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IUP ITS practice questions

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Question 1IT Service Management and Support Operations

In ITIL 4, which component of the service value system describes how the organization's activities and resources are coordinated to deliver value?

  1. The four dimensions model
  2. The continual improvement model
  3. The service value chain Correct answer.
  4. The guiding principles

Explanation

The service value chain is the set of six interconnected activities (plan, improve, engage, design and transition, obtain/build, deliver and support) that transform inputs into outputs and coordinate the organization's work to create value. The guiding principles and the four dimensions are inputs and constraints to that system rather than the coordination mechanism itself.

Question 2IT Service Management and Support Operations

A user reports that a shared drive is inaccessible. The service desk agent restores access within ten minutes and records the resolution against the known error record. Which service management practice has the agent primarily performed?

  1. Change enablement
  2. Problem management
  3. Service level management
  4. Incident management Correct answer.

Explanation

Incident management focuses on restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible, which is exactly what the agent did by restoring access in ten minutes. Referencing a known error does not change the nature of the activity: the priority was restoration of service, not root-cause investigation.

Question 3IT Service Management and Support Operations

What is the primary purpose of a service level agreement (SLA) between a service provider and a customer?

  1. To define agreed service expectations and the responsibilities of both parties Correct answer.
  2. To record every incident that affects the customer
  3. To list the individual skills held by support staff
  4. To document the technical configuration of each server

Explanation

An SLA formalizes what the service will deliver, the measurable targets, and the responsibilities of provider and customer, so both sides share a common expectation. It is an agreement about service outcomes, not a technical inventory or a staff roster.

Question 4IT Service Management and Support Operations

A support team uses a prioritized queue where each ticket has an impact and an urgency value. Which practice does this arrangement most directly support?

  1. Knowledge management
  2. Deployment management
  3. Capacity management
  4. Incident prioritization Correct answer.

Explanation

Impact and urgency are the two inputs used to derive priority in incident management, so a queue built on those values directly supports prioritization of incidents. Capacity, deployment, and knowledge practices do not use impact and urgency as their defining inputs.

Question 5IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which statement best describes a configuration item (CI) in service management?

  1. Any deviation from an agreed service target
  2. Any supplier contract held by the organization
  3. Any request from a user that requires a standard response
  4. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service Correct answer.

Explanation

A configuration item is any component under configuration control that must be managed for the service to be delivered, including hardware, software, documentation, and people where relevant. The other options describe service requests, breaches, and agreements rather than configuration items.

Question 6IT Service Management and Support Operations

A user asks the service desk for a new laptop with the standard office software image. How should this be classified?

  1. A major incident
  2. A service request Correct answer.
  3. A problem record
  4. An emergency change

Explanation

A request for a standard, pre-approved item or access is a service request, handled through the request fulfilment process rather than incident or change management. It is not a failure of service, so it is not an incident or problem.

Question 7IT Service Management and Support Operations

What does the first-call resolution (FCR) metric measure at a service desk?

  1. The proportion of tickets closed by automated tools
  2. The percentage of contacts resolved without escalation or callback Correct answer.
  3. The average time taken to answer an incoming call
  4. The number of agents logged in during peak hours

Explanation

First-call resolution measures how often an issue is fully resolved during the initial contact, without escalation to another tier or a callback. It is a quality and efficiency indicator for the service desk, distinct from speed of answer or staffing levels.

Question 8IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which activity belongs to the 'deliver and support' value chain activity?

  1. Handling user incidents and service requests Correct answer.
  2. Forecasting future demand for services
  3. Retiring an obsolete application
  4. Defining the service catalogue

Explanation

Deliver and support ensures that services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications, which includes handling incidents and service requests. Catalogue definition sits with design and transition, demand forecasting with plan, and retirement with obtain/build or design and transition.

Question 9IT Service Management and Support Operations

An agent resolves an incident but the underlying fault will recur because a permanent fix is not yet available. What should the agent do?

  1. Escalate the incident as a major incident
  2. Reclassify the incident as a service request
  3. Close the incident and take no further action
  4. Raise a problem record and link the incident to it Correct answer.

Explanation

When a workaround exists but the root cause remains, the incident should be linked to a problem record so the underlying fault is investigated and a permanent fix pursued. Closing without follow-up would leave the organization exposed to repeat incidents.

Question 10IT Service Management and Support Operations

A change that is low risk, frequently performed, and pre-authorized follows a defined procedure. Which change type is this?

