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IN Vet Tech practice questions

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Question 1Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which opioid is a Schedule II controlled substance in the United States and is commonly used as a transdermal patch in veterinary practice?

  1. Buprenorphine
  2. Tramadol
  3. Butorphanol
  4. Fentanyl Correct answer.

Explanation

Fentanyl is a Schedule II controlled substance because of its high abuse potential and is available as a transdermal patch for sustained analgesia in animals. The other listed analgesics fall into different schedules or are not federally controlled in the same way.

Question 2Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A veterinary technician is calculating a dose of a drug supplied as a 50 mg/mL solution for a 12 kg dog at 2 mg/kg. What volume should be drawn into the syringe?

  1. 1.2 mL
  2. 2.4 mL
  3. 0.48 mL Correct answer.
  4. 4.8 mL

Explanation

The dose is 12 kg times 2 mg/kg, which equals 24 mg. Dividing 24 mg by the 50 mg/mL concentration gives 0.48 mL. Double-checking units prevents tenfold dosing errors.

Question 3Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which route of administration typically produces the most rapid onset of action for a emergency drug in a collapsed patient?

  1. Oral
  2. Subcutaneous
  3. Intravenous Correct answer.
  4. Intramuscular

Explanation

Intravenous administration places drug directly into the circulation, bypassing absorption barriers, so it produces the fastest onset. Subcutaneous and oral routes depend on perfusion and absorption, which are unreliable in a collapsed patient.

Question 4Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which class of antibiotic is considered bactericidal through inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis?

  1. Sulfonamides
  2. Macrolides
  3. Beta-lactams Correct answer.
  4. Tetracyclines

Explanation

Beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins bind penicillin-binding proteins and block peptidoglycan cross-linking, which is lethal to actively dividing bacteria. The other classes are primarily bacteriostatic through protein synthesis or folate pathway inhibition.

Question 5Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which NSAID is approved for use in cats in the United States as a single postoperative injection?

  1. Robenacoxib Correct answer.
  2. Meloxicam
  3. Deracoxib
  4. Carprofen

Explanation

Robenacoxib is labeled for cats as a single subcutaneous injection for postoperative pain control. Carprofen and deracoxib are approved for dogs, and meloxicam labeling in cats is limited to a one-time dose for specific indications.

Question 6Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a benzodiazepine used to terminate status epilepticus in dogs and cats?

  1. Propofol
  2. Levetiracetam
  3. Diazepam Correct answer.
  4. Phenobarbital

Explanation

Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A activity and is a first-line agent for terminating active seizures. Propofol is an anesthetic induction agent, phenobarbital is a maintenance anticonvulsant, and levetiracetam is used for chronic seizure control.

Question 7Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which hormone is used to induce parturition or treat pyometra in dogs and is administered as a luteolytic agent?

  1. Progesterone
  2. Prostaglandin F2 alpha Correct answer.
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Estradiol

Explanation

Prostaglandin F2 alpha causes luteolysis and is used in reproductive management, including pyometra treatment in some cases. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction but does not lyse the corpus luteum.

Question 8Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist commonly used for sedation and analgesia in veterinary patients?

  1. Dexmedetomidine Correct answer.
  2. Ketamine
  3. Atipamezole
  4. Acepromazine

Explanation

Dexmedetomidine is a highly selective alpha-2 agonist that produces sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia. Atipamezole is its reversal agent, acepromazine is a phenothiazine, and ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic.

Question 9Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a specific reversal agent for opioid-induced respiratory depression in veterinary patients?

  1. Flumazenil
  2. Naloxone Correct answer.
  3. Yohimbine
  4. Atipamezole

Explanation

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that reverses opioid effects, including respiratory depression. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and atipamezole and yohimbine reverse alpha-2 agonists.

Question 10Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A dog receiving long-term phenobarbital therapy is at risk for which adverse effect that warrants periodic monitoring?

  1. Hepatotoxicity Correct answer.
  2. Ototoxicity
  3. Nephrotoxicity
  4. Cardiotoxicity

Explanation

Phenobarbital induces hepatic enzymes and can cause hepatotoxicity with chronic use, so liver enzymes and drug levels should be monitored. Routine monitoring helps detect dose-related liver injury early.

Question 11Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which antibiotic class is associated with cartilage lesions in growing animals and should be used cautiously in young dogs?

  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Fluoroquinolones Correct answer.
  4. Aminoglycosides

Explanation

Fluoroquinolones can cause arthropathy in growing animals and are generally avoided in young, rapidly growing dogs. Penicillins and cephalosporins do not carry this class warning, and aminoglycosides have different toxicity concerns.

