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Kuwait DGCA ATPL Theory study materials
Kuwait DGCA ATPL Theory study resources

Kuwait DGCA ATPL Theory practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under the Kuwait DGCA regulations, an aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport must carry which of the following documents on board?

  1. Only the certificate of airworthiness and the load sheet
  2. The certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness and the appropriate licences of the crew Correct answer.
  3. Only the operations manual and the maintenance log
  4. Only the journey log and the insurance certificate

Explanation

Aircraft engaged in international navigation must carry the certificate of registration, the certificate of airworthiness, the crew licences and the journey log book, in accordance with Annex 6 and the associated Kuwait DGCA implementing regulations. The load sheet and operations manual are operational documents but do not replace the mandatory certificates of registration and airworthiness.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

For a flight under IFR in controlled airspace, the minimum vertical separation applied between aircraft at or below FL 290 is:

  1. 1000 ft Correct answer.
  2. 2000 ft
  3. 500 ft
  4. 4000 ft

Explanation

The standard minimum vertical separation between aircraft in controlled airspace at or below FL 290 is 1000 ft. Above FL 290, a 2000 ft separation standard applies unless reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) approval and airspace status permit 1000 ft.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on an IFR flight plan in controlled airspace loses two-way radio communication. Which action is consistent with the standard lost-communication procedure?

  1. Turn back to the departure aerodrome without notifying ATC
  2. Continue according to the last acknowledged clearance, then follow the published lost-communication procedure for the route Correct answer.
  3. Squawk 7700 and maintain the present heading indefinitely
  4. Descend immediately to the lowest safe altitude and circle overhead the last reported position

Explanation

When radio communication is lost in IMC or in airspace where IFR applies, the aircraft should continue in accordance with the last acknowledged clearance or the route/altitude specified in the flight plan, and then comply with the published lost-communication procedure. This includes maintaining the last assigned speed and level for a specified period, then following the filed route and expected approach times.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

The transition level is defined as:

  1. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude Correct answer.
  2. The highest altitude at which the altimeter is set to QFE
  3. The altitude at which the altimeter is set to QNH
  4. The level at which the vertical separation minimum changes from 1000 to 2000 ft

Explanation

The transition level is the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude. It is determined by the appropriate ATS authority and published so that at least the required minimum terrain clearance exists between the transition altitude and the transition level.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is cleared to descend from FL 310 to FL 150. In RVSM airspace, the flight crew must:

  1. Obtain a new RVSM clearance before leaving FL 290
  2. Confirm that both altimeters are within the required tolerance before entering the RVSM band Correct answer.
  3. Advise ATC of the rate of descent at each 1000 ft
  4. Switch from standard pressure to QNH at FL 290

Explanation

Before operating in RVSM airspace, the crew must verify that the aircraft is RVSM approved and that the altimetry systems are within the specified tolerances, including comparing primary and standby altimeters. The clearance itself already authorises the flight through RVSM levels.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a standard instrument departure (SID) procedure?

  1. To specify the approach minima at the destination aerodrome
  2. To define the holding pattern used when approaching the destination
  3. To allow the pilot to choose any heading after take-off as long as terrain is avoided
  4. To provide obstacle clearance and a defined route from the aerodrome to a point where the en-route phase begins Correct answer.

Explanation

A SID provides a published route and obstacle clearance from the departure aerodrome to a defined point where the en-route or approach phase can begin. It also facilitates ATC by standardising departure paths and reducing the need for individual radar vectors.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot receives the clearance "Kuwait Tower, line up and wait runway 33L". This clearance authorises the aircraft to:

  1. Backtrack the runway and vacate at the next exit
  2. Enter the runway and begin the take-off roll
  3. Cross the runway and continue taxiing
  4. Enter the runway and hold in position without taking off Correct answer.

Explanation

The instruction "line up and wait" authorises the aircraft to enter the runway and take up position, but not to begin the take-off roll. A separate take-off clearance is required before the aircraft may start its take-off run.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on approach is instructed to "descend to 2000 ft, cleared ILS approach runway 15R". Which statement is correct?

