Tamil Nadu HSE Second Year Nursing (Vocational) study materials
Tamil Nadu HSE Second Year Nursing (Vocational) study resources

Tamil Nadu HSE Second Year Nursing (Vocational) practice questions

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Question 1Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to record a client's temperature using an oral thermometer. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Place the thermometer under the tongue while the client talks
  2. Confirm the client has not taken hot or cold fluids in the past 15 to 30 minutes Correct answer.
  3. Insert the thermometer immediately after the client opens the mouth
  4. Ask the client to breathe through the mouth for two minutes

Explanation

Oral temperature readings are distorted by recent ingestion of hot or cold food and fluids, so the nurse waits about 15 to 30 minutes before measuring. This ensures the recorded value reflects core body temperature rather than the local effect of the drink.

Question 2Fundamentals of Nursing

While counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the rhythm is irregular. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by four
  2. Count for 10 seconds and multiply by six
  3. Count for a full minute and note the rhythm and character Correct answer.
  4. Count for 30 seconds and record the rate only

Explanation

An irregular pulse must be counted for a full 60 seconds so that beats occurring at uneven intervals are all captured. The nurse also documents rhythm and volume because these describe pulse quality, not just rate.

Question 3Fundamentals of Nursing

A client has a blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg on two separate occasions. Which term should the nurse use to describe this finding?

  1. Pulse deficit
  2. Hypotension
  3. Orthostatic hypotension
  4. Hypertension Correct answer.

Explanation

A systolic reading of 140 mmHg or above, or a diastolic reading of 90 mmHg or above, sustained on repeated measurements indicates hypertension. Both values in this client exceed those thresholds.

Question 4Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is about to administer an intramuscular injection into the ventrogluteal site. Which landmark correctly identifies this site?

  1. The palm of the hand placed on the greater trochanter with the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine Correct answer.
  2. The deltoid muscle three fingerbreadths below the acromion
  3. The centre of the anterior thigh
  4. The lower outer quadrant of the buttock

Explanation

The ventrogluteal site is located by placing the palm on the greater trochanter and the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine, then injecting into the centre of the V formed by the index and middle fingers. It is preferred because it lies away from major nerves and blood vessels.

Question 5Fundamentals of Nursing

Which route of drug administration is described as parenteral?

  1. Rectal suppository inserted into the rectum
  2. Intramuscular injection into the gluteal muscle Correct answer.
  3. Sublingual tablet dissolved under the tongue
  4. Oral tablet swallowed with water

Explanation

Parenteral administration means introducing a drug by a route other than the alimentary canal, and injections such as the intramuscular route are the classic example. Oral, sublingual and rectal routes all involve absorption through mucous membranes of the digestive tract.

Question 6Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse must give 0.5 g of a drug available as 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered?

  1. Half a tablet
  2. Two tablets Correct answer.
  3. One tablet
  4. Four tablets

Explanation

Convert grams to milligrams first: 0.5 g equals 500 mg. Dividing the desired 500 mg by the available 250 mg per tablet gives two tablets.

Question 7Fundamentals of Nursing

The 'rights' of medication administration include all except which of the following?

  1. Right attending physician Correct answer.
  2. Right documentation
  3. Right dose
  4. Right client

Explanation

The recognised rights of medication administration include the right client, drug, dose, route, time and documentation. The identity of the attending physician is not one of these rights, although the prescription itself must be valid and legible.

Question 8Fundamentals of Nursing

A client is placed in the Fowler's position. How should the nurse describe this position?

  1. Sitting upright with the head of the bed raised to about 45 to 60 degrees Correct answer.
  2. Lying on the side with the upper knee flexed toward the chest
  3. Lying flat on the abdomen with the head turned to one side
  4. Lying supine with the legs elevated above the level of the heart

Explanation

Fowler's position raises the head of the bed to approximately 45 to 60 degrees with the knees slightly flexed, promoting lung expansion and easing breathing. It is commonly used for clients with dyspnoea or after abdominal surgery.

Question 9Fundamentals of Nursing

A bedridden client is being repositioned. Which measure best prevents pressure ulcer formation?

  1. Keeping the skin moist with frequent warm baths
  2. Massaging reddened bony prominences vigorously
  3. Placing the client directly on a rubber sheet without padding
  4. Repositioning the client at regular intervals and inspecting pressure areas Correct answer.

