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CARC CPL Theory study materials
CARC CPL Theory study resources

CARC CPL Theory practice questions

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Question 1Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

Under the Canadian Aviation Regulations, a private pilot licence holder may act as pilot-in-command of an aeroplane carrying passengers only if the pilot has completed a biennial flight review within what maximum preceding period?

  1. 6 months
  2. 12 months
  3. 24 months Correct answer.
  4. 36 months

Explanation

The CARs require a biennial flight review within the 24 months preceding the flight for a private pilot to carry passengers. The review confirms recency of knowledge and skill. Failure to complete it restricts passenger-carrying privileges.

Question 2Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

For a flight to be conducted under visual flight rules in Class C controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility required is:

  1. 1 statute mile
  2. 5 statute miles
  3. 3 statute miles Correct answer.
  4. 2 statute miles

Explanation

VFR weather minima in controlled airspace require at least 3 statute miles flight visibility. This applies to Class C airspace where ATC separation is provided. The distance-from-cloud criteria also apply alongside visibility.

Question 3Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft operating in Class D controlled airspace during the hours the control tower is in operation must:

  1. Monitor the emergency frequency at all times
  2. Obtain a written clearance prior to departure only
  3. Establish two-way radio communication with the tower before entering Correct answer.
  4. File an IFR flight plan regardless of conditions

Explanation

Class D airspace requires the pilot to establish two-way radio communication with the controlling agency before entry. A clearance is not necessarily issued, but communication must be established. This distinguishes Class D from Class C, which requires an explicit clearance.

Question 4Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

The pilot of an aircraft involved in an accident resulting in serious injury to a person must notify the appropriate authorities as soon as possible and, where required, submit a report within what timeframe?

  1. Only if requested by the insurance company
  2. Within 30 days of the accident
  3. As soon as practicable, with a written report within the period specified by the regulations Correct answer.
  4. Within 90 days of the accident

Explanation

The regulations require immediate notification of an accident and a written report within the period set out in the CARs. Prompt notification allows investigation to begin while evidence is fresh. The written report documents the circumstances for the regulator.

Question 5Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft is on final approach and another aircraft is departing the same runway in the opposite direction. Which right-of-way rule applies?

  1. The faster aircraft has the right-of-way
  2. The departing aircraft has the right-of-way
  3. Both aircraft must break off and rejoin the circuit
  4. The aircraft on final approach has the right-of-way over the departing aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

An aircraft on final approach to land has the right-of-way over an aircraft on the ground or one departing. The landing aircraft is committed to a stabilized approach and has limited options. The departing aircraft must yield or hold.

Question 6Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

The minimum altitude at which an aircraft may be flown over a built-up area, except when taking off or landing, is:

  1. 1,500 feet above ground level in all cases
  2. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1 mile
  3. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet Correct answer.
  4. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 500 feet

Explanation

Over built-up areas the minimum is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. This protects persons and property on the ground. A lower minimum applies over other than built-up areas.

Question 7Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

A pilot wishes to operate an aircraft at night carrying passengers. Which requirement applies to night currency?

  1. The pilot must carry a second pilot
  2. The pilot must have completed the required night takeoffs and landings within the preceding period specified in the regulations Correct answer.
  3. The pilot must have flown 100 hours total time
  4. The pilot must hold an instrument rating in all cases

Explanation

Night passenger-carrying currency requires a specified number of night takeoffs and landings within the preceding period. This ensures recent night experience. It is separate from the biennial flight review.

Question 8Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each shall:

  1. Climb immediately
  2. Alter heading to the right Correct answer.
  3. Alter heading to the left
  4. Descend immediately

Explanation

The head-on rule requires each aircraft to alter heading to the right so they pass port side to port side. This creates a predictable separation. Both pilots applying the same rule produces consistent avoidance.

Question 9Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft experiencing a two-way radio failure in VFR conditions in controlled airspace should:

  1. Circle the control zone until radio contact is restored
  2. Squawk 7600 and climb to the highest available altitude
  3. Continue to the original destination without notifying anyone
  4. Remain VFR, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report arrival to ATC Correct answer.

Explanation

In VFR conditions the pilot should continue under VFR, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and advise ATC of the arrival. The transponder code 7600 signals the failure. Continuing to the original destination may not be the nearest suitable field.

Question 10Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

The validity period of a medical certificate appropriate to a private pilot licence, for a pilot under 40 years of age, is generally:

  1. 36 months
  2. 24 months Correct answer.
  3. 60 months
  4. 12 months

Explanation

For a private pilot under 40, the medical certificate is generally valid for 24 months. The period shortens with age. The certificate must be valid on the date of flight.