Question 12Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is used as a premedication to reduce vagally mediated bradycardia during anesthesia and is an anticholinergic?

  1. Metoclopramide
  2. Morphine
  3. Midazolam
  4. Glycopyrrolate Correct answer.

Explanation

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic that blocks muscarinic receptors and prevents or treats vagally mediated bradycardia. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic antiemetic, midazolam is a benzodiazepine, and morphine is an opioid.

Question 13Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which analgesic is a partial mu agonist and kappa agonist that is often used for sedation and visceral pain in cats?

  1. Fentanyl
  2. Butorphanol Correct answer.
  3. Hydromorphone
  4. Methadone

Explanation

Butorphanol is a mixed agonist-antagonist opioid with kappa agonism and partial mu activity, giving sedation and short-lived visceral analgesia. The other options are full mu agonists with different effects.

Question 14Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A technician must administer a drug that is highly protein bound. Which statement best describes the clinical implication?

  1. Only the unbound fraction is pharmacologically active and available for metabolism Correct answer.
  2. Protein binding increases renal excretion of the drug
  3. Protein binding eliminates the risk of drug interactions
  4. The bound fraction is the active fraction at receptor sites

Explanation

Drug bound to plasma proteins is a reservoir and cannot act at receptors or be metabolized until released. Therefore only the free, unbound fraction produces effect and is available for elimination, which explains why hypoalbuminemia can intensify drug effects.

Question 15Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a loop diuretic commonly used to manage pulmonary edema in dogs with congestive heart failure?

  1. Acetazolamide
  2. Mannitol
  3. Spironolactone
  4. Furosemide Correct answer.

Explanation

Furosemide inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in the loop of Henle, producing rapid diuresis that reduces pulmonary congestion. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing aldosterone antagonist, mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, and acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

Question 16Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which of the following is an appropriate storage practice for most veterinary vaccines?

  1. Store in direct sunlight to activate the adjuvant
  2. Freeze to extend shelf life indefinitely
  3. Refrigerate between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius and avoid freezing Correct answer.
  4. Store at room temperature to preserve adjuvants

Explanation

Most veterinary vaccines must be kept refrigerated at 2 to 8 degrees Celsius because freezing can damage adjuvants and heat can inactivate antigens. Proper cold-chain handling preserves potency until administration.

Question 17Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is an antifungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis and is commonly used for systemic mycoses in veterinary patients?

  1. Ketoconazole Correct answer.
  2. Metronidazole
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Praziquantel

Explanation

Ketoconazole is an azole antifungal that inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis, disrupting cell membrane integrity. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic, praziquantel is an antiparasitic, and metronidazole is an antimicrobial with antiprotozoal activity.

Question 18Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A horse is treated with phenylbutazone. Which monitoring concern is most appropriate for long-term therapy?

  1. Cataract formation
  2. Gastrointestinal ulceration and renal effects Correct answer.
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hepatic copper accumulation

Explanation

Phenylbutazone is a nonselective NSAID that inhibits cyclooxygenase and can cause gastric ulceration, right dorsal colitis, and renal papillary necrosis with prolonged use. Monitoring for GI signs and renal function is important during long-term therapy.

Question 19Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a cholinergic agonist used to stimulate gastrointestinal and urinary bladder motility in postoperative ileus or urinary retention?

  1. Atropine
  2. Bethanechol Correct answer.
  3. Propranolol
  4. Acepromazine

Explanation

Bethanechol directly stimulates muscarinic receptors, increasing detrusor and gastrointestinal smooth muscle contraction. Atropine is anticholinergic and would oppose these effects, while acepromazine and propranolol act on different receptor systems.

Question 20Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which statement best explains why a drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires therapeutic drug monitoring?

  1. Narrow-index drugs cannot be measured in plasma
  2. Therapeutic monitoring is required only for antibiotics
  3. Small changes in plasma concentration can produce toxicity or loss of efficacy Correct answer.
  4. Narrow-index drugs are always eliminated by zero-order kinetics

Explanation

A narrow therapeutic index means the effective and toxic concentrations are close together, so small shifts in plasma level can cause treatment failure or toxicity. Monitoring keeps concentrations within the therapeutic window, especially when metabolism or excretion is altered by disease.

Question 21Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a chemotherapeutic alkylating agent used in veterinary oncology and requires handling with closed-system transfer devices?