Explanation

Pressure ulcers arise from prolonged unrelieved pressure, so turning and repositioning at planned intervals relieves capillary compression. Inspecting bony prominences allows early detection of non-blanching redness before skin breakdown occurs.

Question 10Fundamentals of Nursing

In which stage of a pressure ulcer is the skin intact but showing non-blanching redness over a bony prominence?

  1. Stage II
  2. Stage III
  3. Stage IV
  4. Stage I Correct answer.

Explanation

Stage I pressure injury is characterised by intact skin with a defined area of non-blanching erythema over a bony prominence. Once the epidermis breaks or a blister forms, the injury has progressed to stage II or beyond.

Question 11Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a dressing change. Which action maintains sterility?

  1. Reaching across the sterile field to place an instrument
  2. Touching the inner wrapper of the sterile pack with bare hands
  3. Holding sterile gloves below waist level while putting them on
  4. Keeping the sterile field above waist level and within view at all times Correct answer.

Explanation

A sterile field must remain above waist level and in the nurse's direct line of sight, because areas below the waist and out of view are considered contaminated. This principle prevents microorganisms from falling onto or contacting the sterile surface.

Question 12Fundamentals of Nursing

Which of the following is an example of medical asepsis rather than surgical asepsis?

  1. Using a sterile drape during a minor surgical procedure
  2. Applying sterile gloves before inserting a urinary catheter
  3. Maintaining sterility of an intravenous cannulation site
  4. Handwashing with soap and water before feeding a client Correct answer.

Explanation

Medical asepsis, or clean technique, refers to practices that reduce the number and spread of microorganisms, such as routine handwashing. Surgical asepsis aims to eliminate all microorganisms and is required for invasive procedures like catheterisation.

Question 13Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is to collect a midstream urine specimen from a client. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  1. Clean the perineal area, discard the first part of the stream, then collect the middle portion Correct answer.
  2. Collect urine from the bedpan after the client has voided completely
  3. Collect the entire voided volume into a single container over 24 hours
  4. Collect the first few drops of urine into the container

Explanation

A midstream specimen reduces contamination by flushing organisms from the distal urethra before the sample is taken. Cleansing the perineum first and discarding the initial stream yields urine that better represents bladder contents.

Question 14Fundamentals of Nursing

A client with diarrhoea is at risk of fluid volume deficit. Which finding best supports this nursing diagnosis?

  1. Increased urine output and moist skin
  2. Crackles in the lung bases and weight gain
  3. Bounding pulse and distended neck veins
  4. Dry mucous membranes and concentrated urine Correct answer.

Explanation

Fluid volume deficit produces dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor and concentrated, low-volume urine as the kidneys conserve water. These signs reflect reduced circulating volume and compensatory conservation.

Question 15Fundamentals of Nursing

Which term describes the normal sound heard over the anterior chest during inspiration and expiration when air moves through the bronchi?

  1. Crackles
  2. Bronchial breath sounds Correct answer.
  3. Vesicular breath sounds
  4. Friction rub

Explanation

Bronchial breath sounds are loud, high-pitched and heard over the trachea and main bronchi during both inspiration and expiration. They are normal over the central airways but abnormal if heard over peripheral lung fields.

Question 16Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is assessing a client for signs of hypoxia. Which cluster of findings is most consistent with this condition?

  1. Restlessness, tachycardia and central cyanosis Correct answer.
  2. Hypertension with bounding pulses and flushed face
  3. Slow deep breathing with a normal oxygen saturation
  4. Bradycardia, warm dry skin and euphoria

Explanation

Hypoxia commonly presents with restlessness, tachycardia and cyanosis as the body attempts to compensate for inadequate tissue oxygenation. Restlessness is often an early and sensitive sign of cerebral hypoxia.

Question 17Fundamentals of Nursing

When administering oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 litres per minute, which nursing measure is most important?

  1. Apply petroleum jelly to the nostrils to prevent dryness
  2. Keep the client flat in bed at all times
  3. Check that the prongs are patent and the client's skin is intact Correct answer.
  4. Restrict oral fluids to prevent coughing

Explanation

Patency of the cannula ensures the prescribed flow reaches the client, and skin checks prevent irritation or breakdown behind the ears and nares. Oxygen is a medication and its delivery system must be verified as functioning.

Question 18Fundamentals of Nursing

Which action is correct when performing a surgical hand scrub before a sterile procedure?

