I85PREP
⌘ K
MP SET study materials
MP SET study resources

MP SET practice questions

One question at a time. Build your MP SET understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In the MP SET subject paper, a candidate who has opted for a language subject is typically tested primarily on which of the following?

  1. General reasoning and quantitative aptitude only
  2. The advanced content, theory and research methods of the chosen subject discipline Correct answer.
  3. Teaching aptitude and classroom management only
  4. Current affairs of the state alone

Explanation

The MP SET subject paper is designed to assess a candidate's depth in the discipline they have chosen, covering advanced content, conceptual theory and research methodology of that subject. It is not a general aptitude or current affairs paper, which belong to the general paper.

Question 2Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate opting for a science subject in the MP SET is most likely to encounter questions that require which cognitive operation?

  1. Applying scientific principles to interpret data or solve numerical problems Correct answer.
  2. Translating passages between languages
  3. Recalling definitions without any application
  4. Summarising literary criticism

Explanation

Science subject papers test conceptual understanding through application, such as interpreting experimental data or solving numerical problems using established principles. Pure definition recall or literary and translation tasks belong to other disciplines.

Question 3Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In the context of the MP SET, 'subject-specific paper' most accurately refers to which of the following?

  1. A paper common to all candidates regardless of discipline
  2. A paper testing only research ethics
  3. A paper testing only computer literacy
  4. A paper chosen by the candidate matching the subject they have opted for Correct answer.

Explanation

The subject-specific paper is the one the candidate selects according to the discipline they have opted for, so its content varies by subject. It is not a common paper for all candidates, nor is it restricted to research ethics or computer literacy.

Question 4Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate preparing for a humanities subject in the MP SET should expect questions that emphasise which of the following?

  1. Clinical diagnostic procedures
  2. Structural engineering calculations
  3. Critical interpretation of texts, concepts and arguments Correct answer.
  4. Laboratory instrumentation and measurement error

Explanation

Humanities subject papers test critical reading, interpretation of texts and evaluation of arguments. Laboratory, clinical and engineering tasks belong to science, medical and engineering disciplines respectively.

Question 5Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

When the MP SET syllabus for an opted subject lists 'research methodology', the candidate should primarily prepare to do which of the following?

  1. Memorise the names of researchers in the field
  2. Learn only the history of the discipline
  3. Practise handwriting and presentation skills
  4. Understand how studies are designed, data are analysed and conclusions are drawn Correct answer.

Explanation

Research methodology assesses understanding of study design, sampling, data analysis and inference. Memorising researcher names or discipline history does not capture methodological reasoning.

Question 6Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate's subject paper includes a question asking them to distinguish a primary source from a secondary source. Which pair correctly illustrates the distinction?

  1. A review article versus a meta-analysis
  2. A lecture slide versus a lecture transcript
  3. A textbook versus an encyclopaedia article
  4. A diary written at the time versus a later textbook summarising it Correct answer.

Explanation

A primary source is an original, contemporaneous record such as a diary, while a secondary source interprets or summarises primary material, like a later textbook. The other pairs do not represent a primary-versus-secondary contrast.

Question 7Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify the independent variable in an experiment. Which description fits best?

  1. An uncontrolled variable that distorts results
  2. A variable held constant throughout
  3. The outcome measured after manipulation
  4. The variable deliberately manipulated by the researcher Correct answer.

Explanation

The independent variable is the factor the researcher deliberately changes to observe its effect. The outcome measured is the dependent variable, a constant is a control, and an uncontrolled factor is a confounding variable.

Question 8Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A subject paper in a language discipline asks candidates to identify the minimal pair in a set of words. What is being tested?

  1. Whether two words differ in exactly one phoneme and carry different meanings Correct answer.
  2. Whether two words belong to the same part of speech
  3. Whether two words have the same number of letters
  4. Whether two words share the same meaning

Explanation

A minimal pair consists of two words that differ in exactly one phoneme and have different meanings, demonstrating phonemic contrast. Shared meaning, letter count or part of speech are not criteria for a minimal pair.

Question 9Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a commerce subject paper, a question asks whether a given transaction increases or decreases working capital. Which item is classified as a current asset?

