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Ethiopian Federal Advocates Exam study materials
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Ethiopian Federal Advocates Exam practice questions

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Question 1Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A person appears only to argue their own case. Under Article 5 of Proclamation 1249/2021, which licensing conclusion follows from that fact?

  1. Self-representation is among the listed situations not requiring an advocacy licence. Correct answer.
  2. Every self-represented litigant must first obtain an all-federal-courts licence.
  3. The exception automatically authorizes paid representation of strangers.
  4. Self-representation is permitted only through an unpaid licensed relative.

Explanation

Article 5 lists handling one’s own case as an exception. That limited status does not create a licence or authorize unrelated paid advocacy services.

Question 2Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A person invokes Article 5 to represent a sibling, but demands a professional fee. Which feature conflicts with that particular family-representation exception?

  1. A sibling is never among the listed relatives.
  2. The listed family-representation exception is without charge. Correct answer.
  3. The exception requires a separate federal special licence for every unpaid family appearance.
  4. Charging below the ordinary market rate always satisfies the without-charge condition.

Explanation

Article 5 includes a sibling among the listed family relationships but conditions this representation exception on absence of charge. It is not a general paid-practice authorization.

Question 3Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A public prosecutor relies on the Article 5 exception to represent a paying private client in an unrelated personal dispute. Why is the reliance misplaced?

  1. All job-related prosecutor work requires a private advocacy licence.
  2. The exception gives every prosecutor unlimited private-practice permission.
  3. The prosecutor exception concerns cases related to the prosecutor’s job. Correct answer.
  4. The exception applies to every legal matter handled outside working hours.

Explanation

The specific Article 5 exception relates to the prosecutor’s official work. It does not turn an unrelated private retainer into authorized job-related representation.

Question 4Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A qualifying law instructor wants to continue teaching while seeking a licence. What additional evidence does Article 15 require for its teaching-post exception?

  1. A certificate that the instructor has left teaching, even when using the teaching-post exception.
  2. A statement that every permanent employee receives the same exception.
  3. An assurance from the paying client that no hearing will ever overlap a class.
  4. An assurance from the law school that advocacy will not affect teaching and learning. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 15 creates a specific instructor exception and requires a law-school assurance about teaching. The other applicable qualification requirements remain relevant rather than disappearing.

Question 5Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An applicant holds a first law degree from a recognized foreign institution. What additional document does Article 96 address?

  1. Equivalence evaluation from the concerned organ. Correct answer.
  2. A private advertisement asserting the degree is equivalent.
  3. Automatic exemption from every experience condition.
  4. A separate law-school attendance certificate without equivalence evaluation.

Explanation

Article 96 requires an equivalence evaluation for the foreign-degree applicant. Recognition of a degree and satisfaction of the appropriate experience and other licensing conditions remain separate questions.

Question 6Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A foreign-degree applicant considers the first-instance licence route under Article 12(2). Which experience condition does that published provision specify?

  1. The domestic-degree three-year condition automatically applies to every foreign degree.
  2. At least five years of professional legal experience in Ethiopia, with the other requirements. Correct answer.
  3. Any five years of professional legal work abroad alone satisfies the Ethiopian-experience condition.
  4. No experience is required once an equivalence evaluation exists.

Explanation

Article 12(2) specifies five years of legal professional experience in Ethiopia for that foreign-degree route. The provision also retains the other relevant requirements.

Question 7Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

For an all-federal-courts applicant with a recognized foreign first law degree, what does Article 13(2) require concerning experience?

  1. No further experience once the degree has been evaluated.
  2. The five-year experience condition for the different first-instance foreign-degree route.
  3. At least seven years of professional legal experience in Ethiopia, plus the other requirements. Correct answer.
  4. A foreign licence alone satisfies every Ethiopian condition.

Explanation

Article 13(2) specifies seven years of legal professional experience in Ethiopia for this route. A passport or foreign licence does not replace that condition and the other applicable requirements.

Question 8Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An applicant presents an examination result long after it was issued. Which Article 6(4) condition must be checked before treating it as valid for the application?

  1. The result remains valid whenever the annual licence-renewal tax certificate is current.
  2. The result remains usable forever without a time condition.
  3. The result becomes valid only after a further year has elapsed.
  4. The qualification result must be presented within one year. Correct answer.

Explanation

The published Article 6(4) attaches validity to presentation within one year. This is a statutory application condition, not an invented current examination date or score threshold.

