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Optometrist Registration study materials
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Optometrist Registration practice questions

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Question 1Optometry

A 24-year-old patient reports intermittent diplopia when reading for long periods, and cover testing reveals an exophoria that breaks down to intermittent exotropia at near. Which binocular finding is most consistent with this presentation?

  1. A high accommodative convergence to accommodation ratio
  2. Reduced positive fusional vergence at near with a remote near point of convergence Correct answer.
  3. Esophoria greater at distance than at near
  4. Alternating hypertropia on head tilt

Explanation

Intermittent exotropia at near is typically associated with weak convergence reserves, so positive fusional vergence is reduced and the near point of convergence is receded. These findings reflect convergence insufficiency rather than a vertical or accommodative imbalance.

Question 2Optometry

Which corneal layer is primarily responsible for the cornea's tensile strength and resistance to swelling?

  1. Stroma Correct answer.
  2. Bowman's layer
  3. Corneal epithelium
  4. Endothelium

Explanation

The stroma makes up roughly 90 percent of corneal thickness and its organized collagen lamellae provide tensile strength. Stromal glycosaminoglycans draw in water, so the barrier and pump functions of other layers regulate hydration, but the structural strength resides in the stroma.

Question 3Optometry

A patient using topical timolol for glaucoma also has asthma. Why is this beta-blocker a concern?

  1. It raises intraocular pressure by increasing aqueous production
  2. It causes pupillary constriction that worsens angle closure
  3. It inactivates the drug's ocular hypotensive effect
  4. It can be systemically absorbed and provoke bronchospasm Correct answer.

Explanation

Topically applied beta-blockers reach the nasolacrimal system and can be absorbed systemically, producing bronchoconstriction in susceptible patients. Non-selective beta-blockade is therefore avoided in reactive airway disease, and punctal occlusion reduces absorption.

Question 4Optometry

On direct ophthalmoscopy of a healthy young adult, the optic disc appears pink with a distinct margin and a cup-to-disc ratio of 0.3. Which additional feature is expected at the disc?

  1. Peripapillary flame hemorrhages
  2. A spontaneous venous pulsation Correct answer.
  3. A cupped disc with nasal shift of vessels
  4. A cherry-red macular spot

Explanation

Spontaneous venous pulsation at the disc margin is a normal finding in most healthy eyes and reflects the balance of intraocular and intracranial pressure. Its absence is not diagnostic, but its presence is reassuring.

Question 5Optometry

A 62-year-old reports sudden painless loss of vision in one eye described as a curtain descending over the field. Which condition should be prioritized in the differential?

  1. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
  2. Central retinal vein occlusion
  3. Retinal detachment Correct answer.
  4. Vitreous hemorrhage

Explanation

A painless curtain-like visual field loss is a classic description of retinal detachment, which is an ocular emergency requiring prompt referral. The field defect corresponds to the area of detached retina.

Question 6Optometry

Which test is the most appropriate screening measure for color vision deficiency in a school-aged child?

  1. Amsler grid
  2. Contrast sensitivity testing
  3. Ishihara pseudoisochromatic plates Correct answer.
  4. Worth four-dot test

Explanation

Ishihara plates are designed to detect red-green color vision defects and are the standard screening tool. They are quick, require no specialized equipment beyond the booklet, and are suitable for children who can identify the figures.

Question 7Optometry

A patient's manifest refraction is plano in both eyes, but retinoscopy reveals a uniform with-the-rule reflex requiring minus power. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. Accommodative spasm
  2. Astigmatism
  3. Instrument myopia Correct answer.
  4. Latent hyperopia

Explanation

A discrepancy in which retinoscopy suggests more minus than the manifest refraction can reflect instrument myopia induced by the examination itself. The patient accommodates during retinoscopy, producing an apparent myopic shift that resolves with fogging or cycloplegia.

Question 8Optometry

Which structure produces aqueous humor?

  1. Ciliary epithelium Correct answer.
  2. Schlemm's canal
  3. Corneal endothelium
  4. Trabecular meshwork

Explanation

Aqueous humor is secreted by the ciliary epithelium overlying the ciliary processes. It then flows through the pupil into the anterior chamber and drains via the trabecular meshwork and Schlemm's canal.

Question 9Optometry

A patient with early keratoconus is being fitted with rigid gas-permeable lenses. Which fitting strategy is most appropriate?