Question 11Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

Which document must be carried on board an aircraft during flight and produced on request by an authorized person?

  1. The certificate of airworthiness Correct answer.
  2. The pilot's training records
  3. The aircraft maintenance manual
  4. The pilot's logbook

Explanation

The certificate of airworthiness must be on board and available for inspection. It confirms the aircraft meets its type design and is maintained accordingly. Logbooks and manuals are not required to be carried on board.

Question 12Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft is overtaking another aircraft. The overtaking aircraft shall:

  1. Keep clear by altering heading to the left
  2. Maintain its speed and pass underneath
  3. Keep clear by altering heading to the right Correct answer.
  4. Sound a warning and continue on course

Explanation

The overtaking aircraft must keep clear and alter heading to the right until well past. This gives the overtaken aircraft a predictable path. The overtaken aircraft maintains course and speed.

Question 13Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

A control zone typically extends from the surface upward to a specified altitude and surrounds:

  1. A restricted airspace area
  2. A controlled aerodrome Correct answer.
  3. An uncontrolled aerodrome
  4. A military training area only

Explanation

A control zone is established around a controlled aerodrome to protect traffic in the vicinity. It extends from the surface to a stated upper limit. Entry requirements depend on the airspace class within it.

Question 14Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

Before operating in Class C airspace, an aircraft must have an operable transponder with Mode C altitude reporting unless:

  1. The aircraft is operating within the specified altitude band where the requirement does not apply Correct answer.
  2. The flight is conducted at night
  3. The pilot holds a commercial licence
  4. The aircraft is a glider in all cases

Explanation

Transponder and altitude-reporting requirements apply in specified airspace, with certain altitude-based exceptions. The rule ties equipage to the airspace and altitude band. Holding a higher licence does not exempt an aircraft.

Question 15Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

A NOTAM is issued to provide information about:

  1. Temporary changes or conditions affecting flight operations Correct answer.
  2. The pilot's personal currency status
  3. The permanent design of an aerodrome
  4. The aircraft's maintenance schedule

Explanation

NOTAMs advise pilots of temporary or operational conditions such as closed runways, unserviceable navaids, or hazards. They are part of pre-flight planning. Permanent aerodrome data appear in the Canada Flight Supplement instead.

Question 16Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft departing a controlled aerodrome must obtain a clearance before:

  1. Boarding passengers only
  2. Taxiing within the apron only
  3. Starting the engine only
  4. Moving onto the manoeuvring area or taking off Correct answer.

Explanation

A clearance is required before operating on the manoeuvring area or departing. This allows the tower to sequence traffic safely. Apron movement may be governed by separate local procedures.

Question 17Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

The standard altimeter setting used above the transition altitude in Canadian airspace is:

  1. The nearest station's pressure
  2. 30.00 inches of mercury
  3. The aerodrome altimeter setting
  4. 29.92 inches of mercury Correct answer.

Explanation

Above the transition altitude, aircraft set the standard altimeter setting of 29.92 inHg so all aircraft use a common reference. This provides vertical separation based on pressure altitude. Below the transition altitude, local settings are used.

Question 18Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

A pilot operating under VFR in Class B airspace must:

  1. File a VFR flight plan only
  2. Hold an instrument rating and obtain a clearance Correct answer.
  3. Operate below 3,000 feet only
  4. Only establish radio communication

Explanation

Class B airspace requires an instrument rating and an ATC clearance for all operations. The high-density environment demands IFR-qualified pilots. VFR flight in Class B is otherwise not permitted without these conditions.

Question 19Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

The pilot-in-command is ultimately responsible for:

  1. Only the navigation of the aircraft
  2. Only the fuel planning
  3. The operation and safety of the aircraft and persons on board Correct answer.
  4. Only the communication with ATC

Explanation

The pilot-in-command has final authority and responsibility for the aircraft and its occupants. This includes operational decisions regardless of other crew. Delegation does not transfer ultimate responsibility.

Question 20Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft must be equipped with a first aid kit when:

  1. Operating with passengers on board as specified by the regulations Correct answer.
  2. Operating only above 10,000 feet
  3. Operating only over water
  4. Operating only at night

Explanation

The regulations specify first aid kit carriage for aircraft carrying passengers. The kit contents and quantities depend on passenger capacity. It is not tied to night, water, or altitude conditions.