Question 9Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An otherwise qualifying applicant is rejected solely because of political persuasion. Which Article 4 principle is implicated?

  1. The listed nondiscrimination protection in licensing. Correct answer.
  2. The authority may add any political-affiliation condition absent from the Proclamation.
  3. Passing the examination alone permits rejection for any personal belief.
  4. The nondiscrimination protection removes all statutory qualification requirements.

Explanation

Article 4 lists political persuasion among grounds on which a person must not be denied a licence, subject to the statute’s applicable qualification rules. A personal disagreement is not an additional lawful criterion.

Question 10Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An applicant has an unreinstated conviction for an intentional offence relevant to professional misconduct and punishable as described in Article 7(2). What follows under that provision?

  1. Every conviction is irrelevant to licensing by definition.
  2. It is a ground for denial while the stated statutory conditions apply. Correct answer.
  3. A good-conduct letter automatically overrides the unreinstated statutory denial ground.
  4. The examination committee automatically grants a licence despite the denial ground.

Explanation

Article 7(2) addresses the specified intentional professional-misconduct-related offence and reinstatement status. Apply its conditions rather than declare either all convictions irrelevant or every minor event an automatic lifelong bar.

Question 11Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A judicial order currently interdicts an applicant from legal services. Which part of the licensing analysis does Article 7(3) supply?

  1. Only the examination score determines whether the interdiction remains effective.
  2. The order is automatically cancelled by submitting an application.
  3. A current legal or judicial interdiction is a denial ground. Correct answer.
  4. The order ceases to matter once the applicant files a complete licensing application.

Explanation

Article 7(3) includes legal or judicial interdiction from providing legal services. An application or practice-test result is not a judicial removal of that restriction.

Question 12Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A foreign-licensed advocate proposes an Ethiopian engagement involving only the licensing country’s law but refuses any local partnership. What does Article 8 require?

  1. The foreign licence automatically becomes an unrestricted Ethiopian licence.
  2. The subject alone makes the partnership condition irrelevant.
  3. Local partnership alone permits every subject regardless of the foreign-law condition.
  4. Both the relevant foreign-law subject and partnership with an advocate or firm licensed under the Proclamation. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 8 states the foreign-law connection and local-partnership conditions together. Satisfying only one does not create the unrestricted authority claimed in this scenario.

Question 13Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An incomplete licence file is submitted and essential supporting documents arrive later. Under Article 9(2), which event starts the stated application-decision period?

  1. Submission of a complete application as specified by the statute. Correct answer.
  2. The applicant’s first informal conversation about applying.
  3. The day on which the last client retained the applicant.
  4. The date of degree graduation regardless of when documents arrive.

Explanation

Article 9(2) ties the decision period to submission of the complete application. The trigger is not an unrelated conversation, retainer or educational event.

Question 14Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A licence application is rejected after committee evaluation. What does Article 9(3) require of the notification?

  1. Only an unexplained verbal refusal with no written basis.
  2. Written grounds for rejection within the stated working-day period. Correct answer.
  3. Only a publication of unsuccessful names without individual grounds.
  4. A notice that gives the result but permanently withholds every rejection reason.

Explanation

Article 9(3) requires notification in writing of the rejection grounds within its specified period. Reasons and notice support the applicant’s ability to understand and challenge the decision.

Question 15Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

The evaluation committee accepts a complete application. Which Article 9 distinction is correct?

  1. The applicant’s university rather than the statutory authority issues the advocacy licence.
  2. Committee acceptance itself removes the separate issuance process.
  3. Committee acceptance and issuance through the licensing authority are related but distinct steps. Correct answer.
  4. The private partnership agreement is sufficient evidence that the official licence was issued.

Explanation

Article 9 distinguishes evaluation and issuance through the named authority. Neither a client mandate nor a private sale creates the public licence, and licences are not transferable credentials.

Question 16Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

Under the specific initial-application route in Article 9(6), an applicant challenges a rejection to the Board. Which period does that paragraph specify?

  1. Thirty days from the examination regardless of the rejection notice.
  2. Thirty days from the later disciplinary decision under Article 88.
  3. Fifteen calendar days beginning with the original application date.
  4. Fifteen working days from notification of rejection. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 9(6) uses fifteen working days from notification for this specific complaint. Do not substitute a disciplinary-appeal period or assume all review routes share one clock.

Question 17Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An applicant then challenges the Board decision under Article 9(7), rather than a disciplinary decision under Article 88. Which court and period are stated in that specific paragraph?

