfield sites?

  1. The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986
  2. The Oil Pollution Act of 1990
  3. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984
  4. The Brownfields Revitalization Act of 2002 Correct answer.

Explanation

The Small Business Liability Relief and Brownfields Revitalization Act, enacted in 2002, added CERCLA liability protections for bona fide prospective purchasers, contiguous property owners, and innocent landowners, and funded state and local brownfield assessment and cleanup programs. It also clarified the all-appropriate-inquiries standard for purchasers.

Question 23Laws and Regulations

Under EPA's land disposal restrictions, which practice is prohibited as a substitute for adequate treatment?

  1. Incineration of organic constituents in a permitted hazardous waste combustor
  2. Diluting the waste to bring constituents below treatment standards Correct answer.
  3. Solidifying metal-bearing waste in a cementitious matrix to reduce leachability
  4. Thermal desorption of volatile organics prior to disposal in a subtitle D landfill

Explanation

40 CFR 268.3 prohibits dilution of a restricted waste as a substitute for treatment and bars land disposal of wastes that have merely been diluted to meet a treatment standard. Adding water or mixing with clean soil does not comply unless the treatment technology itself removes, destroys, or immobilizes the regulated constituent.

Question 24Laws and Regulations

A facility with 12 full-time employees otherwise uses 12,000 pounds of a TRI-listed chemical that is not a persistent bioaccumulative toxicant during the reporting year and does not manufacture or process it. What is the facility's TRI obligation?

  1. No report is required, because the otherwise-used threshold is 25,000 pounds
  2. No report is required, because TRI applies only to facilities that manufacture chemicals
  3. A report is required, because the otherwise-used threshold is 10,000 pounds Correct answer.
  4. A report is required, but only after the chemical is released to the environment

Explanation

Under 40 CFR 372.25, a covered facility must report when it otherwise uses 10,000 pounds or more of a listed chemical in a year, or when it manufactures or processes 25,000 pounds or more. The 12,000-pound use exceeds the otherwise-used threshold and the site has 10 or more full-time employees.

Question 25Laws and Regulations

A solid waste generated by treating a listed hazardous waste remains a listed hazardous waste under RCRA. This principle is known as:

  1. The derived-from rule Correct answer.
  2. The mixture rule
  3. The household waste exclusion
  4. The contained-in policy

Explanation

Under 40 CFR 261.3(c)(2)(i), residues from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a listed hazardous waste, and wastes derived from those residues, remain listed hazardous waste unless they are delisted. The mixture rule is a separate provision governing combinations of listed waste and solid waste.

Question 26Laws and Regulations

Under the Clean Water Act, discharges of pollutants from a point source into waters of the United States are regulated primarily through which permit program?

  1. A Title V operating permit issued under the Clean Air Act
  2. An underground injection control permit issued under the Safe Drinking Water Act
  3. A RCRA Part B permit issued by EPA
  4. An NPDES permit issued under section 402 Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 402 of the Clean Water Act establishes the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System, which may be administered by EPA or by an authorized state. The permit sets effluent limits and monitoring requirements for point source discharges. RCRA, Title V, and the UIC program regulate different media and activities.

Question 27Laws and Regulations

A facility discharges oil into a navigable waterway in a quantity that causes a visible sheen. Under the Clean Water Act, to which entity must the discharge be reported immediately?

  1. The local publicly owned treatment works
  2. The OSHA Area Office
  3. The National Response Center Correct answer.
  4. The EPA Regional Administrator directly

Explanation

Section 311 of the Clean Water Act requires immediate notification of an oil discharge to the National Response Center, which coordinates the federal response. State and local authorities may also require notification, but the NRC is the designated federal reporting point.

Question 28Laws and Regulations

Under TSCA section 5, a manufacturer or importer that intends to produce or import a new chemical substance must submit a premanufacture notice to EPA at least how many days before commencing the activity?

  1. 90 days Correct answer.
  2. 30 days
  3. 180 days
  4. 60 days

Explanation

TSCA section 5 requires a premanufacture notice at least 90 days before manufacture or import of a new chemical substance. EPA uses the review period to evaluate whether the substance presents an unreasonable risk. The other periods do not match the statutory notice requirement.

