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Telangana Police SI study materials
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Telangana Police SI practice questions

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Question 1Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general exception of 'act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law' appears in which chapter?

  1. Chapter III – General Exceptions Correct answer.
  2. Chapter V – Of Criminal Conspiracy
  3. Chapter IV – Of Abetment
  4. Chapter II – Of Punishments

Explanation

The BNS, 2023 consolidates the general exceptions (including acts done under legal obligation or by mistake of fact about such obligation) in Chapter III, mirroring the structure of Sections 76–106 IPC. Abetment and conspiracy are dealt with in separate chapters, and punishments fall in Chapter II.

Question 2Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer in Telangana arrests a person without a warrant for a cognizable offence. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which right must the arrested person be informed of immediately?

  1. The right to be released on bail by the arresting officer in every case
  2. The right to have the FIR quashed by the arresting officer
  3. The right to refuse to sign the arrest memo
  4. The right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of choice Correct answer.

Explanation

BNSS carries forward the constitutional guarantee under Article 22(1) that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest and of the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of choice. This is a mandatory safeguard, and non-compliance vitiates the arrest procedure.

Question 3Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the forms of oath or affirmation to be made by a Minister for a State?

  1. Second Schedule
  2. Fourth Schedule
  3. Third Schedule Correct answer.
  4. Seventh Schedule

Explanation

The Third Schedule of the Constitution prescribes the forms of oath and affirmation for constitutional office holders, including Union and State Ministers, judges, and legislators. The Second Schedule deals with emoluments, the Fourth with Rajya Sabha seat allocation, and the Seventh with the three legislative lists.

Question 4Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which section makes a confession to a police officer inadmissible, while permitting the portion leading to discovery of a fact?

  1. Section 32
  2. Section 27 Correct answer.
  3. Section 25
  4. Section 24

Explanation

Section 27 of the Evidence Act permits so much of the information received from an accused in custody as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered. Section 25 bars confessions to police officers outright, but Section 27 carves out the discovery exception.

Question 5Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A constable in Telangana observes a person committing a non-cognizable offence in his presence. Under the BNSS, 2023, what is the correct course of action?

  1. Register an FIR and investigate as in a cognizable case
  2. Arrest the person without any order and produce him before the Magistrate
  3. Refuse to record the information as non-cognizable offences are outside police purview
  4. Enter the substance of the information in the station diary and seek a Magistrate's order to investigate Correct answer.

Explanation

For non-cognizable offences, a police officer cannot investigate without the order of a Magistrate empowered to try the case. The information must be recorded in the station diary, and the informant may be referred to the Magistrate, since arrest is also not permitted without a warrant.

Question 6Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The 'Doctrine of Basic Structure' limiting the amending power of Parliament was propounded in which case?

  1. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  2. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 cannot destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Golaknath had earlier held fundamental rights unamendable, but that position was modified in Kesavananda.

Question 7Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following is a fundamental duty enumerated under Article 51A of the Constitution?

  1. To serve in the armed forces when called upon
  2. To protect and improve the natural environment Correct answer.
  3. To pay taxes honestly and on time
  4. To vote in every election

Explanation

Article 51A(g) casts a fundamental duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife. Paying taxes, military service and voting are civic obligations but are not listed as fundamental duties.

Question 8Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A taluka-level police officer in Telangana receives credible information of a cognizable offence but the informant refuses to reduce it to writing. What should the officer do under the BNSS, 2023?

  1. Register the information only after verifying the informant's antecedents
  2. Forward the information to the Superintendent of Police for orders
  3. Reduce the information to writing himself, read it over, and obtain the informant's signature Correct answer.
  4. Refuse to register the FIR until written information is furnished

Explanation

BNSS requires that where information of a cognizable offence is given orally, the officer shall reduce it to writing, read it over to the informant, and take the informant's signature. Refusal to give written information does not absolve the police of the duty to register.

Question 9Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The 'zero FIR' concept in Indian criminal procedure allows registration of an FIR at which place?

  1. At any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, followed by transfer Correct answer.
  2. At the court of the Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
  3. At the police station having territorial jurisdiction over the place of occurrence only
  4. At the police headquarters of the district only

Explanation

A zero FIR may be registered at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction, and it is later transferred to the station having proper jurisdiction for investigation. This ensures no delay in registration when the victim approaches the nearest station.