  1. Cyclophosphamide Correct answer.
  2. Metoclopramide
  3. Famotidine
  4. Prednisone

Explanation

Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating chemotherapeutic that cross-links DNA and is hazardous to handle, so closed-system transfer devices and personal protective equipment are used. Prednisone is a corticosteroid, metoclopramide is an antiemetic, and famotidine is an H2 blocker.

Question 22Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is prescribed a drug that reduces myocardial contractility and heart rate. Which drug class best fits this purpose?

  1. Loop diuretics
  2. Bronchodilators
  3. Positive inotropes
  4. Beta-adrenergic antagonists Correct answer.

Explanation

Beta-blockers such as atenolol reduce heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and can help control dynamic outflow obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Positive inotropes would increase contractility and are generally avoided in this setting.

Question 23Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which concept explains why repeated administration of an enzyme inducer such as phenobarbital can reduce the efficacy of a concurrently administered drug?

  1. Induction of hepatic metabolism increases clearance of the second drug Correct answer.
  2. Reduced gastric pH decreases absorption of the second drug
  3. Competition for renal tubular secretion reduces excretion of the second drug
  4. Displacement from plasma proteins increases the free fraction indefinitely

Explanation

Enzyme inducers increase expression of cytochrome P450 enzymes, accelerating metabolism and clearance of co-administered drugs and lowering their plasma concentrations. This can cause therapeutic failure unless the dose is adjusted and the interaction is monitored.

Question 24Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a synthetic opioid with both mu agonist activity and monoamine reuptake inhibition, and is used for chronic pain in dogs?

  1. Butorphanol
  2. Nalbuphine
  3. Tramadol Correct answer.
  4. Buprenorphine

Explanation

Tramadol acts as a weak mu agonist and inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, contributing to analgesia. It is used for chronic pain, although evidence of efficacy in dogs is variable.

Question 25Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat gastric ulceration in veterinary patients?

  1. Omeprazole Correct answer.
  2. Misoprostol
  3. Sucralfate
  4. Famotidine

Explanation

Omeprazole irreversibly inhibits the gastric proton pump, reducing acid secretion more effectively than H2 blockers for many ulcer cases. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist, sucralfate coats ulcers, and misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog.

Question 26Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A veterinary technician is calculating a dose of injectable antibiotic for a 12 kg dog. The order reads 5 mg/kg and the vial concentration is 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters should be drawn up?

  1. 0.6 mL
  2. 2.4 mL
  3. 12 mL
  4. 1.2 mL Correct answer.

Explanation

The total dose is 12 kg multiplied by 5 mg/kg, which equals 60 mg. Dividing 60 mg by the 50 mg/mL concentration gives 1.2 mL. Always confirm the final volume is plausible for the patient size before withdrawing from the vial.

Question 27Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which route of drug administration completely bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism?

  1. Administration with food in the stomach
  2. Oral administration
  3. Intravenous administration Correct answer.
  4. Rectal administration above the portal drainage

Explanation

First-pass metabolism occurs when absorbed drug travels through the portal vein to the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is why oral bioavailability is often low. Intravenous administration places drug directly into the systemic circulation, avoiding hepatic first-pass entirely. This is why drugs with extensive first-pass effects are often given parenterally.

Question 28Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A dog is prescribed an oral suspension that must be shaken well before each dose. Which principle best explains why this instruction matters?

  1. Shaking activates the drug chemically before absorption
  2. Shaking ensures uniform drug distribution so each dose delivers the labeled amount Correct answer.
  3. Shaking prevents the drug from being metabolized in the liver
  4. Shaking sterilizes the suspension between uses

Explanation

Suspensions contain undissolved drug particles that settle on standing, so without shaking the concentration in each withdrawn dose can vary widely. Resuspending ensures the measured volume matches the labeled concentration. Inconsistent dosing can cause subtherapeutic or toxic exposure.

Question 29Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A cat is receiving transdermal methimazole gel applied to the inner pinna for hyperthyroidism. Which instruction is most important for the owner?

  1. Wear gloves when applying and avoid contact with the application site Correct answer.
  2. Apply the gel to broken skin for faster absorption
  3. Double the dose on days when a dose was missed
  4. Wash the ear with alcohol immediately after each application

Explanation

Transdermal gel leaves drug residue on the ear and on the applicator, and owners can absorb methimazole through their skin, which can affect their own thyroid function. Gloves and hand washing reduce human exposure. The gel is applied to intact skin and the site should not be scrubbed off afterward.