Question 21Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

When an aircraft is landing and another is taxiing on the runway, the right-of-way belongs to:

  1. The aircraft that radioed first
  2. The aircraft with the higher category
  3. The taxiing aircraft
  4. The landing aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

A landing aircraft has the right-of-way over aircraft on the ground. The landing aircraft is committed and has less ability to manoeuvre. The taxiing aircraft must vacate or hold clear.

Question 22Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

A pilot who receives a TCAS resolution advisory must:

  1. Ignore it and follow the ATC clearance
  2. Turn off the transponder
  3. Reduce power and maintain altitude
  4. Respond promptly in the direction commanded, even if it conflicts with an ATC instruction Correct answer.

Explanation

A resolution advisory requires immediate response to avoid a collision, and the pilot must inform ATC afterward. The advisory takes precedence over the clearance. Safety of the aircraft is paramount.

Question 23Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

The minimum fuel required for a VFR flight must include:

  1. Fuel for taxi only
  2. Fuel to destination plus a specified reserve Correct answer.
  3. Fuel to destination only
  4. Fuel to the alternate only

Explanation

VFR fuel planning must provide fuel to the destination plus a regulatory reserve. The reserve covers unforeseen delays or diversions. Planning to destination alone leaves no margin.

Question 24Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

A pilot flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome without an operating control tower should:

  1. Broadcast position reports on the designated frequency and conform to the circuit Correct answer.
  2. Circle overhead at 3,000 feet until cleared
  3. Rely solely on see-and-avoid without broadcasting
  4. Enter the circuit without any radio calls

Explanation

At uncontrolled aerodromes, pilots make position broadcasts on the designated frequency and follow the published circuit. This improves situational awareness among traffic. Radio calls are recommended even where not mandatory.

Question 25Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

When an aircraft is being overtaken by another, the aircraft being overtaken shall:

  1. Accelerate to prevent the pass
  2. Maintain its course and speed Correct answer.
  3. Descend to allow passage
  4. Alter heading to the left

Explanation

The overtaken aircraft maintains course and speed so the overtaking aircraft can predictably pass to the right. Changing course or speed creates conflict. The duty to keep clear rests with the overtaking aircraft.

Question 26Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the minimum horizontal distance an aircraft must maintain from another aircraft to avoid the risk of collision when both are flying in the same direction at the same altitude?

  1. 500 feet
  2. No specific distance; see and avoid applies Correct answer.
  3. 2,000 feet
  4. 1,000 feet

Explanation

Canadian Aviation Regulations do not prescribe a specific horizontal separation for aircraft in flight under VFR; the see-and-avoid principle applies, and pilots must maintain vigilance to avoid collisions. No fixed distance such as 500, 1,000, or 2,000 feet is mandated for same-direction, same-altitude flight.

Question 27Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft is approaching to land at an aerodrome without an operating control tower. Another aircraft is already on the downwind leg. Who has the right-of-way?

  1. The aircraft on the downwind leg
  2. The aircraft that is lower Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft approaching to land
  4. The aircraft with the higher speed

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching to land, the lower aircraft has the right-of-way, provided it is not overtaking the other or flying a longer final approach. This rule helps ensure separation and reduces collision risk in the traffic pattern.

Question 28Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the minimum altitude for VFR flight over a non-built-up area, except when taking off or landing?

  1. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within 2,000 feet
  2. 500 feet AGL Correct answer.
  3. 2,000 feet AGL
  4. 1,000 feet AGL

Explanation

CARs require a minimum altitude of 500 feet above ground level for VFR flight over non-built-up areas, except where a lower altitude is necessary for takeoff or landing. Over built-up areas or assemblies of persons, the minimum is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot radius.

Question 29Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

When may a pilot deviate from a rule of the Air Regulations?

  1. When flying under VFR in uncontrolled airspace
  2. Only when authorized by air traffic control
  3. When the pilot believes it is necessary for safety
  4. When the deviation is necessary to avoid an immediate hazard and the pilot reports it afterward Correct answer.

Explanation

A pilot may deviate from a regulation only when it is necessary to avoid an immediate hazard, and the pilot must report the deviation to the appropriate authority as soon as possible. This provision allows flexibility in emergency situations while maintaining accountability.

Question 30Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the validity period of a Class 3 medical certificate for a pilot who is 40 years of age or older?

  1. 36 months
  2. 6 months
  3. 12 months Correct answer.
  4. 24 months

Explanation

For a Class 3 medical certificate, the validity period is 12 months for pilots aged 40 and over, and 24 months for those under 40. The certificate expires at the end of the month in which the validity period ends.