Question 10Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which writ is issued by a court to a public authority to compel the performance of a public duty that it has failed to perform?

  1. Quo Warranto
  2. Mandamus Correct answer.
  3. Certiorari
  4. Habeas Corpus

Explanation

Mandamus commands a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty it has refused or neglected to perform. Habeas Corpus secures release from unlawful detention, Quo Warranto questions the holding of a public office, and Certiorari quashes an order of a lower tribunal.

Question 11Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, theft becomes 'snatching' when which element is present?

  1. The offender suddenly seizes movable property from a person or their possession Correct answer.
  2. The property is taken from a dwelling house
  3. The offender uses a deadly weapon during the taking
  4. The property taken is government property

Explanation

The BNS creates the offence of snatching, defined as the sudden seizure of movable property from a person or their possession, distinct from ordinary theft. Use of a deadly weapon during the taking is not the defining element of snatching but may attract aggravated provisions.

Question 12Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A person is accused of committing an offence punishable with imprisonment for life. Under the BNSS, 2023, within what period must the investigation ordinarily be completed in such cases?

  1. Ninety days from the date of registration of the FIR Correct answer.
  2. One hundred eighty days from the date of registration of the FIR
  3. Sixty days from the date of registration of the FIR
  4. Two years from the date of registration of the FIR

Explanation

The BNSS prescribes a ninety-day limit for completing investigation in offences punishable with imprisonment for life or more than ten years. The period is computed from the date of registration of the FIR, and extension requires the order of a Magistrate.

Question 13Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which body in Telangana is responsible for recruitment to the posts of Police Sub-Inspector in the state police?

  1. Union Public Service Commission
  2. Telangana State Public Service Commission
  3. Director General of Police directly
  4. Telangana State Level Police Recruitment Board Correct answer.

Explanation

Recruitment to police constable and sub-inspector posts in Telangana is conducted by the Telangana State Level Police Recruitment Board (TSLPRB). The TSPSC handles civil services and other posts, while the DGP heads the police force but does not conduct recruitment.

Question 14Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In the context of Telangana's policing, the 'She Teams' initiative primarily addresses which issue?

  1. Traffic violations in urban areas
  2. Eve-teasing and harassment of women in public places Correct answer.
  3. Organised financial fraud
  4. Illegal mining and sand mafia

Explanation

She Teams were launched in Telangana to curb eve-teasing, stalking and harassment of women in public places through decoy operations and counselling. They focus on gender-based harassment rather than financial crime, mining or traffic enforcement.

Question 15Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The 'Hawk Eye' mobile application launched in Telangana is used by citizens primarily for what purpose?

  1. Reporting traffic violations directly to the traffic police Correct answer.
  2. Tracking the status of passport applications
  3. Applying for police verification certificates
  4. Filing property tax returns online

Explanation

Hawk Eye allows citizens to capture and report traffic violations with photo or video evidence to the traffic police for action. It is a traffic enforcement tool and does not deal with passports, property tax or police verification.

Question 16Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer in Telangana conducts a search of a house without a warrant under the BNSS, 2023. Which two independent witnesses must be present during the search?

  1. Two police officers of the same station
  2. Two respectable inhabitants of the locality Correct answer.
  3. One Magistrate and one police officer
  4. Two relatives of the accused

Explanation

The BNSS mandates that searches be conducted in the presence of two or more independent and respectable inhabitants of the locality in which the place to be searched is situate. This safeguards against planting of evidence and ensures transparency.

Question 17Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution?

  1. Promotion of international peace and security
  2. Uniform civil code
  3. Organisation of village panchayats
  4. Right to equality before law Correct answer.

Explanation

The right to equality before law is a fundamental right under Article 14 in Part III, not a Directive Principle. Village panchayats, international peace and the uniform civil code are Directive Principles under Articles 40, 51 and 44 respectively.

Question 18Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a public servant who is entrusted with property and dishonestly misappropriates it commits which offence?