Question 30Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A dog on chronic furosemide therapy for congestive heart failure is being monitored. Which laboratory abnormality is most directly expected from this drug's mechanism?

  1. Hypercalcemia
  2. Hypokalemia Correct answer.
  3. Hypernatremia with low urine output
  4. Hyperkalemia

Explanation

Loop diuretics block sodium-potassium-chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb, increasing urinary loss of potassium along with sodium and water. Chronic use therefore predisposes to hypokalemia, which can worsen arrhythmias. Periodic electrolyte monitoring is standard during long-term therapy.

Question 31Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A technician is preparing to administer a chemotherapy agent from a vial. Which practice best reflects safe handling of hazardous drugs?

  1. Rinse spilled drug down the sink with tap water
  2. Prepare the drug only when pregnant staff are present to supervise
  3. Reconstitute and withdraw the drug on an open benchtop to allow ventilation
  4. Use a closed-system transfer device and wear appropriate personal protective equipment Correct answer.

Explanation

Hazardous chemotherapeutics require engineering controls such as a closed-system transfer device plus gloves, gown, and eye protection to limit occupational exposure. Open benchtop preparation and uncontrolled disposal increase exposure risk. Spills require a designated spill kit and proper hazardous waste disposal, not sink rinsing.

Question 32Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A patient receiving a drug that is highly bound to plasma albumin is co-administered a second drug that competes for the same binding sites. Which consequence is most likely?

  1. The bound fraction of the first drug increases, reducing its effect
  2. The free fraction of the first drug rises, potentially increasing effect or toxicity Correct answer.
  3. Renal clearance of the first drug stops completely
  4. Total plasma concentration of the first drug falls below detection

Explanation

Only unbound drug is pharmacologically active and available for distribution and clearance. Displacement from albumin raises the free fraction, which can transiently intensify effect or toxicity even if total drug concentration is unchanged. This is a key reason to monitor clinical response in patients on highly protein-bound drugs.

Question 33Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A dog has been receiving long-term oral prednisone for immune-mediated disease. The drug is to be discontinued. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Stop abruptly to avoid chronic immunosuppression
  2. Withhold all glucocorticoids and start an NSAID immediately
  3. Switch to an injectable steroid at the same dose indefinitely
  4. Taper the dose gradually to allow adrenal recovery Correct answer.

Explanation

Chronic exogenous glucocorticoids suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, so abrupt withdrawal can precipitate adrenal insufficiency. Doses are tapered gradually to allow endogenous cortisol production to resume. Combining steroids and NSAIDs also raises gastrointestinal ulceration risk, so that is not a routine substitution.

Question 34Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A cat is prescribed an oral medication that is known to be poorly bioavailable when given with food. The owner reports giving each dose mixed into a full meal. Which interpretation best explains a poor clinical response?

  1. Food increased gastric pH, destroying the drug before absorption
  2. Food bound the drug to plasma proteins, preventing distribution
  3. Food increased hepatic blood flow, causing immediate renal excretion
  4. Food reduced or delayed absorption, lowering systemic exposure below therapeutic levels Correct answer.

Explanation

Food can slow gastric emptying, alter dissolution, or physically interact with a drug, reducing the rate and extent of absorption and therefore systemic exposure. If bioavailability falls below the therapeutic threshold, the patient may not respond despite correct dosing. The fix is to follow the labeled administration instructions regarding food.

Question 35Surgical Nursing

When preparing a patient for elective surgery, which premedication class is given primarily to reduce salivary and respiratory secretions that could obstruct the airway?

  1. Dissociative agents such as ketamine
  2. Alpha-2 agonists such as dexmedetomidine
  3. Anticholinergic agents such as glycopyrrolate Correct answer.
  4. Pure opioid agonists such as morphine

Explanation

Anticholinergics block muscarinic receptors, drying salivary and bronchial secretions and helping keep the airway clear during anesthesia. Glycopyrrolate is preferred in many small animal protocols because it causes less tachycardia than atropine. The other classes provide sedation, analgesia, or dissociation rather than secretion control.

Question 36Surgical Nursing

Which aseptic technique step must be performed on the surgical site immediately before applying the final antiseptic skin preparation solution?

  1. Clip the hair and remove loose hair from the surrounding area Correct answer.
  2. Scrub the site with a chlorhexidine-soaked sponge without clipping
  3. Rinse the site with sterile saline to remove all antiseptic
  4. Apply a sterile adhesive drape directly over unclipped fur

Explanation

Hair removal before antisepsis reduces contamination and allows the solution to contact skin. Clipping should be done outside the operating room when possible, and loose hair must be removed before the scrub. Antiseptic applied over unclipped fur is far less effective.