  1. Scrub only the palms and back of the hands for 30 seconds
  2. Rinse from the elbows down to the fingertips
  3. Keep the hands above the elbows throughout the scrub and rinse Correct answer.
  4. Dry the hands with a shared cloth towel

Explanation

During a surgical scrub the hands are kept higher than the elbows so that water and contaminants flow away from the clean hands toward the elbows. Rinsing proceeds from fingertips to elbows for the same reason.

Question 19Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. Which action best verifies correct placement before feeding?

  1. Auscultating a whoosh of air over the epigastrium after injecting air
  2. Placing the tube end in a glass of water to look for bubbles
  3. Checking the pH of aspirated fluid and confirming with a chest radiograph when indicated Correct answer.
  4. Asking the client whether the tube feels comfortable

Explanation

Measuring the pH of aspirated gastric fluid and, where policy requires, confirming with radiography are the most reliable methods of verifying nasogastric tube placement. The auscultatory air-bolus method alone is unreliable and no longer recommended as a sole check.

Question 20Fundamentals of Nursing

A client is on bed rest. Which measure helps prevent deep vein thrombosis?

  1. Applying tight constricting bandages to both legs
  2. Encouraging ankle and leg exercises at regular intervals Correct answer.
  3. Massaging the calves firmly for long periods
  4. Keeping the legs dependent below heart level

Explanation

Ankle pumps and leg exercises activate the calf muscle pump, promoting venous return and reducing stasis that predisposes to thrombosis. Early mobilisation and adequate hydration further support circulation.

Question 21Fundamentals of Nursing

Which nursing action best demonstrates respect for a client's autonomy during care planning?

  1. Involving the client in decisions about the timing and method of care Correct answer.
  2. Sharing the client's diagnosis with visitors without consent
  3. Deciding the care schedule without consulting the client
  4. Performing procedures without explaining them to save time

Explanation

Autonomy means respecting the client's right to make informed choices about their own care, which requires involving them in planning. Explaining procedures and seeking consent are practical expressions of this principle.

Question 22Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse observes a colleague about to give a medication to the wrong client. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Administer the medication and document the error later
  2. Report the colleague to the police immediately
  3. Ignore the situation to avoid conflict with the colleague
  4. Stop the administration and clarify the client's identity before proceeding Correct answer.

Explanation

The nurse's first duty is client safety, so the administration must be halted until the client's identity and prescription are verified. Errors are then reported through the institution's incident reporting system.

Question 23Fundamentals of Nursing

Which of the following is the correct technique for measuring a client's height using a wall-mounted stadiometer?

  1. Measure the client lying in bed with the knees flexed
  2. Ask the client to stand with shoes on and head tilted back
  3. Have the client stand erect, heels together and head in the Frankfurt plane Correct answer.
  4. Measure the client while seated in a wheelchair

Explanation

Accurate height measurement requires the client to stand erect with heels together, back straight and head positioned so the eyes and ears are level in the Frankfurt plane. Shoes are removed because they add to the measured height.

Question 24Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is documenting care in the client's record. Which entry meets the standards of good documentation?

  1. 'At 10:00 hours client reported pain score 6/10 in right lower abdomen; physician notified.' Correct answer.
  2. 'Client was difficult and uncooperative during the shift.'
  3. 'Client refused medication, will try again later.'
  4. 'Client seems unwell, probably nothing serious.'

Explanation

Good documentation records objective, factual observations with time, the client's own report and the action taken. It avoids subjective judgements and vague statements that cannot be verified.

Question 25Fundamentals of Nursing

A client is prescribed a hot water bag application for abdominal pain. Which safety measure should the nurse follow?

  1. Place the bag under the client's back while they sleep
  2. Apply the bag directly to the bare skin for 30 minutes
  3. Fill the bag completely to the brim with boiling water
  4. Wrap the bag in a cloth and check the temperature before applying Correct answer.

Explanation

Wrapping the hot water bag in cloth and checking the temperature protects skin from burns, particularly in clients with reduced sensation. The bag should be only partly filled and air expelled before the stopper is secured.

Question 26Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to record a client's oral temperature using a mercury-in-glass thermometer. Which action reflects correct technique for this route?

  1. Place the bulb under the tongue in the posterior sublingual pocket and leave it in place for the recommended time Correct answer.
  2. Insert the bulb into the centre of the mouth and ask the client to keep the lips apart
  3. Place the bulb between the upper and lower teeth and ask the client to bite gently
  4. Place the bulb against the inner cheek and ask the client to swallow during the reading

Explanation

The posterior sublingual pocket near the base of the tongue has a rich blood supply and reflects core temperature closely, so the bulb is placed there with the lips closed and the thermometer left for the full recommended time. Biting the thermometer risks breakage and gives unreliable readings, and the cheeks or open mouth do not give valid oral values.