  1. Criminal breach of trust Correct answer.
  2. Cheating
  3. Criminal trespass
  4. Extortion

Explanation

Criminal breach of trust occurs when a person entrusted with property dishonestly misappropriates or disposes of it in violation of the trust. When the offender is a public servant, the BNS provides for a higher punishment than for an ordinary offender.

Question 19Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The 'Doctrine of Eclipse' applies to which type of law when it conflicts with a fundamental right?

  1. A post-constitutional law that is inconsistent with a fundamental right
  2. A constitutional amendment that violates the basic structure
  3. A pre-constitutional law that is inconsistent with a fundamental right Correct answer.
  4. A state law that conflicts with a central law on a concurrent subject

Explanation

The Doctrine of Eclipse applies to pre-constitutional laws that become inconsistent with fundamental rights; such laws are not void ab initio but remain dormant, eclipsed by the fundamental right. Post-constitutional laws violating fundamental rights are void from inception under Article 13(2).

Question 20Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the appointment of the Director General of Police in a state, as per the Supreme Court's directions in Prakash Singh v. Union of India?

  1. Appointment by the State Police Board through a competitive examination
  2. Appointment by the state government from among the three senior-most officers empanelled by the UPSC Correct answer.
  3. Appointment by the Union Home Ministry in consultation with the Governor
  4. Appointment by the Chief Minister alone from any police officer of the state cadre

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Prakash Singh directed that the DGP be selected from among the three senior-most officers of the state cadre empanelled for promotion, based on their length of service, and with a minimum tenure of two years. The UPSC empanelment ensures independence from executive discretion.

Question 21Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing a case within an exception lies on which party?

  1. The court, which must independently ascertain the facts
  2. The investigating officer, as part of the case diary
  3. The accused, though the prosecution must still prove the essential ingredients of the offence Correct answer.
  4. The prosecution, since it must prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt

Explanation

Section 105 of the Evidence Act places the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within a general exception on the accused. However, the prosecution must first establish the essential ingredients of the offence beyond reasonable doubt.

Question 22Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

What is the primary function of the Telangana State Police Complaints Authority?

  1. To manage the state police budget
  2. To conduct recruitment examinations for police posts
  3. To inquire into complaints of misconduct against police officers Correct answer.
  4. To prosecute accused persons in criminal courts

Explanation

The Police Complaints Authority, established in pursuance of the Prakash Singh directions, inquires into allegations of serious misconduct by police officers. It does not recruit, prosecute or manage budgets, which are functions of other bodies.

Question 23Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer in Telangana intercepts a private communication under the BNSS, 2023. Which authority's prior approval is generally required for such interception?

  1. The Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
  2. The State Human Rights Commission
  3. The Superintendent of Police of the district
  4. The competent authority designated under the relevant rules, generally the Secretary in the Home Department Correct answer.

Explanation

Interception of communications is governed by the BNSS read with the relevant rules, which require prior approval of the competent authority designated for the purpose, ordinarily the Secretary in the Home Department. This ensures executive accountability and judicial review.

Question 24Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following best describes the 'Doctrine of Pleasure' in the context of public servants in India?

  1. Public servants hold office at the pleasure of the President or Governor, subject to constitutional safeguards Correct answer.
  2. Public servants can be dismissed only after a criminal conviction
  3. Public servants have a fundamental right to continue in service
  4. Public servants are appointed only by the UPSC

Explanation

The Doctrine of Pleasure under Article 310 provides that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor. However, Article 311 imposes procedural safeguards requiring inquiry and opportunity of hearing before dismissal or removal.

Question 25Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'organised crime' includes which of the following?

  1. Continuing unlawful activity by a crime syndicate involving offences like kidnapping, extortion or land grabbing Correct answer.
  2. An offence committed in a public place during daytime
  3. Any offence committed by a person above sixty years of age
  4. A single act of theft committed by two persons

Explanation

The BNS defines organised crime as continuing unlawful activity by a crime syndicate, including offences such as kidnapping, extortion, land grabbing and trafficking. It requires a pattern of activity and syndicate involvement, not a single isolated act.

Question 26Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The Telangana Police SI Preliminary Written Test includes a paper on 'Reasoning and Mental Ability'. A series is given: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?. Which number continues the series?

  1. 120
  2. 84
  3. 98
  4. 112 Correct answer.