Question 37Surgical Nursing

A patient is positioned in dorsal recumbency for a celiotomy. Which patient support measure best prevents hypostatic congestion and nerve compression during a long procedure?

  1. Elevating the head 30 degrees above the heart
  2. Placing the patient directly on a hard stainless steel table surface
  3. Using a vacuum-assisted positioning device or padded trough with limb support Correct answer.
  4. Tying all four limbs tightly to the table rails

Explanation

Padded troughs or vacuum-positioning devices distribute pressure, support limbs in a neutral position, and reduce the risk of nerve and muscle damage. Hard surfaces and tight limb ties increase pressure injury and nerve compression. Head elevation affects venous return and is not a substitute for pressure relief.

Question 38Surgical Nursing

Which instrument is designed to hold a sterile drape securely to the patient's skin at the margin of the surgical field?

  1. Senn retractor
  2. Mayo-Hegar needle holder
  3. Backhaus towel clamp Correct answer.
  4. Rochester-Carmalt forceps

Explanation

Backhaus towel clamps have sharp curved tips that penetrate the drape and skin to anchor drapes. Needle holders and hemostatic forceps are not designed for drape fixation. Senn retractors are used to hold tissue edges open, not to secure drapes.

Question 39Surgical Nursing

Which suture material is classified as a monofilament, slowly absorbable suture commonly used for closing the linea alba in a dog?

  1. Silk
  2. Polyglactin 910 braided
  3. Polydioxanone Correct answer.
  4. Chromic catgut

Explanation

Polydioxanone is a monofilament absorbable suture with prolonged tensile strength retention, which suits slow-healing fascial closures such as the linea alba. Silk is nonabsorbable and braided. Chromic catgut loses strength quickly, and braided polyglactin is multifilament.

Question 40Surgical Nursing

During the immediate postoperative period, which parameter should be monitored most frequently to detect early airway obstruction in a brachycephalic dog recovering from anesthesia?

  1. Urine specific gravity every hour
  2. Blood glucose every 15 minutes
  3. Rectal temperature every 30 minutes
  4. Respiratory effort and mucous membrane color continuously Correct answer.

Explanation

Brachycephalic breeds are at high risk for upper airway swelling and obstruction after anesthesia, so continuous observation of respiratory effort, rate, and mucous membrane color is essential. Temperature and glucose are important but do not detect airway obstruction. Urine specific gravity is irrelevant in this acute setting.

Question 41Surgical Nursing

Which item of personal protective equipment is essential when performing a surgical scrub and gowning procedure in the operating room?

  1. A lead apron
  2. Nonsterile examination gloves
  3. A face shield alone
  4. A surgical cap and mask Correct answer.

Explanation

A surgical cap confines hair and a mask reduces contamination of the sterile field from the surgeon's respiratory tract, both of which are required before scrubbing and gowning. Lead aprons are for radiation protection, nonsterile gloves contaminate the field, and a face shield alone does not replace the cap and mask.

Question 42Surgical Nursing

A dog undergoing ovariohysterectomy begins to show a sudden rise in heart rate with a fall in blood pressure after traction on the ovarian pedicle. Which action is the most appropriate first response?

  1. Increase the depth of anesthesia immediately
  2. Continue traction and monitor for two more minutes
  3. Release the traction and assess the pedicle for hemorrhage Correct answer.
  4. Administer a bolus of intravenous crystalloids rapidly

Explanation

Traction on the ovarian pedicle can cause vagal stimulation and pain-related cardiovascular changes, and a sudden change may also signal vessel avulsion and hemorrhage. Releasing traction allows immediate assessment of the pedicle and surrounding tissue before further manipulation. Deepening anesthesia or giving fluids without identifying the cause risks masking a surgical emergency.

Question 43Surgical Nursing

Which characteristic best distinguishes a simple interrupted suture pattern from a continuous pattern in skin closure?

  1. The simple interrupted pattern provides a tighter seal against contamination than a continuous pattern
  2. The simple interrupted pattern requires more suture material but allows independent removal of each suture Correct answer.
  3. The continuous pattern allows each suture to be removed independently if infection develops
  4. The continuous pattern is always preferred when wound tension is high

Explanation

Simple interrupted sutures are individually tied, so each can be removed or replaced independently, though more knots and material are used. Continuous patterns are faster and use less material but rely on a single strand, so one break compromises the entire line. Neither pattern inherently provides a superior seal, and high-tension wounds often benefit from interrupted or tension-relieving techniques.