Question 31Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

Which document must be carried on board an aircraft and produced on request by an authorized person?

  1. The certificate of airworthiness Correct answer.
  2. The pilot's personal logbook
  3. The aircraft maintenance records
  4. The aircraft journey log

Explanation

The certificate of airworthiness must be carried on board the aircraft at all times and produced on request by an authorized person. Other documents such as the journey log and maintenance records are not required to be carried on board.

Question 32Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What action should a pilot take if a radio communication failure occurs in VFR conditions while in controlled airspace?

  1. Squawk 7600 and continue to the destination while maintaining VFR Correct answer.
  2. Continue VFR, remain clear of clouds, and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
  3. Climb to the minimum IFR altitude and proceed as cleared
  4. Circle the aerodrome and wait for light signals

Explanation

In the event of a two-way radio failure in VFR conditions, the pilot should squawk 7600 and continue the flight under VFR to the destination, complying with all applicable rules. This allows the pilot to proceed safely while alerting ATC to the communication failure.

Question 33Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the minimum visibility required for VFR flight in Class D airspace at an aerodrome?

  1. 5 statute miles
  2. 3 statute miles Correct answer.
  3. 1 statute mile
  4. 2 statute miles

Explanation

In Class D airspace, the minimum flight visibility for VFR is 3 statute miles. This requirement ensures adequate see-and-avoid capability in controlled airspace around aerodromes.

Question 34Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What cloud clearance is required for VFR flight in Class C airspace?

  1. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 mile horizontally
  2. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 mile horizontally Correct answer.
  3. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2 miles horizontally
  4. 1,000 feet below, 2,000 feet above, and 2 miles horizontally

Explanation

VFR flight in Class C airspace requires cloud clearance of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds. These minima provide adequate separation from cloud and other aircraft.

Question 35Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the primary purpose of a control zone?

  1. To provide a buffer between controlled and uncontrolled airspace
  2. To designate areas where IFR flight is prohibited
  3. To protect air traffic in the vicinity of an aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. To separate VFR traffic from military operations

Explanation

A control zone is established to protect air traffic in the vicinity of an aerodrome, typically extending from the surface to a specified altitude. It provides controlled airspace around aerodromes to ensure the safe flow of arriving and departing traffic.

Question 36Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the minimum fuel required for a VFR flight in a piston-engine aircraft?

  1. Fuel to destination plus 45 minutes at cruise Correct answer.
  2. Fuel to destination plus 30 minutes at cruise
  3. Fuel to destination plus 60 minutes at cruise
  4. Fuel to destination plus 20 minutes at cruise

Explanation

For VFR flight in a piston-engine aircraft, the minimum fuel required is enough to fly to the destination and then for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed. This reserve allows for unforeseen delays or deviations.

Question 37Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the minimum altitude for IFR flight in mountainous terrain?

  1. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 miles
  2. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 10 miles
  3. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 miles Correct answer.
  4. 1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within 10 miles

Explanation

In mountainous terrain, the minimum IFR altitude is 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 miles from the intended track. This provides adequate terrain clearance in areas of rapidly rising terrain.

Question 38Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

An aircraft is on a collision course with another aircraft and both are in radar contact with ATC. What should the pilot do if a TCAS resolution advisory is issued?

  1. Follow the RA only if ATC approves
  2. Request clarification from ATC before responding
  3. Maintain the current flight path and await further ATC instructions
  4. Follow the RA immediately, even if it conflicts with an ATC instruction Correct answer.

Explanation

When a TCAS resolution advisory is issued, the pilot must respond immediately and maneuver as directed, even if it conflicts with an ATC clearance. The pilot should notify ATC as soon as practical after responding to the RA.

Question 39Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the required action when an aircraft is being overtaken?

  1. The overtaken aircraft must descend to allow passage
  2. The overtaken aircraft must maintain its course and speed Correct answer.
  3. The overtaken aircraft must change course to the right
  4. The overtaken aircraft must yield to the overtaking aircraft

Explanation

The aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way and must maintain its course and speed. The overtaking aircraft is responsible for avoiding the other aircraft by altering its course to the right.

Question 40Air Law, Regulations and Procedures

What is the purpose of the transition altitude in Canadian airspace?