  1. Plant and machinery
  2. Goodwill
  3. Inventory held for sale Correct answer.
  4. Long-term borrowings

Explanation

Inventory held for sale is a current asset because it is expected to be converted to cash within the operating cycle. Plant and machinery and goodwill are non-current assets, and long-term borrowings are a non-current liability.

Question 10Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a management subject is asked to identify a characteristic of a formal organisation. Which statement best fits?

  1. Membership is based on informal attraction
  2. Roles are defined by personal friendships
  3. Coordination arises spontaneously without rules
  4. Authority and responsibility are deliberately structured Correct answer.

Explanation

A formal organisation is deliberately designed with defined roles, authority and responsibility relationships. Personal friendships, spontaneous coordination and informal attraction describe informal organisation.

Question 11Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a political science subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify a feature of a federal system of government. Which feature is most characteristic?

  1. The judiciary is subordinate to the executive
  2. Powers are constitutionally divided between central and regional governments Correct answer.
  3. There is no written constitution
  4. All powers are concentrated in a single central authority

Explanation

A federal system constitutionally divides powers between a central government and regional units, each exercising authority in its own sphere. Concentration of all powers describes a unitary system, and judicial subordination or absence of a written constitution are unrelated features.

Question 12Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a life sciences subject is asked to distinguish mitosis from meiosis. Which statement correctly distinguishes them?

  1. Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid cells, while meiosis produces four genetically varied haploid cells Correct answer.
  2. Both processes produce identical haploid gametes
  3. Meiosis occurs only in prokaryotes, while mitosis occurs only in eukaryotes
  4. Mitosis produces four haploid cells, while meiosis produces two diploid cells

Explanation

Mitosis yields two genetically identical diploid daughter cells, whereas meiosis yields four genetically varied haploid cells through two divisions. The reversed and hybrid descriptions are incorrect, and both processes occur in eukaryotes.

Question 13Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a history subject paper, a question asks the candidate to evaluate a source's reliability. Which consideration is most appropriate?

  1. Whether the source is printed rather than handwritten
  2. Whether the source is short
  3. Whether the author had access to events and a motive to distort them Correct answer.
  4. Whether the source is entertaining to read

Explanation

Evaluating reliability involves assessing the author's proximity to events, access to information and possible bias or motive to distort. Entertainment value, medium of printing and length are not criteria of reliability.

Question 14Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A subject paper in economics asks the candidate to identify a shift in the demand curve rather than a movement along it. Which event causes a shift?

  1. A change in the price of the good itself
  2. A change in the quantity supplied
  3. A change in consumers' income Correct answer.
  4. A movement from one price to another on the same curve

Explanation

A change in a non-price determinant such as consumer income shifts the demand curve. A change in the good's own price causes movement along the existing demand curve, and supply changes do not shift demand.

Question 15Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a mathematics subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify when a square matrix is singular. Which condition is correct?

  1. Its trace is zero
  2. Its determinant is zero Correct answer.
  3. It is symmetric
  4. Its determinant is positive

Explanation

A square matrix is singular when its determinant equals zero, meaning it has no inverse. A positive determinant, symmetry or a zero trace does not by itself make a matrix singular.

Question 16Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in an education subject paper is asked about formative assessment. Which description is most accurate?

  1. Assessment used during learning to provide feedback and guide improvement Correct answer.
  2. Assessment that measures only physical fitness
  3. Assessment used solely to rank students against one another
  4. Assessment conducted only at the end of a course to assign grades

Explanation

Formative assessment occurs during the learning process to give feedback and adjust teaching, whereas summative assessment occurs at the end to assign grades. Ranking or physical fitness measures do not define formative assessment.

Question 17Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a geography subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify a characteristic of a monsoon climate. Which statement is most accurate?

  1. Temperatures remain constant with no seasonal variation
  2. Precipitation occurs mainly as snow in all seasons
  3. Rainfall is evenly distributed throughout the year
  4. Seasonal reversal of winds brings a distinct wet and dry season Correct answer.