Question 44Surgical Nursing

During a cesarean section, which action best supports neonatal viability immediately after delivery of each puppy?

  1. Administer atropine to each puppy before drying
  2. Dry the puppy, clear the airway, and provide warmth while stimulating respiration Correct answer.
  3. Place the puppy on a cold table to encourage independent breathing
  4. Delay drying until the dam is fully recovered from anesthesia

Explanation

Newborns lose heat rapidly and amniotic fluid in the airway impairs breathing, so drying, airway clearance, and warming are the immediate priorities. Cold surfaces worsen hypothermia and depress respiration. Delaying care and routine atropine are not appropriate first steps.

Question 45Surgical Nursing

Which statement about the sterile field during surgery is correct?

  1. Sleeves remain sterile even when the hands are held below the waist
  2. The gown is sterile only in front from chest to waist level Correct answer.
  3. The back of a sterile gown is considered sterile once the surgeon has scrubbed
  4. The sterile field may be left unattended as long as instruments are covered

Explanation

Only the front of a sterile gown from chest to waist is considered sterile; the back, sleeves above the elbows, and areas below the waist are not. Hands must remain above waist level and within the sterile field. A sterile field should never be left unattended without supervision.

Question 46Surgical Nursing

Which fluid type is most appropriate for initial resuscitation of a dog in hypovolemic shock during the perioperative period?

  1. A colloid given alone at maintenance rate
  2. 5% dextrose in water
  3. A balanced isotonic crystalloid such as lactated Ringer's solution Correct answer.
  4. A hypertonic saline solution given as a maintenance infusion

Explanation

Balanced isotonic crystalloids expand the extracellular space and are the first-line choice for hypovolemic shock resuscitation. Dextrose solutions do not expand plasma volume effectively and can worsen hyperglycemia. Hypertonic saline is given in small boluses, not as maintenance, and colloids are adjuncts rather than sole initial therapy.

Question 47Surgical Nursing

Which monitoring finding most strongly suggests that a patient under general anesthesia is too lightly anesthetized during surgery?

  1. Increased heart rate, tearing, and purposeful movement Correct answer.
  2. Warm extremities with strong pulses
  3. Decreased heart rate with pale mucous membranes
  4. Decreased respiratory rate with deep muscle relaxation

Explanation

Tachycardia, lacrimation, and purposeful movement are classic signs of inadequate anesthetic depth. Decreased heart rate with pale membranes and deep relaxation suggest excessive depth. Warm extremities with strong pulses indicate good perfusion rather than inadequate anesthesia.

Question 48Surgical Nursing

Which step is most important when breaking down and cleaning surgical instruments after a procedure?

  1. Opening hinged instruments and removing visible debris before cleaning Correct answer.
  2. Stacking instruments tightly so sharp edges do not contact water
  3. Soaking all instruments in a strong disinfectant for 24 hours before cleaning
  4. Sterilizing instruments with blood and tissue still attached

Explanation

Hinged instruments should be opened and gross debris removed promptly, because dried blood and tissue protect microorganisms and damage surfaces. Cleaning must precede sterilization. Long disinfectant soaks and tight stacking are not substitutes for mechanical cleaning.

Question 49Surgical Nursing

A cat recovering from anesthesia after a dental extraction has a body temperature of 36.0 degrees Celsius. Which intervention is most appropriate initially?

  1. Place the cat in a cold cage to prevent hyperthermia
  2. Administer a warming enema of hot water
  3. Apply active warming with a forced-air warmer and monitor temperature Correct answer.
  4. Delay warming until the temperature falls below 35.0 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Perioperative hypothermia is common and should be treated with active warming such as forced-air blankets while monitoring temperature. Cold environments worsen heat loss. Hot-water enemas risk burns and are not an appropriate warming method, and waiting for further decline increases risk.

Question 50Surgical Nursing

During surgery, the surgeon requests a suture that will maintain tensile strength for at least two to three weeks while closing a contaminated abdominal wound. Which material best fits this requirement?

  1. Polydioxanone Correct answer.
  2. Chromic catgut
  3. Silk
  4. Polyglactin 910

Explanation

Polydioxanone retains tensile strength for several weeks and is a monofilament, which reduces bacterial harboring in contaminated wounds. Polyglactin 910 loses strength sooner, chromic catgut loses strength rapidly, and silk is nonabsorbable and braided.