Explanation

Each term is double the preceding term, so the pattern is multiplication by 2. Applying it to 56 gives 112. Testing the earlier pairs confirms the ratio is constant.

Question 27Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In a Telangana Police SI reasoning paper, a candidate is told: 'All constables in the unit are physically fit. Some physically fit persons are swimmers.' Which conclusion follows necessarily?

  1. All physically fit persons are constables
  2. Some constables may be swimmers Correct answer.
  3. No constable is a swimmer
  4. All swimmers are constables

Explanation

The premises only guarantee overlap between 'physically fit' and 'swimmers', and constables fall inside the physically fit set. So a constable could be among the swimmers, but this is only a possibility. No definite conclusion about all or none can be drawn.

Question 28Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police party travels 12 km north, then 5 km east, then 12 km south. How far and in which direction is the party from its starting point?

  1. 5 km west
  2. 17 km north
  3. 5 km east Correct answer.
  4. 13 km east

Explanation

The 12 km north and 12 km south legs cancel each other, leaving only the 5 km eastward displacement. The net displacement is therefore 5 km due east of the start.

Question 29Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The Telangana Police SI syllabus includes basic computer awareness. Which of the following best describes the function of a firewall in a police station's computer network?

  1. It increases the storage capacity of the local hard disk
  2. It converts printed documents into scanned images
  3. It filters incoming and outgoing network traffic against set rules Correct answer.
  4. It automatically backs up files to a printer

Explanation

A firewall is a security control that inspects network traffic and permits or blocks it according to configured rules. It does not add storage, scan documents, or manage printing. Its purpose is to protect the network from unauthorised access.

Question 30Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'criminal breach of trust' by a person entrusted with property requires which essential element?

  1. Publication of a defamatory statement
  2. Use of physical force against the owner
  3. Entry into a building without consent
  4. Dishonest misappropriation or conversion of the entrusted property Correct answer.

Explanation

Criminal breach of trust arises where property is entrusted to a person who then dishonestly misappropriates, converts, or disposes of it in violation of the trust. Force, trespass, and defamation belong to distinct offences. The essence is betrayal of a fiduciary entrustment.

Question 31Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer in Telangana arrests a person without a warrant in a cognizable case. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the arrested person must ordinarily be produced before a Magistrate within what period?

  1. Seven days of the arrest
  2. Twelve hours of the arrest
  3. Forty-eight hours of the arrest
  4. Twenty-four hours of the arrest, excluding journey time Correct answer.

Explanation

The Constitution and the BNSS require that an arrested person be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time needed for the journey. This safeguards against arbitrary detention. Longer periods require specific legal authority.

Question 32Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

The Telangana Police SI recruitment process includes a Physical Measurement Test. Which of the following is the most accurate description of its purpose?

  1. To assess the candidate's knowledge of criminal law
  2. To verify that candidates meet the prescribed height and chest measurements Correct answer.
  3. To check the candidate's computer typing speed
  4. To test the candidate's written communication skills

Explanation

The Physical Measurement Test verifies that a candidate meets the height and chest standards fixed for the post. It is a qualifying check and carries no written component. Knowledge and typing are assessed elsewhere in the selection process.

Question 33Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A witness in a Telangana police station case is asked to identify a suspect in a test identification parade. Which principle governs the evidentiary value of such an identification?

  1. It is admissible only if the suspect confesses
  2. It replaces the need for any investigation
  3. It corroborates the witness's testimony in court but is not substantive evidence by itself Correct answer.
  4. It is conclusive proof of the suspect's guilt

Explanation

A test identification parade is an investigative aid that supports the witness's later identification in court. By itself it is not substantive evidence of identity. It gains value when the witness identifies the accused in court and the parade corroborates that identification.

Question 34Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a State Public Service Commission for each state, including Telangana?

  1. Article 356
  2. Article 315 Correct answer.
  3. Article 324
  4. Article 370

Explanation

Article 315 provides for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission, Article 356 with President's rule, and Article 370 with the former special status of Jammu and Kashmir. The State Public Service Commission conducts recruitment for state services.

Question 35Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In a Telangana Police SI examination, a candidate is asked about the 'Right to Information' framework used to seek information from public authorities. Which Act governs this right at the Union level?