  1. To specify the minimum altitude for VFR flight over built-up areas
  2. To indicate where pilots must change from altimeter setting to standard pressure Correct answer.
  3. To define the boundary between controlled and uncontrolled airspace
  4. To mark the altitude above which IFR flight is required

Explanation

The transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the altimeter is set to the local altimeter setting and above which the standard pressure setting of 29.92 inches of mercury is used. This ensures all aircraft at high altitudes use a common reference.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

In a semi-monocoque aircraft fuselage, what is the primary function of the stringers?

  1. To form the pressure bulkheads at each end
  2. To carry the main bending loads along the fuselage length
  3. To provide attachment points for the engine mounts
  4. To stiffen the skin and transfer loads to the frames Correct answer.

Explanation

Stringers run lengthwise and stiffen the skin against buckling while transferring loads into the frames and skin. The skin and frames carry the primary structural loads in a semi-monocoque design.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

Which structural component of a wing carries the torsional (twisting) loads?

  1. The trailing edge flaps
  2. The wing skin and spar webs Correct answer.
  3. The leading edge
  4. The spar caps

Explanation

The skin and the spar webs together form a closed torsion box that resists twisting. Spar caps carry bending, not torsion.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

What is the purpose of a wing's dihedral angle?

  1. To provide lateral stability in a sideslip Correct answer.
  2. To reduce the induced drag at high speed
  3. To increase the critical Mach number of the wing
  4. To improve the pilot's forward visibility

Explanation

Dihedral gives a restoring rolling moment when the aircraft sideslips, producing lateral (roll) stability. It does not primarily affect Mach number or high-speed drag.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

In a four-stroke reciprocating engine, during which stroke is the intake valve open?

  1. Exhaust stroke
  2. Power stroke
  3. Compression stroke
  4. Induction stroke Correct answer.

Explanation

The intake (induction) stroke draws the fuel-air mixture into the cylinder with the intake valve open. The valve closes before compression begins.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

What is the function of the magneto in a piston engine ignition system?

  1. To advance the camshaft timing with engine speed
  2. To regulate the fuel-air mixture entering the cylinders
  3. To generate a high-voltage pulse for the spark plugs without an external power source Correct answer.
  4. To convert AC from the alternator into DC for the battery

Explanation

A magneto is a self-contained generator that produces the high voltage needed to fire the spark plugs independently of the aircraft battery. This independence makes it a reliable ignition source.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

An aircraft is fitted with a constant-speed propeller. What does the propeller governor primarily control?

  1. The blade pitch to maintain a selected RPM Correct answer.
  2. The manifold pressure at full throttle
  3. The oil temperature in the engine
  4. The fuel flow to the engine

Explanation

The governor senses engine RPM and adjusts blade pitch (via oil pressure) to hold the selected RPM as load or airspeed changes. It does not directly control fuel or manifold pressure.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

What is the primary purpose of the hydraulic system accumulator?

  1. To cool the hydraulic fluid during heavy use
  2. To measure the flow rate to each actuator
  3. To filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid
  4. To store pressurised fluid and damp pressure surges Correct answer.

Explanation

An accumulator stores hydraulic energy under pressure, smoothing pump pulsations and providing a reserve for peak demands. It is not a filter, cooler, or flow meter.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a bleed-air system on a turbine-powered aircraft?

  1. To supply compressed air for cabin pressurisation and anti-icing Correct answer.
  2. To drain fuel from the wing tanks during descent
  3. To cool the engine oil after shutdown
  4. To provide hydraulic pressure for the landing gear

Explanation

Bleed air is tapped from the compressor and used for cabin pressurisation, air conditioning, and thermal anti-icing. It is not used for fuel drainage or hydraulic supply.

Question 49Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

What is the effect of increasing the compression ratio of a reciprocating engine on its thermal efficiency?

  1. It increases thermal efficiency Correct answer.
  2. It has no measurable effect on thermal efficiency
  3. It reduces the octane requirement of the fuel
  4. It decreases thermal efficiency

Explanation

Higher compression ratio raises the theoretical thermal efficiency of the Otto cycle, extracting more work from the same heat input. It also increases the fuel's octane requirement.

Question 50Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframes, Engines and Systems

A turbocharger is fitted to a piston engine. What drives the compressor?

  1. Exhaust gas passing through a turbine Correct answer.
  2. A belt driven from the accessory gearbox
  3. An electric motor powered by the battery
  4. A gear train from the crankshaft

Explanation

In a turbocharger, exhaust gas spins a turbine that is connected by a shaft to the compressor, which pressurises the intake air. This recovers otherwise wasted exhaust energy.