Explanation

A monsoon climate is defined by the seasonal reversal of prevailing winds, producing a marked wet season and dry season. Even rainfall, constant temperature and year-round snow contradict the monsoon pattern.

Question 18Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A subject paper in psychology asks the candidate to identify a feature of classical conditioning. Which statement is correct?

  1. Learning occurs only through observation of models
  2. Behaviour is weakened by punishment
  3. A neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response after pairing with an unconditioned stimulus Correct answer.
  4. Behaviour is strengthened by rewarding consequences

Explanation

Classical conditioning involves pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus later elicits a conditioned response. Reward, punishment and observational learning describe operant and social learning theories.

Question 19Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a computer science subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify the time complexity of binary search on a sorted array. Which is correct?

  1. O(n log n)
  2. O(n)
  3. O(1)
  4. O(log n) Correct answer.

Explanation

Binary search halves the search interval at each step, so its time complexity is logarithmic, O(log n). Linear, linearithmic and constant complexities describe other algorithms or best cases.

Question 20Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a chemistry subject paper is asked to identify an exothermic reaction. Which observation best indicates an exothermic process?

  1. The surroundings become warmer as heat is released Correct answer.
  2. No energy change occurs during the reaction
  3. The surroundings become cooler as the reaction proceeds
  4. The reaction requires continuous heating to proceed

Explanation

An exothermic reaction releases heat to the surroundings, raising their temperature. Cooling of surroundings indicates an endothermic process, and no energy change contradicts the definition.

Question 21Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a philosophy subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify a claim of epistemology. Which question belongs to epistemology rather than other branches?

  1. What is the fundamental nature of being?
  2. What is the nature of beauty?
  3. What makes an action morally right?
  4. What are the conditions under which a belief counts as knowledge? Correct answer.

Explanation

Epistemology concerns knowledge, justification and belief, so questions about the conditions for knowledge belong to it. Moral rightness belongs to ethics, beauty to aesthetics and being to metaphysics.

Question 22Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A subject paper in statistics asks the candidate to interpret a p-value of 0.03 at a 5% significance level. Which interpretation is most defensible?

  1. Assuming the null hypothesis is true, data as extreme as observed would occur about 3% of the time, so the null is rejected Correct answer.
  2. There is a 3% probability that the null hypothesis is true
  3. The effect size is necessarily large
  4. The result has a 97% chance of being replicated

Explanation

A p-value is the probability of obtaining data at least as extreme as observed, assuming the null hypothesis is true; at 0.03 it falls below the 5% threshold, leading to rejection. It is not the probability that the null is true, nor a replication or effect-size measure.

Question 23Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a law subject paper, a question asks the candidate to distinguish civil from criminal proceedings. Which distinction is correct?

  1. Criminal proceedings concern only contracts
  2. Civil proceedings always result in imprisonment, while criminal proceedings result in compensation
  3. Both proceedings are initiated by the state on identical grounds
  4. Civil proceedings concern disputes between parties, while criminal proceedings concern offences against the state Correct answer.

Explanation

Civil proceedings resolve disputes between private parties, typically seeking remedies such as compensation, whereas criminal proceedings address offences against the state and may lead to punishment. The other options reverse or misstate these features.

Question 24Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A subject paper in environmental science asks the candidate to identify a primary air pollutant. Which substance is classified as a primary pollutant?

  1. Ozone formed by photochemical reactions
  2. Peroxyacetyl nitrate formed in the atmosphere
  3. Sulphur dioxide emitted directly from combustion Correct answer.
  4. Nitric acid formed from atmospheric reactions

Explanation

A primary pollutant is emitted directly into the atmosphere, such as sulphur dioxide from combustion. Ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and nitric acid are secondary pollutants formed by atmospheric reactions.

Question 25Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a music subject paper, a question asks the candidate to identify a characteristic of a raga in Hindustani music. Which statement is most accurate?

  1. A raga is a fixed rhythmic cycle marked by beats
  2. A raga is a percussion instrument
  3. A raga is a melodic framework with characteristic ascending and descending movements Correct answer.
  4. A raga is a type of dance posture

Explanation

A raga is a melodic framework defined by characteristic ascending and descending movements, notes and moods. A fixed rhythmic cycle is a tala, while percussion instruments and dance postures are unrelated categories.