Question 27Fundamentals of Nursing

While counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the rhythm is irregular. What is the most appropriate next action?

  1. Count the pulse for a full minute and record the rhythm as irregular Correct answer.
  2. Record only the rate and omit any comment about rhythm
  3. Apply firmer pressure until the rhythm becomes regular
  4. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by four as for a regular pulse

Explanation

When an irregular rhythm is detected, the pulse must be counted for a full minute because short counts multiply the error and miss the true rate. The rhythm is documented as irregular and the finding is reported, whereas firmer pressure does not change the heart's rhythm.

Question 28Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing a client for a hot compress application to a localised area of the back. Which principle guides safe practice for this procedure?

  1. Apply the compress directly over a bony prominence to reach deeper tissue
  2. Apply the compress for a limited period and inspect the skin frequently for redness or blistering Correct answer.
  3. Leave the compress in place until the client reports that the area feels completely numb
  4. Increase the temperature of the compress whenever the client feels no warmth

Explanation

Local heat causes vasodilation and can burn skin, especially where sensation or circulation is reduced, so applications are time-limited with frequent skin inspection. Prolonged or very hot application and placement over bony prominences increase the risk of tissue damage rather than improving the effect.

Question 29Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery and is drowsy after general anaesthesia. Which position is most appropriate initially?

  1. High Fowler's position with the neck flexed forward
  2. Prone position with the face turned downward
  3. Lateral position with the head turned to one side Correct answer.
  4. Trendelenburg position with the legs elevated

Explanation

After general anaesthesia the protective airway reflexes are depressed, so a lateral position with the head turned allows secretions or vomitus to drain out and helps keep the airway patent. Sitting the client upright with a flexed neck, lying prone, or head-down tilt all compromise breathing or airway clearance in a drowsy client.

Question 30Fundamentals of Nursing

Which action by the nurse best protects a client's right to informed consent before a procedure?

  1. Obtaining the signature quickly so the procedure is not delayed
  2. Asking a relative to sign when the client asks many questions
  3. Telling the client that consent is a routine formality of admission
  4. Confirming that the client understands the procedure, risks and alternatives before signing Correct answer.

Explanation

Valid consent requires that the client receives and understands information about the procedure, its risks and alternatives, and signs voluntarily. Rushing the signature, substituting a relative's signature without legal authority, or presenting consent as a formality all undermine the client's autonomy.

Question 31Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is to give a client a bed bath. Which sequence reflects accepted practice for maintaining comfort and hygiene?

  1. Wash the trunk first, then the face, and leave the perineal area until the next shift
  2. Wash the face first, then the trunk, then the limbs, and finally the perineal area Correct answer.
  3. Wash the perineal area first, then the face, then the limbs and trunk
  4. Wash the limbs first, then the perineal area, and finish with the face

Explanation

Bed bathing proceeds from the cleanest area to the most contaminated: face, then trunk, limbs and finally the perineal region, with water changed as needed. Starting with the perineal area or finishing with the face spreads contamination and is not acceptable practice.

Question 32Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is measuring a client's blood pressure with an aneroid sphygmomanometer. Which practice gives the most accurate reading?

  1. Place the cuff over a thick sleeve and inflate rapidly to the highest possible reading
  2. Place the cuff on the arm below heart level and release the valve quickly
  3. Place the cuff on the bare upper arm at heart level and inflate until the pulse disappears before releasing Correct answer.
  4. Place the cuff loosely on the forearm and listen over the brachial artery

Explanation

Accuracy depends on the cuff being on bare skin, at heart level, with the bladder centred over the brachial artery and inflation taken above the point where the pulse disappears. Clothing, loose placement, wrong level and rapid deflation all distort the reading.

Question 33Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action helps prevent catheter-associated infection?

  1. Rest the drainage bag on the floor beside the bed
  2. Disconnect the catheter from the drainage tubing for cleaning each day
  3. Irrigate the catheter routinely with antiseptic solution every shift
  4. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder and empty it regularly Correct answer.

Explanation

Gravity drainage with the bag kept below bladder level prevents urine from flowing back into the bladder, and regular emptying prevents stagnation. Routine antiseptic irrigation, unnecessary disconnection and placing the bag on the floor all introduce organisms into the closed system.