Question 29Laws and Regulations

Under FIFRA, which action must occur before a pesticide can be lawfully sold or distributed in interstate commerce?

  1. The pesticide must obtain an NPDES discharge permit
  2. The pesticide must complete a TSCA premanufacture notice
  3. The pesticide must be listed on the Toxics Release Inventory
  4. The pesticide must be registered with EPA Correct answer.

Explanation

FIFRA requires that a pesticide be registered with EPA before it is sold or distributed in interstate commerce. Registration is based on a review of the product's labeling and supporting data. TRI listing, NPDES permits, and TSCA PMNs address different regulatory programs.

Question 30Laws and Regulations

Under OSHA's HAZWOPER standard, a general site worker who may be exposed to hazardous substances at an uncontrolled hazardous waste site must complete how many hours of initial training?

  1. 8 hours
  2. 80 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 40 hours Correct answer.

Explanation

HAZWOPER requires 40 hours of initial training for general site workers who may be exposed to hazardous substances at uncontrolled sites. The worker must also receive at least 8 hours of refresher training annually. The shorter and longer periods do not match the general site worker requirement.

Question 31Laws and Regulations

NEPA requires a federal agency to prepare an environmental impact statement when the agency proposes which type of action?

  1. A project that will cost more than one million dollars
  2. Any action that requires a federal permit, regardless of its environmental effect
  3. A major federal action significantly affecting the human environment Correct answer.
  4. An action located on privately owned land

Explanation

NEPA requires an environmental impact statement for major federal actions that significantly affect the quality of the human environment. The threshold is based on the significance of environmental effects, not cost or land ownership. Actions with less significant effects may be addressed through an environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact.

Question 32Laws and Regulations

The Pollution Prevention Act of 1990 establishes a national hierarchy for managing waste. Which practice is placed first, ahead of recycling, treatment, and disposal?

  1. Treatment
  2. Source reduction Correct answer.
  3. Safe disposal
  4. Recycling

Explanation

The Pollution Prevention Act establishes a hierarchy that gives first preference to source reduction, followed by environmentally safe recycling, treatment, and disposal. Source reduction means reducing the amount or toxicity of waste before it is generated. The other practices rank lower in the hierarchy.

Question 33Laws and Regulations

The Underground Injection Control program, authorized by the Safe Drinking Water Act, regulates which activity?

  1. Discharge of stormwater from construction sites
  2. Injection of air pollutants into the atmosphere
  3. The subsurface emplacement of fluids through wells Correct answer.
  4. Land disposal of hazardous waste in a permitted landfill

Explanation

The UIC program regulates the subsurface emplacement of fluids through injection wells to protect underground sources of drinking water. Wells are classified by type and subject to construction, operating, and closure requirements. Landfills, stormwater, and air emissions are governed by other programs.

Question 34Laws and Regulations

The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 requires certain oil-handling facilities to prepare a facility response plan. The plan must demonstrate the facility's capacity to do what?

  1. Conduct annual soil sampling at the facility
  2. Respond to a worst-case oil discharge Correct answer.
  3. Transfer all oil exclusively by pipeline
  4. Eliminate all oil storage on site

Explanation

OPA 90 amended the Clean Water Act to require facility response plans for certain oil facilities, including a demonstration of response capability for a worst-case discharge. The plan addresses response resources, notification, and coordination with responders. Eliminating storage, exclusive pipeline transfer, and soil sampling are not the plan's required purpose.

Question 35Laws and Regulations

A large quantity generator of hazardous waste must submit a biennial report to EPA or an authorized state by which date?

  1. July 1 of each odd-numbered year
  2. March 1 of each even-numbered year Correct answer.
  3. December 31 of each year
  4. January 1 of each year

Explanation

Large quantity generators must submit a biennial hazardous waste report by March 1 of each even-numbered year. The report covers hazardous waste generation and management during the prior odd-numbered year. Annual and other dates do not match the RCRA reporting schedule.

Question 36Laws and Regulations

A RCRA permit for a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility is issued for a fixed term of up to how many years?

  1. 10 years Correct answer.
  2. 8 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 15 years

Explanation

RCRA permits are issued for a fixed term of up to 10 years. The permit establishes the facility's operating, monitoring, and closure requirements. The other periods do not reflect the RCRA permit term.