Question 26Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a political science subject paper, a candidate studies how a coalition government allocates cabinet portfolios among partner parties. Which concept does this analysis most directly illustrate?

  1. Judicial review of executive action
  2. Electoral malapportionment
  3. Coalition bargaining and portfolio distribution Correct answer.
  4. Federal division of taxation powers

Explanation

Portfolio allocation is the bargaining process through which coalition partners divide ministerial posts in proportion to their legislative strength and negotiating leverage. It is a core theme in the study of coalition politics and cabinet formation.

Question 27Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a public administration paper examines the principle that a civil servant should remain politically neutral while implementing policies of whichever government is in power. Which value does this principle express?

  1. Patronage
  2. Administrative discretion
  3. Bureaucratic neutrality Correct answer.
  4. Red tape

Explanation

Bureaucratic neutrality requires officials to serve the elected government of the day impartially, without loyalty to a particular party. It preserves continuity and public trust in the permanent civil service.

Question 28Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a sociology paper studies how a person simultaneously occupies the roles of teacher, parent and union member, each carrying different expectations. Which sociological concept names this situation?

  1. Social mobility
  2. Role set Correct answer.
  3. Anomie
  4. Role strain

Explanation

A role set is the collection of roles attached to a single social status, each with its own expectations. The term was developed by Robert Merton to capture the multiple relationships surrounding one position.

Question 29Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a commerce subject paper, a candidate is told that a firm's current assets are Rs 4,00,000 and current liabilities are Rs 2,00,000. What is the current ratio?

  1. 0.5:1
  2. 2:1 Correct answer.
  3. 4:1
  4. 1:2

Explanation

The current ratio equals current assets divided by current liabilities, so 4,00,000 divided by 2,00,000 gives 2:1. It measures short-term liquidity, and a value of 2 indicates twice as many current assets as liabilities.

Question 30Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a geography subject paper, a candidate compares two places on the same latitude where one has a maritime climate and the other a continental climate. Which factor best explains the difference?

  1. Altitude of the tropopause
  2. Latitude alone
  3. Distance from the sea and prevailing winds Correct answer.
  4. Length of the sidereal day

Explanation

Maritime climates are moderated by the ocean's high heat capacity and onshore winds, while continental interiors experience greater seasonal extremes. Distance from the sea and wind direction therefore explain the contrast at equal latitude.

Question 31Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a life sciences paper studies a condition caused by a dominant allele on an autosome. If one parent is heterozygous and the other is homozygous recessive, what proportion of offspring is expected to show the trait?

  1. Three quarters
  2. All offspring
  3. One quarter
  4. One half Correct answer.

Explanation

A heterozygous parent (Aa) crossed with a homozygous recessive parent (aa) yields Aa and aa offspring in equal numbers. Only the Aa offspring express the dominant trait, so half are expected to show it.

Question 32Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a statistics subject paper, a candidate is asked which measure of central tendency is most appropriate for a variable measured on a nominal scale, such as blood group. Which measure should be chosen?

  1. Median
  2. Mean
  3. Standard deviation
  4. Mode Correct answer.

Explanation

Nominal data have no order or numerical distance, so only the mode, the most frequent category, is meaningful. The mean and median require at least ordinal or interval properties.

Question 33Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a computer science subject paper, a candidate considers a stack data structure. Which operation follows the last-in-first-out principle?

  1. Enqueue
  2. Seek
  3. Pop Correct answer.
  4. Dequeue

Explanation

A stack removes the most recently pushed element first, which is the last-in-first-out rule, and the removal operation is called pop. Enqueue and dequeue belong to queues.

Question 34Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a management paper studies a firm that decentralises decision-making to lower levels of the hierarchy. Which outcome is most consistent with this change?

  1. Automatic increase in the number of hierarchical levels
  2. Elimination of the need for coordination
  3. Faster local responses with reduced top-level control Correct answer.
  4. Removal of all accountability from managers

Explanation

Decentralisation pushes authority downward so that local units can respond quickly to conditions, at the cost of tighter central oversight. It does not remove the need for coordination or accountability.