  1. Right to Information Act, 2019
  2. Freedom of Information Act, 2002
  3. Right to Information Act, 2005 Correct answer.
  4. Official Secrets Act, 1923

Explanation

The Right to Information Act, 2005 establishes the framework for citizens to request information from public authorities and prescribes time limits and appeal mechanisms. The Official Secrets Act governs secrecy obligations rather than disclosure. The other listed enactments do not create the general right of access.

Question 36Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police sub-inspector in Telangana is investigating a case of cheating. Which of the following best describes 'cheating' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. Destroying a public document to prevent its use as evidence
  2. Deceiving a person to dishonestly induce delivery of property or consent to a harmful act Correct answer.
  3. Causing hurt to a person during a sudden quarrel
  4. Taking movable property from a person's possession without consent

Explanation

Cheating involves deception that dishonestly induces the deceived person to deliver property or to consent to retaining property or doing an act causing harm. The key element is the dishonest inducement through deception. Theft, hurt, and destruction of evidence are separate offences.

Question 37Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following is the correct meaning of 'cognizable offence' as used in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

  1. An offence that is compoundable at the police station itself
  2. An offence for which a police officer may arrest without a warrant Correct answer.
  3. An offence for which the police must obtain the Magistrate's permission before registering an FIR
  4. An offence that can only be tried by a Sessions Court

Explanation

A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest without a warrant, and investigation normally begins on registration of an FIR. Non-cognizable offences require the Magistrate's order for investigation. Trial venue and compounding are separate legal concepts.

Question 38Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A candidate preparing for the Telangana Police SI examination reads about 'community policing'. Which of the following best illustrates community policing in practice?

  1. A forensic team collecting samples from a crime scene
  2. A court ordering the detention of a habitual offender
  3. Police and residents jointly running neighbourhood watch and grievance meetings Correct answer.
  4. Police conducting raids on suspected illegal distilleries

Explanation

Community policing builds partnership between the police and local residents through dialogue, shared responsibility, and prevention-oriented measures. Raids, detention orders, and forensic collection are traditional investigative or judicial functions. The defining feature is collaborative prevention rather than enforcement alone.

Question 39Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following is treated as 'primary evidence' of a document?

  1. A photograph of the document taken by a witness
  2. A certified copy of a public document
  3. Oral evidence of a person who read the document once
  4. The document itself produced for the inspection of the court Correct answer.

Explanation

Primary evidence means the document itself produced for the court's inspection. Certified copies of public documents, photographs, and oral accounts are forms of secondary evidence admissible in specified circumstances. The distinction matters because secondary evidence is generally admitted only on proof of the conditions laid down in the Act.

Question 40Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A person in Telangana is detained under preventive detention laws. Which constitutional safeguard applies to such detention?

  1. The detained person must be informed of the grounds of detention and allowed to make a representation Correct answer.
  2. The detention order must be ratified by the Election Commission
  3. The detention must be approved by the State Public Service Commission
  4. The detained person must be tried by a Sessions Court within 24 hours

Explanation

Preventive detention is subject to safeguards such as communication of the grounds of detention and the right to make a representation against the order. These protections are expressly built into the constitutional provisions on preventive detention. Trial within 24 hours applies to ordinary criminal arrest, not preventive detention.

Question 41Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In the context of Telangana police administration, what is the role of the State Police Complaints Authority?

  1. To prosecute cases before the Sessions Court
  2. To maintain the state police budget
  3. To inquire into complaints of misconduct against police officers Correct answer.
  4. To recruit constables for the state police

Explanation

A Police Complaints Authority is a grievance-redressal body that examines allegations of misconduct or excess by police personnel. It does not recruit staff, conduct prosecutions, or control finances. Its function is accountability and public confidence in policing.

Question 42Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer in Telangana seizes property suspected to be stolen. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the power to order disposal or delivery of such seized property lies primarily with which authority?

  1. The Magistrate having jurisdiction Correct answer.
  2. The complainant in the case
  3. The investigating officer himself
  4. The Superintendent of Police of the district

Explanation

The BNSS empowers the Magistrate to make orders regarding the custody, disposal, or delivery of seized property. The investigating officer may seize and report but cannot finally dispose of the property. This judicial supervision protects the rights of claimants.