  1. A spherical base curve matching the central K
  2. A steeper-than-K base curve with a small diameter
  3. A flatter-than-K base curve with a large diameter
  4. A design that aligns with the cone apex to distribute bearing Correct answer.

Explanation

In keratoconus the goal is to avoid bearing on the cone apex while maintaining centration and tear exchange. A three-point touch or apical clearance design distributes support over the mid-periphery rather than the steepened apex.

Question 10Optometry

Which refractive error is most commonly associated with accommodative esotropia in young children?

  1. High myopia
  2. Moderate to high hyperopia Correct answer.
  3. Low myopia
  4. Mixed astigmatism

Explanation

Uncorrected hyperopia requires sustained accommodation, which drives accommodative convergence and can precipitate esotropia. Correcting the hyperopia with plus lenses often restores alignment.

Question 11Optometry

A patient reports glare and halos at night after uncomplicated cataract surgery with a multifocal intraocular lens. Which explanation is most likely?

  1. Retinal detachment
  2. Posterior capsular opacification
  3. Wound-induced astigmatism
  4. Diffractive optics splitting light into multiple foci Correct answer.

Explanation

Diffractive multifocal lenses divide incoming light among several focal points, so some light is not in focus and produces halos and glare, especially with large pupils at night. Patients should be counselled about this before implantation.

Question 12Optometry

What is the primary purpose of performing a dilated fundus examination in a patient with diabetes?

  1. To assess refractive error
  2. To measure intraocular pressure accurately
  3. To detect diabetic retinopathy and macular edema Correct answer.
  4. To evaluate the lacrimal drainage system

Explanation

Mydriasis provides a wide view of the peripheral retina and macula, allowing detection of microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and macular edema. Early detection guides referral and treatment to prevent vision loss.

Question 13Optometry

A 70-year-old presents with a sudden onset of double vision and a drooping eyelid, and the pupil on the affected side is dilated. Which diagnosis must be excluded urgently?

  1. Sixth nerve palsy
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Fourth nerve palsy
  4. Third nerve palsy from a posterior communicating artery aneurysm Correct answer.

Explanation

A painful or pupil-involved third nerve palsy can signal compression by a posterior communicating artery aneurysm and is a neurosurgical emergency. The combination of ptosis, diplopia, and a dilated pupil points to third nerve involvement.

Question 14Optometry

Which instrument measures corneal curvature by projecting illuminated mires onto the cornea?

  1. Perimeter
  2. Pachymeter
  3. Keratometer Correct answer.
  4. Pupillometer

Explanation

A keratometer projects mires onto the cornea and measures the reflected image size to determine curvature and astigmatism. It is used for contact lens fitting and intraocular lens power calculation.

Question 15Optometry

A patient with a long-standing, gradual loss of central vision shows drusen and pigmentary mottling at the macula. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?

  1. Optic neuritis
  2. Central serous chorioretinopathy
  3. Age-related macular degeneration Correct answer.
  4. Retinitis pigmentosa

Explanation

Drusen with retinal pigment epithelial mottling in an older patient are hallmark features of age-related macular degeneration. The dry form progresses slowly and may convert to the neovascular form, which requires urgent referral.

Question 16Optometry

A patient has a Maddox rod test showing a vertical deviation that increases on right head tilt. Which extraocular muscle is most likely affected?

  1. Right inferior rectus
  2. Right superior oblique Correct answer.
  3. Left superior oblique
  4. Left inferior oblique

Explanation

A vertical deviation that worsens on tilt toward the side of the affected eye suggests a superior oblique palsy on that side. The right superior oblique is therefore the most likely affected muscle in this scenario.

Question 17Optometry

Which type of contact lens is generally contraindicated for overnight wear due to increased risk of microbial keratitis?

  1. Conventional hydrogel lenses worn on an extended-wear basis Correct answer.
  2. Disposable daily lenses worn once
  3. Rigid gas-permeable lenses worn daily
  4. Silicone hydrogel daily wear lenses

Explanation

Extended wear of conventional hydrogel lenses raises the risk of corneal hypoxia and microbial keratitis, so overnight use is generally avoided. Silicone hydrogel materials and daily disposable lenses reduce but do not eliminate this risk.

Question 18Optometry

A patient's visual acuity is 20/200 in the better eye despite optimal correction. Which term best describes this status?