Question 35Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a law subject paper, a candidate examines a contract in which one party was a minor at the time of agreement. Under the general Indian contract law position, how is such an agreement best described?

  1. Voidable at the minor's option
  2. Void ab initio Correct answer.
  3. Valid and fully enforceable
  4. Enforceable only by the minor after majority

Explanation

An agreement with a minor is treated as void from the beginning, so neither party can enforce it. This follows the rule in Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose.

Question 36Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In an economics subject paper, a candidate analyses a good whose demand rises when consumer income falls. Which classification fits this good?

  1. Complementary good
  2. Giffen good
  3. Inferior good Correct answer.
  4. Normal good

Explanation

An inferior good is one whose demand moves inversely with income, because consumers switch to cheaper substitutes as income falls. A Giffen good is a special inferior good whose demand rises when its own price rises.

Question 37Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in an education paper studies a curriculum model that organises content around broad themes cutting across subjects rather than separate disciplines. Which term describes this approach?

  1. Integrated curriculum Correct answer.
  2. Null curriculum
  3. Core curriculum
  4. Hidden curriculum

Explanation

An integrated curriculum merges content from different subjects around common themes so that learners encounter knowledge in connected form. The other terms describe the compulsory core, unintended learning, and deliberately excluded content respectively.

Question 38Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a psychology subject paper, a candidate reads that a student studies harder after receiving praise from a teacher. Which learning process does this illustrate?

  1. Observational learning through modelling
  2. Classical conditioning through a conditioned stimulus
  3. Operant conditioning through positive reinforcement Correct answer.
  4. Habituation to a repeated stimulus

Explanation

Operant conditioning links a behaviour to its consequences, and positive reinforcement increases the likelihood of that behaviour by adding a pleasant stimulus such as praise. The student's effort rises because it is followed by a reward.

Question 39Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a history paper examines a colonial-era census that classified occupations by administrative categories. Which caution applies most directly when using such data?

  1. Census figures are always arithmetically accurate
  2. Occupational data cannot be quantified
  3. The categories reflect administrative purposes rather than social reality Correct answer.
  4. Censuses record only literate populations

Explanation

Colonial censuses were instruments of governance, and their categories often imposed administrative labels on fluid social and occupational realities. Historians therefore read such data as evidence of how the state classified people, not as neutral descriptions.

Question 40Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a chemistry subject paper, a candidate compares the boiling points of two isomeric alcohols and finds that the straight-chain isomer boils higher than the branched one. Which explanation is most appropriate?

  1. The branched isomer has a higher molecular mass
  2. The straight-chain isomer is ionic
  3. The straight-chain isomer has greater surface contact and stronger dispersion forces Correct answer.
  4. The branched isomer lacks hydrogen bonding

Explanation

Isomers share molecular formula and mass, but a straight chain allows closer packing and greater surface area for dispersion forces, raising the boiling point. Both isomers can hydrogen bond through the hydroxyl group.

Question 41Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a philosophy subject paper, a candidate considers the claim that an action is right if it produces the greatest happiness for the greatest number. Which ethical theory does this claim express?

  1. Utilitarian consequentialism Correct answer.
  2. Virtue ethics
  3. Ethical egoism
  4. Deontological ethics

Explanation

The greatest happiness principle is the core of utilitarian consequentialism, which judges actions by their outcomes for overall welfare. Deontology and virtue ethics locate rightness in duty and character respectively.

Question 42Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a mathematics paper is told that a function f is differentiable at a point. Which property must f necessarily have at that point?

  1. A local maximum
  2. A second derivative
  3. Boundedness on the whole real line
  4. Continuity Correct answer.

Explanation

Differentiability at a point implies continuity there, since the difference quotient limit forces the function value to approach the limit value. The converse fails, as shown by the absolute value function at zero.

Question 43Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a geography subject paper, a candidate examines a delta formed where a river enters a sea with strong tidal currents. Which delta type is most likely to develop?

  1. Estuarine delta Correct answer.
  2. Cuspate delta
  3. Bird's foot delta
  4. Arcuate delta

Explanation

Strong tidal scouring removes sediment and shapes the mouth into an estuary, producing an estuarine delta. Arcuate, bird's foot and cuspate forms develop where sediment supply and wave action dominate instead.