Question 37Laws and Regulations

A small quantity generator may accumulate hazardous waste on site for up to 180 days without a permit. The accumulation period may be extended to 270 days when which condition applies?

  1. The generator must ship the waste more than 200 miles Correct answer.
  2. The waste is destined for a recycling facility
  3. The generator has fewer than 10 employees
  4. The waste is stored in tanks rather than in containers

Explanation

The 180-day accumulation period for small quantity generators may be extended to 270 days when the generator must transport the waste more than 200 miles. This extension recognizes the additional time needed for distant shipments. Recycling, employee count, and container versus tank storage do not trigger the extension.

Question 38Laws and Regulations

To recover response costs from a potentially responsible party under CERCLA section 107, a private party that conducted the cleanup generally must show that the response action was what?

  1. Consistent with the National Contingency Plan Correct answer.
  2. Performed without any government involvement
  3. Completed within 30 days of the release
  4. Approved in advance by the local municipality

Explanation

CERCLA section 107 allows recovery of response costs by a private party whose action was consistent with the National Contingency Plan. Consistency is evaluated against the NCP's procedures and standards. Local approval, a 30-day completion deadline, and avoiding government involvement are not the governing test.

Question 39Laws and Regulations

Under CERCLA section 106, when a release or threatened release may present an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or the environment, EPA may take which action?

  1. Require the party to register the chemical under FIFRA
  2. Issue a hazardous waste permit under RCRA
  3. Issue an administrative order or seek judicial abatement Correct answer.
  4. Delegate the matter to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Explanation

CERCLA section 106 authorizes EPA to issue administrative orders or seek judicial relief to abate an imminent and substantial endangerment. The authority addresses releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances. RCRA permits, OSHA delegation, and FIFRA registration are not section 106 remedies.

Question 40Laws and Regulations

A facility must maintain safety data sheets under OSHA and has a hazardous chemical at or above the 10,000-pound threshold. Under EPCRA section 311, the facility must submit the SDSs or a list of chemicals to which entities?

  1. The SERC, the LEPC, and the local fire department Correct answer.
  2. The National Response Center only
  3. EPA headquarters only
  4. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Explanation

EPCRA section 311 requires facilities subject to OSHA's hazard communication requirements to submit SDSs or a list of hazardous chemicals to the state emergency response commission, the local emergency planning committee, and the local fire department with jurisdiction. This supports community emergency planning. EPA headquarters, the NRC, and OSHA are not the section 311 recipients.

Question 41Laws and Regulations

A facility first becomes subject to EPCRA emergency planning because it has an extremely hazardous substance at or above its threshold planning quantity. Within how many days must the facility notify the state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee?

  1. 14 days
  2. 30 days Correct answer.
  3. 7 days
  4. 3 days

Explanation

EPCRA section 302 requires a facility that first becomes subject to the emergency planning requirements to notify the SERC and LEPC within 30 days. The facility must also designate a facility emergency coordinator. The shorter periods do not match the statutory deadline.

Question 42Laws and Regulations

OSHA's Process Safety Management standard covers a process involving a flammable liquid with a flash point below 100 degrees F when the process contains at least how much of the liquid?

  1. 5,000 pounds
  2. 10,000 pounds Correct answer.
  3. 1,000 pounds
  4. 20,000 pounds

Explanation

The PSM standard applies to processes involving a flammable liquid with a flash point below 100 degrees F in a quantity of 10,000 pounds or more. The threshold is based on the amount present in the process. The other quantities do not match the PSM threshold.

Question 43Laws and Regulations

Under the DOT Hazardous Materials Regulations, how long must a shipper retain a hazardous materials shipping paper?

  1. 5 years
  2. 2 years Correct answer.
  3. 90 days
  4. 1 year

Explanation

The DOT Hazardous Materials Regulations require shipping papers to be retained for two years after the shipment. The papers must be accessible for inspection and provide a record of the hazardous materials offered for transportation. The other periods do not match the retention requirement.

Question 44Laws and Regulations

Title VI of the Clean Air Act directs EPA to phase out the production and import of which class of substances?