  1. The clearance cancels the requirement to comply with the published approach procedure
  2. The pilot may descend to the decision altitude without further reference to the chart
  3. The pilot must not descend below 2000 ft until established on the approach and may then follow the published descent profile Correct answer.
  4. The pilot may descend below 2000 ft immediately after intercepting the localiser

Explanation

The clearance combines a level restriction with an approach clearance; the aircraft must maintain 2000 ft until established on the approach, then follow the published descent profile. The published procedure, including any intermediate altitude constraints, remains applicable.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

In the event of an unlawful interference with an aircraft in flight, the pilot-in-command should:

  1. Turn off all radio equipment to avoid interference
  2. Set the transponder to 7700 and descend to the nearest aerodrome
  3. Set the transponder to 7500 and, if able, advise ATC Correct answer.
  4. Set the transponder to 7600 and continue the flight plan

Explanation

The special SSR code 7500 is used to indicate unlawful interference, and the crew should attempt to advise ATC of the situation if able. Standard operating procedures for hijack also involve following ATC instructions unless doing so would endanger the aircraft.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following conditions must be met before an aircraft may be dispatched under ETOPS?

  1. The aircraft must be dispatched only over land routes
  2. The aircraft must be type-certificated and maintained to the ETOPS approval standard, and the crew must be trained for ETOPS operations Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must carry a flight engineer on all sectors
  4. The aircraft must have at least three engines

Explanation

ETOPS operations require specific aircraft type design approval, maintenance programmes and crew training, together with an adequate en-route alternate aerodrome within the approved diversion time. The number of engines is not the criterion; twin-engine aircraft are commonly approved for ETOPS.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

The minimum fuel required for a flight under IFR must include, in addition to trip fuel, which of the following?

  1. Only final reserve fuel and holding fuel
  2. Contingency fuel, alternate fuel, final reserve fuel and, where applicable, additional fuel Correct answer.
  3. Only contingency fuel and taxi fuel
  4. Only alternate fuel and final reserve fuel

Explanation

The fuel plan must include taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel, alternate fuel if an alternate is required, final reserve fuel and any additional fuel required by the operator or by the specific conditions of the flight. This ensures adequate reserves for foreseeable contingencies.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is flying at FL 350 in RVSM airspace when the autopilot fails. The crew should:

  1. Continue at FL 350 without notifying ATC as long as the aircraft remains within 300 ft
  2. Descend immediately to FL 290 without a clearance
  3. Increase speed to maintain the level manually
  4. Notify ATC and, if unable to maintain the assigned level accurately, request a change of level Correct answer.

Explanation

If the aircraft cannot maintain the assigned level within the required tolerance in RVSM airspace, the crew must notify ATC so that separation can be adjusted. ATC may then issue a revised clearance or apply increased separation.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which statement about the use of the word "cleared" in an ATC clearance is correct?

  1. It authorises the pilot to deviate from the published procedure
  2. It cancels all previous instructions
  3. It means the pilot may disregard other traffic
  4. It indicates that the aircraft is authorised to proceed under the conditions specified in the clearance Correct answer.

Explanation

The word "cleared" indicates authorisation to proceed under the conditions stated in the clearance. It does not relieve the pilot of the responsibility to see and avoid other traffic or to comply with published procedures.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is instructed to hold at a VOR/DME fix on the 090 radial, right-hand pattern, at FL 150. The inbound leg is to be flown:

  1. On the 090 radial away from the VOR
  2. On the 090 radial towards the VOR
  3. On the 270 radial towards the VOR Correct answer.
  4. On the 180 radial towards the VOR

Explanation

For a hold based on the 090 radial, the aircraft holds on the 090 radial and the inbound leg is flown on the reciprocal 270 radial towards the holding fix. The right-hand pattern determines the direction of the turns.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

A controlled flight is about to enter airspace where a clearance is required. The pilot should request the clearance:

  1. Only when requested by the destination aerodrome
  2. After entering the airspace, to avoid delaying other traffic
  3. Only if the airspace is Class A
  4. Before entering the airspace, with sufficient time to receive and comply with it Correct answer.