  1. Normal change
  2. Emergency change
  3. Major change
  4. Standard change Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard changes are pre-authorized, low-risk, repeatable changes that follow a documented procedure and do not require individual assessment each time. Normal changes require assessment and authorization, and emergency changes are invoked to resolve urgent incidents.

Question 11IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk publishes a knowledge article describing a verified workaround for a recurring printer fault. What is the most direct benefit of this action?

  1. It reduces resolution time by giving agents a known remedy Correct answer.
  2. It removes the need for change authorization
  3. It guarantees the printer will not fail again
  4. It eliminates the need for a problem record

Explanation

Documenting a verified workaround in the knowledge base lets agents apply a known remedy quickly, reducing resolution time and improving consistency. It does not remove the need for root-cause investigation, prevent recurrence, or affect change control.

Question 12IT Service Management and Support Operations

A customer and provider agree on internal targets that support an external SLA but are not visible to the customer. What are these targets called?

  1. Operational level agreements Correct answer.
  2. Underpinning contracts
  3. Service catalogues
  4. Service level agreements

Explanation

Operational level agreements (OLAs) are internal agreements between teams within the same organization that support delivery of the customer-facing SLA. Underpinning contracts are agreements with external suppliers, and the service catalogue is a description of available services.

Question 13IT Service Management and Support Operations

The service desk records a spike in password-reset calls every Monday morning. Which practice should analyze this pattern to identify the underlying cause?

  1. Problem management Correct answer.
  2. Request fulfilment
  3. Release management
  4. Asset management

Explanation

A recurring pattern of incidents is a signal for problem management, which investigates underlying causes and proposes permanent fixes such as extending password expiry or enabling self-service reset. Request fulfilment, release, and asset management do not own root-cause analysis.

Question 14IT Service Management and Support Operations

What is the main purpose of a service desk knowledge base in day-to-day operations?

  1. To replace the incident management process
  2. To provide consistent, reusable guidance for resolving issues Correct answer.
  3. To record the salaries of support staff
  4. To store the personal notes of individual agents

Explanation

A knowledge base gives agents and users consistent, reusable guidance so similar issues are resolved the same way and faster. It supports processes such as incident and request management rather than replacing them, and it is not a personal or HR repository.

Question 15IT Service Management and Support Operations

A ticket's impact is assessed as high while its urgency is assessed as low. According to standard priority derivation, what priority should result?

  1. Low priority
  2. Critical priority
  3. Medium priority Correct answer.
  4. High priority

Explanation

Priority is derived from the combination of impact and urgency. A high impact combined with low urgency typically yields a medium priority, because the effect is significant but the time pressure is limited. Treating it as critical or high would overstate urgency, and low would understate impact.

Question 16IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which metric best indicates whether the service desk is meeting its agreed response commitments to users?

  1. Number of tickets reopened after closure
  2. Percentage of incidents resolved within SLA targets Correct answer.
  3. Average agent tenure in months
  4. Total number of knowledge articles published

Explanation

The proportion of incidents resolved within the agreed SLA target directly shows whether commitments to users are being met. Reopen rate, tenure, and article counts are useful indicators but do not measure compliance with response and resolution commitments.

Question 17IT Service Management and Support Operations

A support team wants to reduce repeat contacts for the same issue by enabling users to reset their own passwords. Which practice outcome does this best illustrate?

  1. Growth in the number of problem records
  2. Expansion of the configuration baseline
  3. Shift left through self-service and automation Correct answer.
  4. Increase in emergency changes

Explanation

Moving resolution capability closer to the user through self-service and automation is the essence of shift left, which reduces demand on the service desk. It does not inherently increase emergency changes, expand configuration baselines, or multiply problem records.

Question 18IT Service Management and Support Operations

What distinguishes an incident from a problem?

  1. An incident is an unplanned interruption to service; a problem is the underlying cause of one or more incidents Correct answer.
  2. An incident is a planned change; a problem is an unplanned change
  3. An incident is a service catalogue entry; a problem is a request for information
  4. An incident is a supplier contract; a problem is an internal agreement

Explanation

An incident is an unplanned interruption or degradation of a service, while a problem is the cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents. The two are related but distinct: restoring service resolves the incident, whereas eliminating the cause resolves the problem.

Question 19IT Service Management and Support Operations

A critical payment service fails during peak trading. Which sequence best reflects effective major incident handling?