  1. Federal First Instance Court within thirty days of receiving the decision copy. Correct answer.
  2. Federal High Court within fifteen working days under every licensing paragraph.
  3. The Discipline Committee as if every licensing rejection were professional misconduct.
  4. The Exam Committee for final judicial review of the Board.

Explanation

Article 9(7) supplies the first-instance-court route and thirty-day period for that particular licensing decision. It should not be conflated with the differently worded review provisions elsewhere in the statute.

Question 18Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A candidate asks for a reasonable adjustment to the written licensing oath to accommodate religious belief. How does Article 10 address that concern?

  1. It prohibits every religious accommodation.
  2. It preserves reasonable adjustments for religious beliefs while requiring the oath. Correct answer.
  3. It allows accommodation to eliminate all duties to law and justice.
  4. The oath is required only from applicants who share the same religious practice.

Explanation

Article 10 expressly allows reasonable religious adjustments to the oath. Accommodation does not remove the professional commitments concerning law, justice, honesty and lawful client interests.

Question 19Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A law instructor with the required first degree and seven years of qualifying service applies within one year after leaving. What does Article 16(2) potentially provide?

  1. Automatic unrestricted licensing solely from seven years’ teaching without the degree condition.
  2. Automatic exemption from every licensing requirement and misconduct review.
  3. Exemption from the entrance examination if the statutory conditions are met. Correct answer.
  4. An exemption only if the applicant waits more than one year after leaving.

Explanation

Article 16(2) provides an examination exemption for qualifying service and timely application. It does not remove the remaining statutory requirements or create a transferable licence.

Question 20Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An applicant relies on private law-clerk service rather than public prosecutorial service for the Article 16(2) examination exemption. What must be avoided?

  1. Checking the time since the applicant left the post.
  2. Checking which service category the statute actually lists.
  3. Checking whether the applicant has the required law degree.
  4. Assuming every listed service category has the same experience period. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 16(2) distinguishes qualifying categories and experience periods, while retaining degree and timely-application conditions. The category must be identified before applying the relevant period.

Question 21Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A first-degree law graduate has practised under a Federal First Instance Court licence for five years and seeks the Article 16(3) upgrade. Which point is correct?

  1. That paragraph permits an examination-free upgrade without requiring departure from advocacy service. Correct answer.
  2. The upgrade always requires leaving advocacy for a year before application.
  3. The paragraph automatically grants every law diploma holder the same route.
  4. A private agreement can replace the statutory degree and service conditions.

Explanation

Article 16(3) addresses the stated first-degree and five-year advocacy route without a new qualification examination. Do not erase those conditions or invent a requirement to stop advocacy first.

Question 22Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An existing federal licence holder wants to render special advocacy services under Article 14(3). What preliminary communication does the paragraph require?

  1. An automatic conversion of every future paid retainer into special pro bono service.
  2. Written notice to the named licensing authority before rendering the service. Correct answer.
  3. No communication because special services have no professional rules.
  4. A separate special licence in every case despite already holding the qualifying federal licence.

Explanation

Article 14(3) allows the existing licence holder to render special service without a separate special licence, but requires prior written notification. Professional duties remain applicable.

Question 23Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An applicant is told an office must already exist before a licence may be granted. How should Articles 23(3)(a) and 23(4) be read together?

  1. All office duties must be satisfied as a condition of initial licence grant.
  2. There can never be an office-related duty after licensing.
  3. The service-office duty is distinct from a prohibition on requiring an office for the grant. Correct answer.
  4. The office duty applies only to law firms and never to individual advocates.

Explanation

Article 23 creates an office duty for service but expressly says the issuing authority shall not require an office to grant the licence. The provisions address different stages and should be read together.

Question 24Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

An advocate lets an unlicensed acquaintance use the advocate’s licence to obtain legal-work assignments. Which Article 22 rule is directly engaged?

  1. The prohibition ends whenever the other person agrees to observe confidentiality.
  2. The acquaintance becomes licensed whenever the card is borrowed.
  3. A client’s satisfaction alone legalizes the licence transfer.
  4. The licence must not be given for another person’s use or benefit. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 22 prohibits passing the licence for another person’s use or benefit. It is a professional authorization, not a transferable instrument that can license someone else.

Question 25Federal licensing, scope and the source of authority

A firm hires an eligible advocate’s assistant. What does Article 18(2) require beyond the employment contract?