Question 34Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to give an intramuscular injection into the ventrogluteal site. Which landmark identifies this site?

  1. The deltoid muscle two fingerbreadths below the acromion process
  2. The palm of the hand placed on the greater trochanter with the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine Correct answer.
  3. The middle third of the lateral thigh between the knee and the hip
  4. The lower outer quadrant of the buttock divided by the posterior iliac spine

Explanation

The ventrogluteal site is located with the palm on the greater trochanter and the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine, giving a safe area away from major nerves and vessels. The lateral thigh, the buttock quadrant and the deltoid describe other sites.

Question 35Fundamentals of Nursing

Before giving a prescribed oral tablet to a client who is drowsy but conscious, which action is most important?

  1. Raise the head of the bed and check the client can swallow safely before giving the tablet Correct answer.
  2. Crush the tablet and mix it with a small amount of water
  3. Give the tablet with the client lying flat to prevent choking
  4. Place the tablet in the mouth and leave the client to swallow at leisure

Explanation

A drowsy client is at risk of aspiration, so the nurse raises the head of the bed, rouses the client and confirms a safe swallow before giving oral medication. Crushing tablets alters the prescribed form, leaving the client unattended is unsafe, and a flat position increases aspiration risk.

Question 36Fundamentals of Nursing

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of surgical asepsis in the operating theatre?

  1. It aims to destroy all micro-organisms, including spores, from objects entering sterile body areas Correct answer.
  2. It aims to clean visible soil from equipment before storage
  3. It aims to reduce the number of micro-organisms on the hands to a safe level
  4. It aims to prevent the spread of infection from one client to another in the ward

Explanation

Surgical asepsis, or sterile technique, aims to eliminate all micro-organisms including spores from objects that will enter sterile body cavities or tissues. Reducing hand flora, preventing cross-infection in the ward and cleaning soiled equipment are measures of medical asepsis or cleaning.

Question 37Fundamentals of Nursing

A client in the terminal stage of illness asks the nurse for help to die. What is the most appropriate nursing response in the Tamil Nadu setting?

  1. Listen to the client's distress, acknowledge it and report the request so the care team can address pain and psychological needs Correct answer.
  2. Inform the client that such requests are not the nurse's concern
  3. Promise to arrange the request because the client has the right to decide
  4. Tell the client this is illegal and refuse to discuss it further

Explanation

Euthanasia and assisted suicide are not legally permitted in India, so the nurse cannot agree or promise to arrange it. The professional response is to acknowledge the client's suffering, explore unmet needs such as pain, depression and fear, and refer the matter to the team.

Question 38Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is calculating the intake and output of a client over a 24-hour period. Which combination of records gives the most complete measure of fluid balance?

  1. Only the output, because intake is recorded on the diet sheet
  2. Only the oral fluids the client drinks and the urine passed
  3. All oral fluids, intravenous fluids and tube feeds recorded as intake, with urine, vomitus and drainage recorded as output Correct answer.
  4. Only the intravenous fluids given and the urine passed

Explanation

Accurate fluid balance requires all sources of intake, including oral fluids, intravenous infusions and tube feeds, to be matched against all measurable losses such as urine, vomitus and wound or drain output. Recording only part of the data produces a misleading balance.

Question 39Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to give a client a cleansing enema. Which position is usually recommended, and why?

  1. Supine position, because it prevents leakage of fluid
  2. Right lateral position, because the ascending colon lies on the right
  3. Sitting position, because it speeds up the flow of fluid
  4. Left lateral position, because the descending colon and rectum are on the left Correct answer.

Explanation

The left lateral position follows the anatomical course of the rectum and descending colon, allowing fluid to flow along the bowel by gravity with less discomfort and better retention. Right lateral, supine and sitting positions do not align with this anatomy as well.

Question 40Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is caring for a client who has been on prolonged bed rest. Which finding should be reported as an early sign of a pressure injury?

  1. A deep open wound exposing muscle over the heel
  2. A localised area of warmth and non-blanching redness over the sacrum Correct answer.
  3. Peeling of the outer layer of skin over the scapula
  4. Generalised pallor of both lower limbs

Explanation

The earliest sign of pressure injury is a localised area of warmth, redness or discoloration over a bony prominence that does not blanch. Pallor of both limbs is not pressure-specific, while an open wound exposing muscle and skin peeling indicate established damage rather than an early sign.

Question 41Anatomy and Physiology

Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and shows striations under a microscope?

