Cutting Beta with Index Futures - and What the Hedge Does Not Do
A portfolio manager runs a $60 million equity portfolio with a beta of 1.25 against the S&P 500 and wants to cut market exposure to 0.80 for the next 12 months without selling stock (large unrealised gains and a lock-up on the underlying holdings). The six-month S&P 500 futures contract trades at 4,200 with a $250 multiplier. The index spot level is 4,100, the continuously compounded risk-free rate is 5.0%, and the dividend yield is 1.8%. The risk committee is worried about a 15% drawdown but does not want to forfeit all upside if the rally continues; the mandate requires the fund to remain at least 60% net long equities.
1. How many futures contracts are needed, and what beta will the fund actually run? Discuss the practical imperfections.
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Dollar exposure to remove = (1.25 − 0.80) × $60,000,000 = 0.45 × $60M = $27,000,000
Contract notional = 4,200 × $250 = $1,050,000
Contracts = 27,000,000 / 1,050,000 = 25.71 → short 26 contracts (25 if you prefer to round toward the target rather than past it).
Realised beta:
- 26 contracts: 1.25 − (26 × 1,050,000 / 60,000,000) = 1.25 − 0.455 = 0.795
- 25 contracts: 1.25 − 0.4375 = 0.8125
The rounding error is small (0.005 to 0.0125 of beta, i.e. roughly $0.3–0.75 million of market exposure), and with a 12-month horizon the hedge must be rolled at least once, because the contract expires in six months.
Imperfections that matter:
- Beta drift. The portfolio's realised beta is an estimate and moves with the holdings; a static contract count degrades over a year.
- Dividend and rate assumptions. The hedge assumes the index total return is what the futures track; a dividend cut or a rate move changes the correct ratio.
- Basis risk. The portfolio is not the index. Idiosyncratic and style moves are unhedged, and the futures basis (spot vs futures) can move against a roll.
- Margin and liquidity. Short futures require variation margin; in a sharp rally the fund posts cash precisely when it may not want to.
- Mandate floor. Cutting to 0.80 leaves ~80% net long, so the 60% floor is not breached - but a large further hedge would be.
2. Is the quoted futures price of 4,200 consistent with cost of carry? If not, describe the arbitrage and quantify it per contract.
Read the worked answer
Theoretical futures price (six months, continuous compounding):
F = S × e^((r − q)T) = 4,100 × e^((0.05 − 0.018) × 0.5) = 4,100 × e^(0.016) = 4,100 × 1.016129 = 4,166.1
The market quotes 4,200, i.e. the futures are rich by 33.9 index points (about 0.81%).
Arbitrage (cash-and-carry), per index unit:
- Sell the futures at 4,200.
- Borrow 4,100 at 5.0% for six months and buy the index basket (or a cheap index ETF).
- Hold for six months, collecting dividends at 1.8%.
- Deliver into the short futures at 4,200.
Terminal accounting per index unit:
- Basket value at delivery = 4,200 (sold forward)
- Dividends accumulated = 4,100 × (e^(0.018×0.5) − 1) ≈ 4,100 × 0.009041 = 37.07
- Loan repayment = 4,100 × e^(0.05×0.5) = 4,100 × 1.025315 = 4,203.79
- Net = 4,200 + 37.07 − 4,203.79 = +33.28 per index unit
Per contract: 33.28 × $250 ≈ $8,320 (≈ 0.81% of the $1,050,000 notional) before transaction costs, financing spread, and the tracking error of the substitute basket.
Caveat for the hedger. A rich futures price is good for the manager who is short futures: the hedge is being placed at a favourable level versus fair value, which adds a small positive carry. It is not free money unless the arbitrage is executable - for a large fund, index substitution (ETF tracking error, borrow costs, dividend timing) can consume most of an 81 bp edge.
3. The risk committee proposes replacing the futures hedge with a protective put or a collar. Given the stated objectives and mandate, how should the manager choose?
Read the worked answer
The three tools solve different problems:
| Tool | Removes downside? | Keeps upside? | Cost | Beta outcome |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Short futures | Yes, linearly | No - gives up upside 1:1 | Margin, roll, basis | Deterministic |
| Protective put | Yes, below strike | Yes, above strike | Premium (a real cash outflow) | Non-linear |
| Collar (buy put, sell call) | Yes, below put strike | Only up to the call strike | Near zero, but capped upside | Non-linear |
Fit to the stated objectives:
- The committee wants protection against a 15% drawdown and participation in further upside. Short futures fail the second condition: they convert the position into a near-synthetic bond. If the index rises 10%, the hedge loses roughly $27M × 10% ≈ $2.7M of the gain.
- A put gives exactly the described payoff shape. The manager must then decide whether the premium is worth it - with implied volatility at the time of purchase the dominant input, and a 12-month horizon that requires a longer-dated option or a rolling programme.
- A collar finances the put but caps upside, which could conflict with a mandate that emphasises participation; it also introduces the risk that the written call is exercised in a sharp rally.
Mandate constraint. Every structure must keep the fund at least 60% net long. Short futures at 26 contracts leave ~80% net long - fine. A collar that sells calls is still long equities and is fine. A large outright put plus futures could breach the floor and must be sized carefully.
Recommendation. If the committee genuinely wants convexity, use a put (or a collar sized so the cap is well above the fund's target return); accept that it costs money and that the cost is not a hedging 'loss'. If the objective is to engineer a beta of 0.80, futures are the correct and cheapest instrument, and the committee should be told plainly that the upside they are giving up is the price of that certainty.