  1. Close the incident immediately, then notify stakeholders if time permits
  2. Log the incident, assign a major incident lead, communicate status to stakeholders, restore service, then review Correct answer.
  3. Open a problem record, await root-cause analysis, then restore service
  4. Raise a normal change, obtain approval, then restore service

Explanation

Major incident handling prioritizes rapid restoration and clear communication: log and classify, appoint a lead to coordinate, keep stakeholders informed, restore service, and conduct a review afterwards. Root-cause analysis and change approval follow restoration rather than gating it.

Question 20IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which statement about the relationship between service level agreements and underpinning contracts is correct?

  1. Underpinning contracts replace the need for an SLA
  2. Underpinning contracts are user-facing documents describing service hours
  3. Underpinning contracts are agreements with external suppliers that should support the SLA targets Correct answer.
  4. Underpinning contracts are internal team targets that mirror the SLA

Explanation

Underpinning contracts are agreements with external suppliers, and they should be aligned so that supplier performance supports the commitments made in the SLA. Internal team targets are OLAs, and underpinning contracts complement rather than replace the customer-facing agreement.

Question 21IT Service Management and Support Operations

A configuration management database shows that an application depends on a database whose support contract expires in 30 days. Which practice is best placed to act on this information?

  1. Incident management, to log a new ticket for each user
  2. Request fulfilment, to process a standard order
  3. Problem management, to investigate database errors
  4. Service configuration management, to maintain accurate dependency records and flag risk Correct answer.

Explanation

Service configuration management maintains accurate records of configuration items and their relationships, so it can surface dependency and lifecycle risks such as an expiring support contract. Acting on the risk may involve other practices, but the records and their accuracy are owned by configuration management.

Question 22IT Service Management and Support Operations

A team measures the proportion of incidents resolved by the first line versus escalated to second line. Which conclusion is most defensible from a rising first-line resolution rate?

  1. The service desk is resolving more issues without escalation, which may indicate improved knowledge and skills Correct answer.
  2. The second line has become unnecessary and should be disbanded
  3. The service desk has stopped logging incidents
  4. The organization has eliminated all recurring incidents

Explanation

A rising first-line resolution rate shows that more contacts are closed without escalation, which usually reflects better knowledge, training, or tooling at the desk. It does not prove that incidents have been eliminated, that second line is redundant, or that logging has ceased.

Question 23IT Service Management and Support Operations

An organization wants to reduce unplanned downtime caused by changes. Which control most directly addresses this goal?

  1. Banning all changes during business hours
  2. Assessing and authorizing changes according to risk, with standard changes pre-authorized Correct answer.
  3. Increasing the number of emergency changes
  4. Requiring every change to follow the same full approval board

Explanation

Change enablement should scale control to risk: low-risk standard changes are pre-authorized and higher-risk normal changes get appropriate assessment and authorization. Applying one heavyweight path to all changes slows delivery, while banning changes or increasing emergency changes does not reduce change-related failure.

Question 24IT Service Management and Support Operations

A known error record documents a workaround but no permanent fix. What is the most appropriate use of this record during incident resolution?

  1. Reclassify matching incidents as problems automatically
  2. Apply the documented workaround to restore service quickly and link incidents to the known error Correct answer.
  3. Delete the record once a single incident is closed
  4. Escalate every matching incident to the change advisory board

Explanation

A known error record exists precisely so that a verified workaround can be applied rapidly while root-cause resolution is still pending, and incidents should be linked to it for traceability. Deleting it, escalating to a change board, or reclassifying incidents would not improve restoration.

Question 25IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk has high customer satisfaction but a low first-contact resolution rate and a high escalation rate. Which interpretation is most reasonable?

  1. Escalations prove that incidents are being resolved faster
  2. The desk is overstaffed and should reduce headcount
  3. Customers are misreporting their satisfaction
  4. Agents are friendly and helpful but may lack the authority or knowledge to resolve issues at first contact Correct answer.

Explanation

High satisfaction alongside low first-contact resolution and high escalation suggests good interpersonal service but gaps in empowerment, knowledge, or tooling that push issues to other tiers. Satisfaction data is not evidence of misreporting, and high escalation indicates slower, not faster, resolution.

Question 26IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk agent receives a call that cannot be resolved within the agreed first-line scope and must be routed to a specialist group. Which service desk activity does this represent?

  1. Change enablement
  2. Continual improvement
  3. Escalation Correct answer.
  4. Problem management

Explanation

Escalation is the movement of an incident or request to a group with greater authority, skill, or access rights when the current tier cannot resolve it. It is distinct from problem management, which investigates root causes, and from change enablement, which authorizes modifications to services. Routing a call to a specialist group is therefore functional escalation.