  1. Cardiac muscle
  2. Smooth muscle
  3. Glandular epithelium
  4. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is attached to bones, is innervated by somatic motor neurons and therefore contracts voluntarily, and its actin and myosin filaments are arranged in regular sarcomeres that produce cross-striations. Cardiac muscle is striated but involuntary, and smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated.

Question 42Anatomy and Physiology

The normal resting heart rate of a healthy adult is approximately:

  1. 60 to 100 beats per minute Correct answer.
  2. 20 to 40 beats per minute
  3. 40 to 60 beats per minute
  4. 120 to 160 beats per minute

Explanation

The sinoatrial node normally fires 60 to 100 times per minute in a resting adult, which sets the resting heart rate. Rates below 60 are bradycardia and above 100 are tachycardia; the 20 to 40 and 120 to 160 ranges are not normal adult resting values.

Question 43Anatomy and Physiology

Which blood cells are the principal carriers of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Erythrocytes Correct answer.
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Platelets
  4. Lymphocytes

Explanation

Erythrocytes contain haemoglobin, and each haemoglobin molecule binds four oxygen molecules, so red cells carry almost all the oxygen in blood. Neutrophils and lymphocytes are white cells concerned with defence, and platelets are cell fragments concerned with haemostasis.

Question 44Anatomy and Physiology

The exchange of gases between the alveolar air and the pulmonary capillary blood is called:

  1. Internal respiration
  2. Ventilation
  3. Cellular respiration
  4. External respiration Correct answer.

Explanation

External respiration is the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the alveolar-capillary membrane in the lungs. Internal respiration is the same exchange between systemic capillary blood and tissue cells, cellular respiration is the metabolic use of oxygen inside cells, and ventilation is only the movement of air.

Question 45Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the nephron is chiefly responsible for the reabsorption of glucose and most filtered water?

  1. Glomerular capsule
  2. Loop of Henle
  3. Proximal convoluted tubule Correct answer.
  4. Collecting duct

Explanation

The proximal convoluted tubule has a brush border rich in carriers and mitochondria, and it reabsorbs about 65 to 70 per cent of filtered water and virtually all filtered glucose. The capsule only collects filtrate, the loop concentrates urine, and the collecting duct fine-tunes water balance under ADH.

Question 46Anatomy and Physiology

The largest gland in the human body, which secretes bile, is the:

  1. Liver Correct answer.
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Parotid gland

Explanation

The liver is the largest gland, weighing about 1.5 kg in an adult, and it produces bile for fat emulsification. The pancreas is a mixed gland but much smaller, the parotid is a salivary gland, and the spleen is a lymphoid organ rather than a gland.

Question 47Anatomy and Physiology

Which vitamin is synthesised in the skin when it is exposed to ultraviolet light?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D Correct answer.

Explanation

Ultraviolet B light converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the epidermis into cholecalciferol, which becomes the active form of vitamin D after hydroxylation in the liver and kidney. Vitamins A, C and K are obtained from the diet and are not produced in skin by light.

Question 48Anatomy and Physiology

The number of permanent teeth in a normal adult dentition is:

  1. 36
  2. 20
  3. 32 Correct answer.
  4. 26

Explanation

The permanent dentition has 32 teeth, that is 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars and 12 molars including the four third molars. Twenty is the number of deciduous teeth, while 26 and 36 match no normal dentition.

Question 49Anatomy and Physiology

A patient's blood report shows a haemoglobin of 9 g/dL. Which physiological consequence is most likely?

  1. Increased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
  2. Increased carbon dioxide transport by haemoglobin
  3. Reduced clotting ability of blood
  4. Reduced oxygen delivery to tissues Correct answer.

Explanation

Haemoglobin is the oxygen carrier, so a value of 9 g/dL, well below the normal adult range, means less oxygen is transported to tissues and the person may show fatigue and breathlessness. Haemoglobin level does not determine clotting, and carbon dioxide transport is only partly affected.

Question 50Anatomy and Physiology

During ventricular systole, the atrioventricular valves close because:

  1. Atrial pressure rises above ventricular pressure
  2. The chordae tendineae contract actively
  3. Ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure Correct answer.
  4. The semilunar valves open first

Explanation

As the ventricles contract, their pressure exceeds atrial pressure and pushes the atrioventricular cusps upward until they meet and close, producing the first heart sound. The chordae tendineae and papillary muscles only prevent the cusps from prolapsing; they do not close the valves actively.