Question 43Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following is the correct expansion of 'CCTNS' in the context of Indian policing?

  1. Cyber Crime Tracking and Notification Service
  2. Central Crime Tribunal and Narcotics Section
  3. Criminal Case Trial and Notice System
  4. Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems Correct answer.

Explanation

CCTNS stands for Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems, a national project linking police stations and higher offices for crime data sharing. It supports FIR registration, investigation tracking, and citizen services. The other expansions do not correspond to any established police project.

Question 44Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A candidate must understand the doctrine of 'res judicata'. Which statement best captures its meaning?

  1. A law that violates a fundamental right is void from the outset
  2. The legislature cannot amend the basic features of the Constitution
  3. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible
  4. A matter finally decided by a competent court cannot be litigated again between the same parties Correct answer.

Explanation

Res judicata bars re-litigation of a dispute that has already been finally decided by a competent court between the same parties. It promotes finality and prevents multiplicity of proceedings. The other statements describe distinct doctrines of constitutional and evidence law.

Question 45Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In a Telangana Police SI examination, a candidate is asked about the National Human Rights Commission. Which of the following is a function of the NHRC?

  1. Framing the annual state police budget
  2. Conducting trials of criminal cases
  3. Registering FIRs in cognizable cases
  4. Inquiring into complaints of violation of human rights Correct answer.

Explanation

The NHRC is empowered to inquire into complaints of human rights violations and to recommend remedial action. It does not register FIRs, try cases, or control police budgets. Its role is protective and recommendatory rather than adjudicatory.

Question 46Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer in Telangana is asked to explain the 'presumption of innocence'. Which statement best reflects this principle in Indian criminal law?

  1. Guilt is presumed once an FIR is registered
  2. The accused must prove that he did not commit the offence
  3. The prosecution must prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt Correct answer.
  4. The accused must produce witnesses to establish innocence

Explanation

Indian criminal law places the burden of proving guilt on the prosecution, which must establish the case beyond reasonable doubt. The accused is presumed innocent until that burden is discharged. Statutory exceptions may shift the burden in specific offences, but the general rule favours the accused.

Question 47Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Which of the following is the correct description of the 'Doctrine of Proportionality' in the context of administrative and police action?

  1. Administrative action must follow the procedure of a criminal trial
  2. Administrative action is immune from judicial review
  3. Administrative action must not impose a burden greater than necessary to achieve its lawful purpose Correct answer.
  4. Administrative action must always be approved by the legislature

Explanation

Proportionality requires that the means chosen by an authority be no more restrictive than needed to achieve a legitimate objective. It is a ground of judicial review of administrative and police action. The doctrine does not confer immunity or require legislative approval.

Question 48Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

Telangana Police runs the 'Bharosa' centre. Which of the following best describes its purpose?

  1. Managing traffic violations in Hyderabad
  2. Providing integrated support to women and children who are victims of violence Correct answer.
  3. Registering property transactions
  4. Issuing passports to citizens

Explanation

Bharosa centres provide a single window for women and children facing violence, offering police, legal, medical, and counselling support. They are victim-centric service centres. Traffic, passports, and property registration are handled by other agencies.

Question 49Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

A police officer is investigating an offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 where the accused claims the act was done in private defence. Which of the following statements about private defence is correct?

  1. The right requires prior permission from the Magistrate
  2. The right permits unlimited retaliation after the threat has ended
  3. The right exists only against an unlawful and imminent threat to person or property Correct answer.
  4. The right is available only to public servants

Explanation

Private defence justifies force used to repel an unlawful and imminent attack on person or property. The force must be proportionate and cannot continue once the threat has ended. It is available to every person and needs no prior sanction.

Question 50Preliminary Written Test (PWT)

In the Telangana Police SI examination, candidates are tested on 'data interpretation'. A police district reports 400 theft cases in 2021 and 500 in 2022. What is the percentage increase?

  1. 40%
  2. 125%
  3. 25% Correct answer.
  4. 20%

Explanation

The increase is 500 minus 400, which equals 100. Dividing the increase by the original figure of 400 and multiplying by 100 gives 25 percent. The base for percentage increase is always the earlier value.