  1. Hazardous air pollutants listed under section 112
  2. Greenhouse gases regulated under section 202
  3. Ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs and halons Correct answer.
  4. Criteria pollutants for which NAAQS are set

Explanation

Title VI of the Clean Air Act addresses stratospheric ozone protection and requires the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances such as chlorofluorocarbons and halons. Section 112 regulates hazardous air pollutants, section 202 addresses mobile source emissions, and the NAAQS program covers criteria pollutants.

Question 45Laws and Regulations

A new major stationary source proposes to locate in an area that is in attainment with the National Ambient Air Quality Standards. Under the Clean Air Act's Prevention of Significant Deterioration program, the source must install which control technology?

  1. Lowest achievable emission rate (LAER)
  2. Maximum achievable control technology (MACT)
  3. Best available control technology (BACT) Correct answer.
  4. Reasonably available control technology (RACT)

Explanation

The PSD program applies to major sources in attainment areas and requires best available control technology. LAER applies in nonattainment new source review, MACT applies to hazardous air pollutants, and RACT applies in nonattainment areas. The attainment status determines which technology requirement applies.

Question 46Laws and Regulations

A purchaser of real property wants to qualify for CERCLA's innocent landowner defense by conducting all appropriate inquiries. Which approach generally satisfies that requirement?

  1. A title search confirming that the property has no liens
  2. A Phase I assessment by an environmental professional under ASTM E1527 Correct answer.
  3. A visual inspection of the property performed by the purchaser without documentation
  4. A Phase II sampling program conducted without a Phase I assessment

Explanation

The all appropriate inquiries rule generally requires a Phase I environmental site assessment conducted by an environmental professional in accordance with ASTM E1527 or an equivalent standard. The assessment evaluates recognized environmental conditions and provides the documentation needed for the defense. An undocumented visual inspection, Phase II sampling without Phase I, and a title search do not satisfy the rule.

Question 47Laws and Regulations

A shipment contains 1,200 pounds aggregate gross weight of a Table 2 hazardous material that requires a placard. What is the placarding threshold for Table 2 materials under the DOT regulations?

  1. 5,000 pounds
  2. 1,001 pounds Correct answer.
  3. 500 pounds
  4. Any quantity, regardless of weight

Explanation

DOT requires placarding for Table 2 hazardous materials when the aggregate gross weight of all Table 2 materials in the shipment is 1,001 pounds or more. Certain materials, such as bulk shipments and Table 1 materials, have different placarding rules. The other quantities do not match the Table 2 threshold.

Question 48Laws and Regulations

An employee sustains a work-related injury that requires medical treatment beyond first aid. Within how many calendar days must the employer record the case on the OSHA 300 Log?

  1. 14 calendar days
  2. 7 calendar days Correct answer.
  3. 30 calendar days
  4. 1 calendar day

Explanation

OSHA requires employers to record a recordable work-related injury or illness on the OSHA 300 Log within seven calendar days after learning of the case. The seven-day period begins when the employer receives information that the case is recordable. The other periods do not match the recordkeeping rule.

Question 49Laws and Regulations

Before a U.S. generator exports hazardous waste for disposal, which action is required under RCRA?

  1. Publish a notice in a local newspaper
  2. Obtain a Clean Air Act Title V permit
  3. Notify EPA and obtain EPA acknowledgment of the receiving country's consent Correct answer.
  4. File an annual Tier II chemical inventory report with the local fire department

Explanation

RCRA's export requirements require the generator to notify EPA and obtain the receiving country's consent through EPA's acknowledgment process before shipment. The manifest and annual reporting requirements also apply. Air permits, Tier II reports, and newspaper notices do not satisfy the export requirements.

Question 50Laws and Regulations

A generator mixes a listed hazardous waste with a nonhazardous solid waste. Under RCRA's mixture rule, the resulting mixture is generally what?

  1. Exempt from regulation because it is diluted
  2. Regulated as universal waste
  3. Regulated as a nonhazardous solid waste
  4. Regulated as a hazardous waste Correct answer.

Explanation

Under RCRA's mixture rule, a mixture of a listed hazardous waste and a nonhazardous solid waste is generally regulated as hazardous waste. Dilution does not remove the hazardous waste designation. Universal waste is a separate category for specific waste streams.