Question 27IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which statement best describes the role of a service catalogue in support operations?

  1. It documents the root cause analysis performed for recurring incidents.
  2. It stores the technical attributes and dependency relationships of every configuration item.
  3. It lists the services available to users together with their descriptions, ordering information, and support commitments. Correct answer.
  4. It records every incident and service request handled by the service desk.

Explanation

The service catalogue is the customer-facing view of services, describing what is offered, how to order it, and the associated service levels. It is not a technical inventory of configuration items, which belongs to a configuration management database. Incident logs and problem records are separate repositories.

Question 28IT Service Management and Support Operations

A user submits a request for access to a shared drive that requires line-manager approval before the support team provisions it. Which workflow element is essential in this request fulfilment?

  1. A change advisory board review of every individual access request
  2. An approval step recorded in the request before fulfilment activities begin Correct answer.
  3. A problem record raised against the shared drive service
  4. A major incident declared for the access request

Explanation

Service requests follow a predefined workflow that often includes authorization, so the approval must be captured before provisioning occurs. This provides an audit trail and prevents unauthorized access. Problem records, major incident declarations, and full change board reviews are not appropriate for a routine, pre-defined request.

Question 29IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk manager wants to know how long users typically wait before an agent first responds to their tickets. Which measure should be tracked?

  1. Mean time between failures of a component
  2. Mean time to respond to the first user contact Correct answer.
  3. Mean time to restore service after an outage
  4. Mean time to complete a major change

Explanation

First response time measures the elapsed period between a user's contact and the agent's initial reply, which is directly relevant to perceived service quality. Mean time to restore concerns recovery from failures, mean time between failures concerns reliability, and change completion time concerns change throughput. Only first response time addresses waiting before an agent engages.

Question 30IT Service Management and Support Operations

An agent cannot resolve a ticket and transfers it to a second-line team. What information is most important to include in the handover so the user does not have to repeat diagnostic steps?

  1. A copy of the service catalogue entry for the affected service
  2. A summary of symptoms, actions already taken, and results of those actions Correct answer.
  3. The agent's opinion of the user's technical ability
  4. Only the user's name and contact number

Explanation

Effective escalation preserves diagnostic continuity by recording the symptoms observed, the checks and fixes already attempted, and their outcomes. This prevents duplicated effort and reduces user frustration. Contact details alone, subjective judgments about the user, or catalogue descriptions do not convey what has already been tested.

Question 31IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk agent notices that the same disk-space alert has appeared on a server three times this week and each time was cleared by deleting temporary files. What is the most appropriate next action?

  1. Declare a major incident because the server has failed repeatedly.
  2. Raise a problem record so the underlying cause of recurring disk exhaustion can be investigated. Correct answer.
  3. Close the alerts as duplicates and take no further action.
  4. Submit a request for additional temporary file cleanup scripts.

Explanation

Repeated incidents with a common symptom indicate an unidentified root cause, which is the trigger for problem management. Raising a problem record initiates investigation and a permanent fix rather than repeated symptomatic treatment. Closing as duplicates, declaring a major incident, or automating the workaround all avoid addressing the cause.

Question 32IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which practice is responsible for ensuring that users have the access rights they need while removing those rights promptly when they change roles?

  1. Access management Correct answer.
  2. Incident management
  3. Service level management
  4. Deployment management

Explanation

Access management grants authorized users the right to use a service and revokes that right when it is no longer justified, such as after a role change. Incident management restores service, service level management sets and monitors targets, and deployment management moves components into live environments. Only access management governs the lifecycle of user rights.

Question 33IT Service Management and Support Operations

A user reports that an application is slow only when accessed from a branch office, while headquarters users experience normal performance. Which troubleshooting approach is most efficient first step?

  1. Replace the branch office network hardware.
  2. Compare the affected path and conditions with a working case to isolate the variable that differs. Correct answer.
  3. Escalate directly to the application vendor without collecting data.
  4. Reinstall the application on the user's device immediately.

Explanation

When the same service works in one context and fails in another, comparing the working and failing cases isolates the differing variable, here the branch network path. This narrows the fault domain before any costly action. Reinstallation, vendor escalation without evidence, and hardware replacement are premature and may not address the cause.

Question 34IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk operates a follow-the-sun model across three regions. Which arrangement best supports consistent handling of tickets across time zones?