  1. Amblyopia
  2. Low vision Correct answer.
  3. Presbyopia
  4. Legal blindness

Explanation

Low vision refers to significant visual impairment that cannot be corrected by conventional spectacles or contact lenses and interferes with daily activities. Legal blindness is a specific statutory threshold, often 20/200 or worse in the better eye with a restricted field.

Question 19Optometry

A patient reports a foreign body sensation after grinding metal without eye protection. Slit-lamp examination shows a rust ring on the cornea. What is the appropriate management step?

  1. Prescribe topical antibiotics and review in one week
  2. Prescribe artificial tears only
  3. Remove the foreign body and rust ring under magnification, then treat the epithelial defect Correct answer.
  4. Patch the eye tightly without removal

Explanation

Metallic foreign bodies can leave a rust ring that must be removed to allow epithelial healing and prevent staining. Removal under magnification with appropriate topical anesthesia and antibiotic cover is standard care.

Question 20Optometry

Which visual field defect is most characteristic of a lesion at the optic chiasm?

  1. Altitudinal defect
  2. Central scotoma
  3. Homonymous hemianopia
  4. Bitemporal hemianopia Correct answer.

Explanation

Fibers from the nasal retina, which subserve the temporal fields, decussate at the chiasm, so a chiasm lesion produces a bitemporal hemianopia. Pituitary adenomas are a common cause.

Question 21Optometry

A patient with open-angle glaucoma has a target intraocular pressure set by the ophthalmologist. Which concept best explains why the target is individualized rather than a fixed number?

  1. The target reflects the pressure at which progression is unlikely given the patient's risk profile Correct answer.
  2. Target pressure is determined only by corneal thickness
  3. All patients have the same optic nerve susceptibility
  4. Intraocular pressure is unrelated to glaucoma progression

Explanation

Target pressure is chosen based on baseline pressure, extent of damage, rate of progression, life expectancy, and other risk factors. There is no single pressure that is safe for every patient.

Question 22Optometry

Which of the following is the most appropriate first step when a patient presents with a chemical splash to the eye?

  1. Instillation of a topical anesthetic for long-term pain control
  2. Immediate copious irrigation with saline or water Correct answer.
  3. Referral for elective review the next day
  4. Application of a pressure patch

Explanation

Chemical injury requires immediate and copious irrigation to dilute and remove the offending agent before further assessment. Delaying irrigation increases the risk of permanent ocular surface damage.

Question 23Optometry

A patient's near point of accommodation is measured at 40 cm. What is the approximate amplitude of accommodation?

  1. 4.00 D
  2. 1.00 D
  3. 0.40 D
  4. 2.50 D Correct answer.

Explanation

Amplitude of accommodation in diopters is the reciprocal of the near point in meters. A near point of 0.40 m gives 1 divided by 0.40, or 2.50 D.

Question 24Optometry

Which ocular structure is primarily responsible for producing the tear film's lipid layer?

  1. Accessory glands of Krause
  2. Meibomian glands Correct answer.
  3. Goblet cells
  4. Lacrimal gland

Explanation

Meibomian glands in the tarsal plates secrete lipids that form the outermost layer of the tear film and slow evaporation. Dysfunction of these glands contributes to evaporative dry eye.

Question 25Optometry

A patient with a long-standing history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with a sudden painless loss of vision and a fundus showing diffuse retinal hemorrhages in all quadrants. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Central retinal vein occlusion Correct answer.
  2. Central retinal artery occlusion
  3. Vitreous detachment
  4. Optic neuritis

Explanation

Diffuse, blood-and-thunder retinal hemorrhages with sudden painless vision loss suggest central retinal vein occlusion, which is associated with diabetes and hypertension. The blocked venous outflow produces widespread retinal hemorrhage and edema.

Question 26Optometry

During direct ophthalmoscopy, which optical principle explains why the observed retinal image appears inverted and reversed?

  1. The ophthalmoscope lens forms a real image that is viewed from beyond its focal point
  2. The illumination beam crosses at the pupil and reverses the image
  3. The cornea and crystalline lens together act as a strong convex system producing a real inverted image Correct answer.
  4. The examiner's eye acts as a Galilean telescope that inverts the image

Explanation

The eye's refracting surfaces behave as a powerful convex optical system, so the retinal image formed for the observer is real and inverted. Because the examiner views this image directly, the perceived orientation is reversed both vertically and horizontally. This is a fundamental property of the reduced eye model.