  1. Notification and registration with the named authority within two months of execution. Correct answer.
  2. Notification is optional until the assistant first appears in a contested hearing.
  3. Automatic independent advocacy licensing through payroll entry.
  4. The employment record need only be kept internally and never notified.

Explanation

Article 18(2) requires the employment notification and registration within its stated period. Employment is not the same legal act as independent professional licensing.

Question 26Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A long-term litigation retainer states only the payment date. What is missing from the Article 23(2) minimum contractual particulars?

  1. A mandatory prediction of the final judgment date.
  2. The total fee, its computation and the extent of the service. Correct answer.
  3. A requirement that the opponent approve the client’s fee computation.
  4. A declaration that all future appeals are included even when scope is unspecified.

Explanation

Article 23(2) requires the fee total, computation, payment timing and service extent. Stating one item does not supply the others or authorize a promised outcome.

Question 27Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A firm treats the short-advice exception as permission to conduct a year of contested litigation on an oral retainer. What is the Article 23 problem?

  1. The exception removes every duty to specify service scope.
  2. Every form of legal advice automatically requires a law-firm manager vote.
  3. The narrow short-period legal-advice exception does not cover the described extended retainer. Correct answer.
  4. Litigation contracts are valid only if the opponent signs them.

Explanation

Article 23(1) distinguishes short-period advice from the ordinary written-service-contract duty. The stated continuing litigation engagement cannot be assumed to fit that limited exception.

Question 28Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An advocate demands an additional fee against the client’s will beyond the agreed service contract. Which Article 85(10) characterization applies?

  1. It becomes compulsory pro bono service because the client objects.
  2. It is merely the procedure for filing a normal licence application.
  3. It automatically amends the contract without client agreement.
  4. It is a listed serious disciplinary violation. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 85(10) expressly addresses the against-will extra-fee demand. A disagreement is not unilateral consent to amend the service contract or a change in the legal category of the engagement.

Question 29Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An advocate proposes leaving a case without any good cause and without addressing the service contract. Which statutory concern arises under Articles 23 and 85?

  1. Unjustified termination is specifically addressed as professional misconduct. Correct answer.
  2. The advocate’s wish automatically extinguishes every professional obligation.
  3. Only the court registry may ever ask about termination.
  4. Every termination is prohibited even where a lawful good cause exists.

Explanation

The provisions address termination without good cause. They should not be read either as unrestricted abandonment or as a rule that no lawful termination can ever occur.

Question 30Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A reporter offers to pay for details learned solely through a confidential client consultation. Which Article 24 duty most directly informs the advocate’s response?

  1. Treat media payment as the client’s automatic authorization.
  2. Keep client information confidential under the applicable professional framework. Correct answer.
  3. Publish the information unless the case has already been decided.
  4. Treat confidentiality as only a firm-name registration rule.

Explanation

Article 24(2) expressly includes client-information confidentiality. A reporter’s payment or a pending-case status does not by itself supply a lawful basis for disclosure.

Question 31Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An advocate repeatedly attends court without studying the file and cannot make the assigned argument. Which Article 24 obligation is directly relevant?

  1. Guarantee victory whenever the client pays the fee.
  2. Only registration of the advocate’s office address.
  3. Appear duly prepared and make competent arguments. Correct answer.
  4. Rely on the opponent to supply the advocate’s preparation.

Explanation

Article 24(2) addresses preparedness and competent argument. It demands professional performance rather than a guaranteed result or reliance on an opposing lawyer to do the assigned work.

Question 32Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A lawyer repeatedly requests adjournments without good cause solely to prolong a case. How does Article 85(3) treat that conduct?

  1. It is permitted whenever a client pays by the hour.
  2. It is always protected simply because an application was filed.
  3. It is the statutory method of renewing a licence.
  4. It is a specified serious disciplinary violation. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 85(3) specifically targets repeated unjustified adjournment applications that prolong disposal. The form of an application or fee method does not eliminate the professional duty.

Question 33Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A client asks an advocate to coach a witness to give an invented factual account. Which Article 24 distinction is correct?

  1. Legitimate preparation does not include organizing false witnesses or evidence. Correct answer.
  2. Any statement becomes truthful if rehearsed with an advocate.
  3. Client instructions supersede the duty not to produce false evidence.
  4. False testimony is permitted if the witness is not paid.

Explanation

Article 24(2) prohibits organizing false witnesses and producing false evidence. Assisting a witness to understand a lawful process is different from inventing the facts to be asserted.