  1. Each region maintaining its own separate ticketing tool and priority scheme
  2. Routing all tickets to the region where the user is physically located regardless of workload
  3. Closing open tickets at the end of each regional shift
  4. Shared queues with documented handover notes and common prioritization rules Correct answer.

Explanation

Follow-the-sun support depends on a single shared view of work so that the next region can continue seamlessly. Common prioritization rules and structured handover notes preserve context and fairness. Separate tools, location-only routing, and end-of-shift closures all break continuity for the user.

Question 35IT Service Management and Support Operations

Which statement correctly distinguishes an incident from a service request?

  1. A service request is always more urgent than an incident.
  2. An incident is raised only by IT staff, while a service request is raised only by users.
  3. An incident always requires a change record, while a service request never does.
  4. An incident is an unplanned interruption or degradation, while a service request is a routine, pre-defined user need. Correct answer.

Explanation

Incidents represent unplanned disruption or degradation of service quality, whereas service requests are normal, planned interactions such as access or information requests. The distinction drives different workflows and targets. Urgency, change involvement, and who raises the record are not defining criteria.

Question 36IT Service Management and Support Operations

A known error has a documented workaround but no permanent fix. A user reports the matching symptom during a busy period. What is the most appropriate action for the service desk?

  1. Delete the known error record because the fix is unavailable.
  2. Wait for the permanent fix before responding to the user.
  3. Reclassify the ticket as a service request.
  4. Apply the documented workaround and link the ticket to the known error record. Correct answer.

Explanation

Known error records exist so that support staff can resolve or mitigate matching incidents quickly using the validated workaround while the permanent fix is developed. Linking the ticket maintains an accurate count of affected users and supports prioritization of the fix. Delaying the user, reclassifying the ticket, or discarding the record all waste available knowledge.

Question 37IT Service Management and Support Operations

A support team wants to know whether its knowledge articles actually help agents resolve tickets faster. Which approach provides the most direct evidence?

  1. Survey agents on whether they enjoy writing articles.
  2. Count the total number of articles published this quarter.
  3. Measure the number of words in each published article.
  4. Compare resolution times for tickets where an article was used against those where none was used. Correct answer.

Explanation

To show that articles improve resolution speed, the relevant comparison is resolution time between tickets where an article was linked and those where it was not. Article counts, author sentiment, and article length describe activity or volume but not outcome. Only the comparative measure connects knowledge use to resolution performance.

Question 38IT Service Management and Support Operations

A priority matrix combines impact and urgency. A ticket affects a single user who cannot work at all, and the user's deadline is today. Which factor most directly raises the urgency assessment?

  1. The seniority of the assigned engineer
  2. The number of configuration items involved
  3. The proximity of the user's deadline Correct answer.
  4. The version of the affected application

Explanation

Urgency reflects how quickly resolution is needed, so an imminent deadline increases it even when impact is limited to one user. Impact, by contrast, reflects the breadth of the effect on the business. Configuration item count, engineer seniority, and application version do not measure time sensitivity.

Question 39IT Service Management and Support Operations

An organization wants to reduce the number of tickets that arrive at the service desk without degrading service quality. Which initiative addresses this goal most directly?

  1. Publishing self-service knowledge and automated request workflows for high-volume, low-risk needs Correct answer.
  2. Increasing the number of agents on the first line
  3. Raising the priority of all incoming tickets
  4. Extending service desk opening hours

Explanation

Demand reduction targets the source of contacts by enabling users to resolve common needs themselves through self-service and automation. Adding agents, extending hours, or raising priorities increases capacity or attention but leaves the volume of incoming contacts unchanged. Only shifting suitable demand to self-service reduces the load on the desk.

Question 40IT Service Management and Support Operations

A service desk uses a single queue for incidents, service requests, and changes. What is the most likely operational consequence?

  1. Change records are automatically authorized by the queue.
  2. Service level attainment improves because all work is visible in one place.
  3. Average handling time decreases because agents see fewer categories.
  4. Prioritization becomes unreliable because records with different workflows and targets compete in one queue. Correct answer.

Explanation

Incidents, requests, and changes have different workflows, targets, and approval requirements, so mixing them in one queue makes consistent prioritization difficult. Visibility alone does not improve attainment when targets and handling rules differ. A queue cannot authorize changes, and handling time is unlikely to fall simply because categories are combined.

Question 41Networking and Network Infrastructure

Which IPv4 address range is reserved for private use and is commonly deployed on small office LANs as 192.168.0.0/16?