Question 27Optometry

Which type of lens is used as the condensing lens in indirect ophthalmoscopy to produce an aerial image of the fundus?

  1. A high-minus concave lens held near the patient's eye
  2. A high-plus convex lens held near the patient's eye Correct answer.
  3. A cylindrical lens oriented vertically
  4. A plano lens with no refractive power

Explanation

Indirect ophthalmoscopy uses a strong convex (plus) condensing lens held in front of the patient's eye to form a real, inverted aerial image of the fundus that the examiner views. The plus power is needed to converge the diverging rays emerging from the eye. Concave or cylindrical lenses cannot form this aerial image.

Question 28Optometry

A patient's keratometry readings are 44.00 D at 180 degrees and 46.00 D at 90 degrees. What is the approximate amount of corneal astigmatism?

  1. 2.00 D Correct answer.
  2. 3.00 D
  3. 1.00 D
  4. 4.00 D

Explanation

Corneal astigmatism is the difference between the two principal meridians. Subtracting 44.00 D from 46.00 D gives 2.00 D of with-the-rule astigmatism. This value reflects the toricity of the anterior cornea.

Question 29Optometry

Which corneal layer is primarily responsible for maintaining corneal transparency through its regular arrangement of collagen fibrils?

  1. Corneal epithelium
  2. Corneal stroma Correct answer.
  3. Corneal endothelium
  4. Bowman's layer

Explanation

The stroma makes up most of the corneal thickness and its highly regular collagen fibril lattice minimizes light scatter, which is essential for transparency. Disruption of this orderly arrangement causes haze. The other layers contribute to barrier and pump functions rather than the lattice.

Question 30Optometry

A patient reports that near objects appear blurred while distance vision is clear, and cycloplegic refraction reveals a hyperopic shift. Which condition best fits this presentation?

  1. Latent hyperopia unmasked by cycloplegia Correct answer.
  2. Presbyopia
  3. Astigmatism
  4. Myopia

Explanation

Cycloplegia relaxes the ciliary muscle, removing accommodative tone and revealing latent hyperopia that the patient had been masking. The blurred near vision with clear distance vision fits this unmasking. Presbyopia would not produce a hyperopic shift on cycloplegic refraction.

Question 31Optometry

Which test is most useful for assessing the integrity of the macula before cataract surgery when a dense cataract obscures the view?

  1. Photostress test
  2. Potential acuity meter Correct answer.
  3. Contrast sensitivity testing
  4. Amsler grid

Explanation

The potential acuity meter projects a small image through a narrow pupil opening to estimate macular function even when a cataract limits the view. It helps predict postoperative visual potential. The Amsler grid and photostress test require a clear view of the macula.

Question 32Optometry

A patient with a suspected retinal detachment reports a sudden shower of floaters and flashes of light. Which finding on examination most strongly supports a rhegmatogenous detachment?

  1. Elevated intraocular pressure with corneal edema
  2. Bilateral optic disc swelling
  3. Diffuse retinal whitening without a break
  4. A retinal tear with subretinal fluid Correct answer.

Explanation

Rhegmatogenous detachment occurs when a retinal break allows liquefied vitreous to enter the subretinal space, creating subretinal fluid. Identifying the break with adjacent fluid confirms the mechanism. Diffuse whitening without a break suggests a different process.

Question 33Optometry

Which of the following best describes the purpose of gonioscopy in a patient being evaluated for glaucoma?

  1. To measure corneal thickness
  2. To evaluate optic nerve cupping
  3. To visualize the anterior chamber angle and identify angle closure or synechiae Correct answer.
  4. To assess macular thickness

Explanation

Gonioscopy uses a mirrored contact lens to view the iridocorneal angle directly, allowing detection of angle closure, peripheral anterior synechiae, and other angle abnormalities. This information guides glaucoma classification and treatment. It does not measure corneal thickness or macular thickness.

Question 34Optometry

A patient's tear break-up time is measured at 4 seconds. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. Borderline stability requiring no action
  2. Indicative of excessive aqueous production
  3. Normal tear film stability
  4. Abnormally rapid tear film instability consistent with dry eye Correct answer.

Explanation

A tear break-up time under about 10 seconds indicates unstable tear film and supports a diagnosis of dry eye, particularly evaporative or mucin deficiency. A value of 4 seconds is clearly abnormal. Normal stability is generally 10 seconds or more.