Question 34Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A lawyer knows a proposed claim clearly has no cause of action or legal basis but charges a fee while presenting it as supportable. Which statutory issue is engaged?

  1. A fee automatically supplies the missing cause of action.
  2. Articles 24 and 85 address taking clearly baseless cases and charging for them. Correct answer.
  3. Every unsuccessful but genuinely arguable claim is identical to this conduct.
  4. The client’s preference alone proves legal merit.

Explanation

The provisions address the clearly baseless case described. They should not be expanded into a rule that every honest, arguable claim that later loses was professional misconduct.

Question 35Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A court employee recruits clients for an advocate in exchange for a promised future commission rather than immediate payment. What matters under the Article 2 intermediary definition?

  1. Public employment automatically immunizes the referral arrangement.
  2. Only cash paid on the same day can qualify.
  3. Expected future payment or commission can fall within the defined arrangement. Correct answer.
  4. The arrangement becomes a court judgment because a court employee participates.

Explanation

The intermediary definition covers immediate or future payment or commission in the relevant client-recruitment arrangement. Deferring payment does not necessarily remove the conduct from that framework.

Question 36Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A firm holds a client’s property while conducting a case. Which Article 35 rule applies?

  1. Use the property for operating costs whenever repayment is intended.
  2. Merge it into partners’ personal assets pending the final hearing.
  3. Treat possession as an automatic transfer of ownership to the advocate.
  4. Keep and administer it separately from the firm’s own property. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 35 requires separation of client or third-party property held in the course of duty. Possession and an intention to replace it later do not make it the firm’s own asset.

Question 37Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An advocate receives money involving a client’s interest but waits for the client to discover the receipt. What does Article 36(4) require?

  1. Immediate notification to the client or relevant third party. Correct answer.
  2. Notification only after every appeal has ended.
  3. Notification only if the advocate chooses to charge a fee.
  4. Treating a bank entry as a substitute for communication in every case.

Explanation

Article 36(4) requires immediate notification when the advocate receives the relevant money or property. This is distinct from keeping an internal record or waiting for case completion.

Question 38Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A proposed trust-account payment lacks evidence issued in the client’s name for the activity requiring payment. Which Article 36(3) condition is missing?

  1. A general assertion that every firm expense benefits every client.
  2. The stipulated client-linked evidence supporting the payment activity. Correct answer.
  3. Only evidence of payment in the firm’s own name, regardless of the client.
  4. A rule that no client-related payment can ever be made.

Explanation

Article 36(3) links trust-account transactions to payment activities and supporting evidence in the client’s name. A general operating-expense explanation does not supply that evidence.

Question 39Client duties, fees and entrusted property

A client requests the remaining trust balance and a report before the case ends. How should Article 36(5) be approached?

  1. Pay the balance to another client to simplify the ledger.
  2. Refuse automatically because a case must finish before any accounting.
  3. Consider the request-triggered handover and full-report duty, subject to the stated legal or contractual exceptions. Correct answer.
  4. Treat the reporting duty as satisfied by a verbal promise never to audit it.

Explanation

Article 36(5) addresses requests as well as case completion, with its stated qualifications. Do not invent a universal right to retain the balance without a full report until proceedings end.

Question 40Client duties, fees and entrusted property

Property belonging to a third party comes into an advocate’s custody through professional work. Does Article 35 protect only property formally owned by the direct client?

  1. No; it instead requires every such asset to be paid to the opponent.
  2. Yes; all third-party property automatically becomes the firm’s fee.
  3. Yes; the third party must become an equity partner first.
  4. No; it expressly also covers the relevant third party’s property. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 35 expressly refers to client or third-party property held through the professional duty. Custody does not turn the property into a fee or require partnership membership.

Question 41Client duties, fees and entrusted property

Under the published Article 35(2) rule, which event anchors the stated five-year retention period for the relevant property documents?

  1. Completion of the case. Correct answer.
  2. Opening of the advocate’s office, even if the case finishes later.
  3. The last annual licence renewal instead of completion of the case.
  4. The first client consultation even if the matter remains active for years.

Explanation

Article 35(2) ties the specified document retention to completion of the case. A correct time period must be paired with its actual trigger, not an unrelated personal event.

Question 42Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An insurer terminates an advocate’s professional indemnity policy. What separate Article 34 duty concerns the insurer?

  1. Keep termination undisclosed because only the client may report it.
  2. Immediately report termination to the named authority. Correct answer.
  3. Automatically revoke the licence without the statutory process.
  4. Transfer the policy to an unrelated advocate without consent.