  1. 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255
  2. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 Correct answer.
  3. 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255

Explanation

RFC 1918 defines three private blocks: 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12 and 192.168.0.0/16. The 192.168.0.0/16 block spans 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 and is widely used on home and small office networks behind NAT.

Question 42Networking and Network Infrastructure

A workstation is configured with the address 169.254.14.7/16. What does this address indicate about the host's network configuration?

  1. It is behind a NAT gateway using carrier-grade translation.
  2. It is using a statically assigned public address.
  3. It received a lease from a DHCP server on the 169.254 subnet.
  4. It failed to obtain a DHCP lease and self-assigned a link-local address. Correct answer.

Explanation

The 169.254.0.0/16 range is the IPv4 link-local block. Hosts using automatic private IP addressing assign themselves an address from this range when no DHCP server responds, which usually signals a DHCP or cabling problem.

Question 43Networking and Network Infrastructure

Which protocol operates at the transport layer and provides connection-oriented, reliable delivery with sequencing and acknowledgements?

  1. UDP
  2. ARP
  3. TCP Correct answer.
  4. ICMP

Explanation

TCP is the connection-oriented transport protocol: it performs a three-way handshake, sequences segments, acknowledges received data and retransmits lost segments. UDP is connectionless, while ICMP and ARP operate at the network and link layers respectively.

Question 44Networking and Network Infrastructure

What is the primary function of DNS in an IP network?

  1. Resolving hostnames to IP addresses Correct answer.
  2. Routing packets between autonomous systems
  3. Encrypting traffic between clients and servers
  4. Assigning IP addresses to hosts automatically

Explanation

DNS is a hierarchical distributed database that maps human-readable names such as www.example.com to IP addresses (and other records). Address assignment is DHCP's job, encryption is provided by TLS/IPsec, and inter-domain routing is handled by BGP.

Question 45Networking and Network Infrastructure

Which device forwards frames based on MAC addresses and confines a collision domain to a single port?

  1. Hub
  2. Repeater
  3. Switch Correct answer.
  4. Router

Explanation

A Layer 2 switch learns source MAC addresses and forwards frames only out the port where the destination MAC is known, giving each port its own collision domain. Hubs and repeaters simply repeat electrical signals to all ports, sharing one collision domain.

Question 46Networking and Network Infrastructure

Which cable category is specified to support 10GBASE-T over distances up to 100 meters?

  1. Cat 6a Correct answer.
  2. Cat 5
  3. Cat 3
  4. Cat 5e

Explanation

Cat 6a is rated for 10GBASE-T at 100 meters and is specified to 500 MHz. Cat 6 supports 10GBASE-T only up to about 55 meters, and Cat 5/5e are limited to 1 Gbps at 100 meters.

Question 47Networking and Network Infrastructure

Which port number does HTTPS use by default?

  1. 80
  2. 21
  3. 443 Correct answer.
  4. 3389

Explanation

HTTPS is HTTP carried over TLS and uses TCP port 443 by default. Port 80 is plain HTTP, 21 is FTP control, and 3389 is Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol.

Question 48Networking and Network Infrastructure

What does the /24 suffix in 192.168.10.0/24 specify?

  1. The default gateway address for the subnet
  2. The number of leading bits in the subnet mask Correct answer.
  3. The number of usable host addresses in the subnet
  4. The VLAN identifier assigned to the subnet

Explanation

CIDR notation /24 means the first 24 bits of the address are the network portion, equivalent to a mask of 255.255.255.0. The usable host count is a consequence of that mask, not the meaning of the suffix itself.

Question 49Networking and Network Infrastructure

A host with address 10.20.30.45/26 needs its subnet broadcast address. Which address is correct?

  1. 10.20.30.63 Correct answer.
  2. 10.20.30.31
  3. 10.20.30.47
  4. 10.20.30.255

Explanation

A /26 mask is 255.255.255.192, so subnets step in increments of 64. The relevant block runs from 10.20.30.0 to 10.20.30.63, making 10.20.30.63 the broadcast address for the subnet containing .45.

Question 50Networking and Network Infrastructure

How many usable host addresses does a /28 IPv4 subnet provide?

  1. 14 Correct answer.
  2. 32
  3. 16
  4. 30

Explanation

A /28 leaves 4 host bits, giving 2^4 = 16 total addresses. Subtracting the network and broadcast addresses leaves 14 usable host addresses.