Question 35Optometry

Which finding on a swinging flashlight test indicates a relative afferent pupillary defect?

  1. The pupil fails to constrict to near targets
  2. The pupil dilates when light is moved to the affected eye and constricts when moved to the normal eye Correct answer.
  3. Both pupils dilate equally when light swings between eyes
  4. Both pupils constrict briskly and equally

Explanation

In a relative afferent pupillary defect, the affected eye transmits less afferent signal, so when light swings to it the pupil dilates rather than maintaining constriction. Constriction occurs when light returns to the normal eye. This indicates asymmetric afferent pathway dysfunction such as optic neuropathy.

Question 36Optometry

Which muscle is primarily responsible for elevating the upper eyelid?

  1. Levator palpebrae superioris Correct answer.
  2. Orbicularis oculi
  3. Superior rectus
  4. Frontalis

Explanation

The levator palpebrae superioris, innervated by the oculomotor nerve, is the main elevator of the upper lid. Its dysfunction produces ptosis. The orbicularis closes the lid, and frontalis provides accessory elevation.

Question 37Optometry

A patient with a known allergy to preservatives in contact lens solutions develops papillary conjunctivitis. Which component is most commonly implicated?

  1. Edetate disodium
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Benzalkonium chloride Correct answer.
  4. Hydroxyethyl cellulose

Explanation

Benzalkonium chloride is a quaternary ammonium preservative widely used in ophthalmic solutions and is a common cause of toxic and allergic conjunctival reactions. Patients with preservative sensitivity often improve when switched to preservative-free products. Sodium chloride and edetate disodium are not typical sensitizers.

Question 38Optometry

A patient presents with a painful red eye, photophobia, and a dendritic corneal lesion that stains with fluorescein. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Fungal keratitis
  2. Herpes simplex keratitis Correct answer.
  3. Bacterial keratitis
  4. Acanthamoeba keratitis

Explanation

A dendritic epithelial lesion with terminal bulbs is the classic presentation of herpes simplex keratitis. The branching pattern reflects viral replication along corneal nerves. Bacterial, Acanthamoeba, and fungal keratitis typically produce different lesion morphologies.

Question 39Optometry

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma?

  1. Topical corticosteroids alone
  2. Immediate lowering of intraocular pressure with topical and systemic agents plus definitive laser iridotomy Correct answer.
  3. Observation with follow-up in one week
  4. Prescribing a stronger reading addition

Explanation

Acute angle closure is an emergency requiring rapid IOP reduction with topical agents, systemic osmotic or carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and often pilocarpine once the angle opens. Definitive treatment is laser peripheral iridotomy to relieve pupillary block. Delay risks permanent optic nerve damage.

Question 40Optometry

A patient reports a gradual painless loss of peripheral vision with an intraocular pressure of 28 mmHg in both eyes and optic disc cupping. Which diagnosis is most consistent?

  1. Vitreous hemorrhage
  2. Central serous chorioretinopathy
  3. Primary open-angle glaucoma Correct answer.
  4. Optic neuritis

Explanation

Painless progressive peripheral field loss with elevated IOP and glaucomatous cupping is characteristic of primary open-angle glaucoma. The optic neuropathy produces arcuate and peripheral field defects. Optic neuritis typically presents with acute painful vision loss.

Question 41Optometry

Which of the following best explains why a patient with a high hyperopic prescription may report clearer vision after instillation of a cycloplegic agent?

  1. The drug constricts the pupil
  2. The drug increases tear production
  3. The cycloplegic reduces corneal curvature
  4. Relaxation of accommodation unmasks the full hyperopic refractive error Correct answer.

Explanation

Cycloplegia paralyzes the ciliary muscle, eliminating accommodative effort that had been compensating for hyperopia. This reveals the full manifest hyperopic error. The other options do not explain the improved clarity.

Question 42Optometry

A patient with a known history of uveitis presents with a constricted pupil, ciliary flush, and cells in the anterior chamber. Which finding is most consistent with acute anterior uveitis?