Explanation

Article 34 imposes immediate reporting of termination or an impediment to performance. Reporting is not itself an insurer’s power to conduct the public disciplinary or licensing process.

Question 43Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An insurer fails to make the Article 34 report and damage is caused by that failure. What liability point does Article 34(2) specify?

  1. Complete immunity because the failure occurred after termination.
  2. Automatic liability for every unrelated loss in every client case.
  3. Liability for damage caused by the reporting failure. Correct answer.
  4. The client’s loss becomes a law-school examination fee.

Explanation

Article 34(2) connects liability to damage caused by the failure to report. The causal link must not be replaced either by blanket immunity or liability for every unrelated loss.

Question 44Client duties, fees and entrusted property

An advocate keeps a private notebook of client funds but deposits the money in the same account used for personal spending. Which Article 36(1) requirement remains unmet?

  1. Only the spelling of the notebook title matters.
  2. A notebook automatically makes every mixed account a separate account.
  3. Personal-account interest establishes the client’s consent to commingling.
  4. The client money must be in a different account from the advocate’s or firm’s private account. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 36(1) requires account separation. Recording the sums is useful but does not change the actual account into a different one or authorize personal use.

Question 45Client duties, fees and entrusted property

The Association receives a complaint about a trust account and identifies apparent mismanagement. Which Article 62 route is described?

  1. Investigate within its powers and refer the matter for action before the Discipline Committee through the named authority. Correct answer.
  2. Refer the matter only to the examination-grading body as an examination-score dispute.
  3. Assume account audits are forbidden by the Proclamation.
  4. Transfer the account to the firm manager and treat the complaint as automatically resolved.

Explanation

Article 62 provides trust-account oversight and referral functions. A bank’s acceptance of money does not establish compliant administration or prevent professional investigation.

Question 46Law-firm formation, governance and liability

A proposed law firm has one advocate with a valid licence and one unlicensed investor as its only founders. What Article 37 requirement is not met?

  1. One licensed advocate and any investor always satisfy Article 37.
  2. At least two advocates with valid advocacy-service licences must establish the firm. Correct answer.
  3. Only a bank deposit matters; founders need no licences.
  4. Reserving a firm name before any professional eligibility is checked.

Explanation

Article 37 requires at least two licensed advocates as founders. Money or a trading name does not replace the specified professional-status condition.

Question 47Law-firm formation, governance and liability

After formation, a non-advocate financier proposes buying ownership in the law firm. What Article 46 restriction must be considered?

  1. A majority vote always overrides the statutory ownership restriction.
  2. Every lender automatically becomes an eligible owner.
  3. Owners may only be advocates with valid advocacy licences. Correct answer.
  4. Ownership eligibility is determined solely by office location.

Explanation

Article 46 restricts ownership to advocates with valid licences. Financing and ownership are different relationships, and a private vote cannot remove the stated eligibility rule.

Question 48Law-firm formation, governance and liability

A firm chooses a name so similar to an existing firm that clients cannot easily distinguish them. Which Article 40 power is relevant?

  1. A power for the client alone to register any name without review.
  2. A requirement that every firm use the same name.
  3. Automatic ownership of the existing firm through similarity.
  4. Rejection of a misleading or confusingly similar firm name. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 40 permits rejection for similarity and confusion, among other stated grounds. Freedom to choose a name operates within those statutory limits.

Question 49Law-firm formation, governance and liability

Under the English wording of Article 40, what should follow the law-firm name on issued documents?

  1. The required Limited Partnership designation. Correct answer.
  2. Only the abbreviation of the relevant court, with no organizational designation.
  3. The organizational designation only on internal notes, never issued documents.
  4. Only the partners’ personal names because no firm designation is required.

Explanation

Article 40 requires the stated organizational designation with the firm name. The special law’s terminology should not be used to infer unrelated generic partnership rules contrary to its own provisions.

Question 50Law-firm formation, governance and liability

Two eligible advocates sign a partnership agreement but have not completed the public registration step. Under Article 41(1), what establishes the law firm?

  1. The private signatures alone in every circumstance.
  2. Registration by the named authority under the statutory process. Correct answer.
  3. The first opponent’s acceptance of service.
  4. A favorable judgment in an unrelated matter.

Explanation

Article 41(1) provides for establishment upon registration. The private founding documents support the application but do not replace that specified public step.