Question 44Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a commerce subject paper, a candidate is told that a firm's sales rise by 20 per cent while its operating profit rises by 60 per cent. Which interpretation of operating leverage is most appropriate?

  1. The firm must have reduced its variable costs proportionally
  2. A high degree of operating leverage magnifies profit changes relative to sales changes Correct answer.
  3. Operating leverage is zero because fixed costs are unchanged
  4. The firm's financial leverage has fallen

Explanation

Operating leverage measures the sensitivity of operating profit to changes in sales, driven by the share of fixed costs. A profit rise three times the sales rise indicates a high degree of operating leverage.

Question 45Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a political science paper compares a presidential and a parliamentary system. Which feature most clearly distinguishes a presidential system?

  1. The legislature cannot be dissolved under any circumstances
  2. The cabinet is drawn exclusively from outside the legislature
  3. The head of government is elected separately and does not depend on legislative confidence Correct answer.
  4. The head of state is always a monarch

Explanation

In a presidential system the chief executive is elected independently of the legislature and serves a fixed term, so the executive does not fall on a vote of confidence. Parliamentary executives, by contrast, depend on legislative majority support.

Question 46Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a life sciences paper, a candidate studies a marine organism that maintains an internal salt concentration far below that of seawater. Which physiological strategy is it using?

  1. Thermoregulation by countercurrent exchange
  2. Anaerobic respiration
  3. Osmoregulation through active ion excretion Correct answer.
  4. Osmoconformity with ambient seawater

Explanation

An organism whose internal concentration differs from the environment must actively regulate water and ion balance, typically by excreting excess salt through specialised cells or organs. Osmoconformers instead match their internal concentration to the surroundings.

Question 47Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

A candidate in a computer science paper analyses a hash table where the load factor is allowed to exceed 1. Which consequence is most likely?

  1. Automatic ordering of keys
  2. Elimination of the need for a hash function
  3. Guaranteed constant-time lookup for every key
  4. More collisions and longer probe sequences Correct answer.

Explanation

When the number of stored entries exceeds the number of buckets, multiple keys must share buckets, so collisions increase and probe chains lengthen. This degrades average lookup performance unless the table is resized.

Question 48Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a statistics paper, a candidate runs a test and obtains a confidence interval for a mean that includes zero, while the corresponding two-sided test at the same significance level does not reject the null hypothesis of zero mean. Which statement best explains the consistency?

  1. A one-sided test would necessarily reject the null
  2. The confidence interval and the two-sided test are dual, so both lead to the same decision Correct answer.
  3. The test result implies the sample mean is exactly zero
  4. The confidence interval must be wrong because tests are always more reliable

Explanation

A 100(1 minus alpha) per cent confidence interval contains exactly the null values that a two-sided test at level alpha would fail to reject. The two procedures are mathematically dual, so their conclusions must agree.

Question 49Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In a law paper, a candidate examines the doctrine of basic structure. Which proposition best captures its effect in Indian constitutional law?

  1. Fundamental rights can be suspended by ordinary legislation
  2. Parliament may amend any provision provided it follows procedure
  3. The Supreme Court may amend the Constitution by judgment
  4. Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to destroy its essential features Correct answer.

Explanation

The basic structure doctrine, established in Kesavananda Bharati, holds that constitutional amendments cannot abrogate the Constitution's essential features even if the procedural requirements are met. It limits the amending power substantively rather than procedurally.

Question 50Subject-specific paper (as per the subject opted by the candidate)

In an economics paper, a candidate evaluates a policy that imposes a price ceiling below the market-clearing price. Which outcome is predicted by standard supply and demand analysis?

  1. Persistent shortage with non-price rationing mechanisms emerging Correct answer.
  2. No change because the ceiling is non-binding
  3. Persistent surplus with unsold stocks accumulating
  4. An automatic shift of the supply curve to the right

Explanation

A binding ceiling holds price below equilibrium, so quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied, creating a shortage. Because price can no longer clear the market, rationing, queues or black markets tend to emerge.