  1. Miotic pupil with flare and cells Correct answer.
  2. Bullous retinal detachment
  3. Cherry-red spot at the macula
  4. Dilated fixed pupil with no inflammation

Explanation

Acute anterior uveitis typically produces a miotic pupil from iris sphincter irritation, ciliary flush, and anterior chamber cells and flare from breakdown of the blood-aqueous barrier. These findings reflect intraocular inflammation. A dilated fixed pupil suggests a different process such as acute angle closure.

Question 43Optometry

Which of the following is the primary reason for performing a dilated fundus examination in a patient with a new onset of floaters?

  1. To assess the anterior chamber angle
  2. To evaluate the lacrimal drainage system
  3. To measure corneal thickness
  4. To rule out a retinal tear or detachment Correct answer.

Explanation

New floaters may signal a posterior vitreous detachment, which carries a risk of retinal tears that can progress to detachment. A dilated fundus examination allows visualization of the peripheral retina to detect tears. The other options address unrelated structures.

Question 44Optometry

A patient's visual acuity improves from 20/40 to 20/20 when viewing through a pinhole. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. The patient has a macular disease
  2. The patient has optic nerve dysfunction
  3. The reduced acuity is likely due to an uncorrected refractive error Correct answer.
  4. The patient has a media opacity

Explanation

Improvement with a pinhole indicates that the reduced acuity is refractive in origin, since the small aperture reduces blur circles from defocus and astigmatism. Non-refractive causes such as macular or optic nerve disease typically do not improve substantially. This helps distinguish refractive from organic vision loss.

Question 45Optometry

Which of the following is the most appropriate method for measuring the amplitude of accommodation in a young adult?

  1. Cover test at distance
  2. Worth four-dot test
  3. Stereopsis test
  4. Push-up test using a near target Correct answer.

Explanation

The push-up test moves a near target toward the patient until sustained blur is reported, and the distance at which this occurs, combined with the near point, is used to calculate amplitude of accommodation. The other tests assess alignment or binocular function rather than accommodation.

Question 46Optometry

A patient with intermittent exotropia shows a larger deviation on alternate cover testing after prolonged fixation. Which phenomenon does this describe?

  1. Panum's fusional area
  2. Tenacious proximal fusion Correct answer.
  3. Dark focus
  4. Anomalous retinal correspondence

Explanation

Tenacious proximal fusion refers to the ability of some patients with intermittent exotropia to maintain alignment using proximal convergence cues, which can mask the true deviation until fusion is disrupted by prolonged alternate cover testing. This explains the apparent increase in deviation. The other concepts describe different binocular phenomena.

Question 47Optometry

Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for a patient with mild allergic conjunctivitis?

  1. Topical antihistamine or mast cell stabilizer drops Correct answer.
  2. Topical antibiotic drops
  3. Oral corticosteroids
  4. Patching the eye

Explanation

Mild allergic conjunctivitis is managed with topical antihistamines or mast cell stabilizers, often combined with cool compresses and avoidance of allergens. Antibiotics are ineffective for allergic disease, and systemic steroids are not first-line. Patching is not indicated.

Question 48Optometry

A patient with a long-standing history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with a sudden painless loss of vision and a preretinal hemorrhage. Which complication is most likely?

  1. Central retinal vein occlusion
  2. Optic neuritis
  3. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy with vitreous or preretinal hemorrhage Correct answer.
  4. Age-related macular degeneration

Explanation

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy leads to neovascularization, and these fragile vessels can bleed into the preretinal or vitreous space, causing sudden painless vision loss. The history of poorly controlled diabetes supports this mechanism. Other causes do not fit the preretinal hemorrhage pattern as well.

Question 49Optometry

Which of the following is the most appropriate method for evaluating a patient's stereoacuity?

  1. Titmus fly test Correct answer.
  2. Tangent screen
  3. Ishihara plates
  4. Amsler grid

Explanation

The Titmus test uses polarized vectographs to present slightly disparate images to each eye, allowing measurement of stereoacuity. It specifically assesses binocular depth perception. Ishihara plates test color vision, and the Amsler grid and tangent screen assess visual field or macular function.

Question 50Optometry

A patient presents with a chemical splash to the eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Prescribe topical antibiotics and follow up next week
  2. Apply a pressure patch
  3. Instill topical anesthetic and send home
  4. Irrigate copiously with saline or water Correct answer.

Explanation

Immediate copious irrigation is the priority in chemical injury to dilute and remove the offending agent and limit tissue damage. Irrigation should begin before detailed examination. Patching or delayed treatment risks progressive damage.