Explanation

A clearance must be obtained before entering controlled airspace where one is required, with sufficient time to receive and comply with it. Entering without a clearance is a serious infringement of air traffic rules.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

During a radar approach, the controller issues a heading and descent instruction. The pilot's responsibility includes:

  1. Following the instructions without monitoring the aircraft's position
  2. Monitoring the flight path and informing ATC if the position or altitude appears unsafe Correct answer.
  3. Disregarding the published minimum safe altitude
  4. Assuming the controller has terrain clearance responsibility in all cases

Explanation

Although ATC provides radar vectors and altitude instructions, the pilot remains responsible for the safe conduct of the flight and must monitor the flight path. If the aircraft appears to be in an unsafe position or altitude, the pilot must advise ATC and take corrective action.

Question 17Air Law and ATC Procedures

The definition of "night" for the purpose of Kuwait DGCA flight rules is:

  1. Any period when the sun is more than 12 degrees below the horizon
  2. The period between 1800 and 0600 local time
  3. The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight Correct answer.
  4. The period between sunset and sunrise

Explanation

Night is generally defined as the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority. This definition is used for the application of night flight rules and licensing requirements.

Question 18Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft experiencing a communications failure in VMC may:

  1. Enter controlled airspace without a clearance
  2. Ignore all light signals from ATC
  3. Continue to fly in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. Descend through cloud to maintain the flight plan

Explanation

An aircraft with a communications failure may continue the flight in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, reporting its arrival to the appropriate ATS unit. This is one of the options available under the standard communications failure procedures.

Question 19Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following is a requirement for the issue of an Air Operator Certificate by the Kuwait DGCA?

  1. The operator must employ a minimum of 100 pilots
  2. The operator must demonstrate an adequate organisation, a safety management system and sufficient financial resources Correct answer.
  3. The operator must operate only international routes
  4. The operator must own at least five aircraft

Explanation

An Air Operator Certificate is issued when the operator demonstrates an adequate organisation and management structure, a functioning safety management system, suitable aircraft and facilities, and sufficient financial resources to conduct the proposed operations safely.

Question 20Air Law and ATC Procedures

The purpose of the Minimum Safe Altitude Warning (MSAW) function in an ATC system is to:

  1. Replace the pilot's responsibility for terrain avoidance
  2. Provide the pilot with a terrain clearance guarantee
  3. Warn the pilot of traffic at the same level
  4. Alert the controller when a tracked aircraft is predicted to descend below a defined minimum safe altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

MSAW alerts the controller when an aircraft's tracked position and predicted path indicate a risk of descending below the defined minimum safe altitude. It is a controller aid and does not transfer terrain clearance responsibility from the pilot.

Question 21Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In a gas turbine engine, which component extracts energy from the exhaust gas to drive the compressor?

  1. The diffuser
  2. The nozzle guide vanes
  3. The turbine Correct answer.
  4. The combustion chamber

Explanation

The turbine converts the pressure and kinetic energy of the combustion gases into shaft work, which is used to rotate the compressor and any accessory drives. The diffuser slows air to raise static pressure, the combustion chamber adds heat, and the nozzle guide vanes merely direct and accelerate gas onto the turbine blades.

Question 22Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the primary function of the compressor in a turbojet engine?

  1. To convert shaft power into thrust
  2. To ignite the fuel-air mixture
  3. To cool the turbine blades
  4. To raise the pressure of the incoming air before combustion Correct answer.

Explanation

The compressor raises the pressure of the air so that a large quantity of heat can be added in a small volume, improving thermal efficiency. Ignition is performed by igniter plugs, turbine cooling is a separate air system, and thrust is produced by the exhaust nozzle, not the compressor.

Question 23Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the bypass ratio in a turbofan engine?

  1. It measures the pressure ratio across the fan
  2. It defines the ratio of fuel flow to air flow in the combustor
  3. It gives the ratio of turbine work to compressor work
  4. It compares the mass flow of air bypassing the core with the mass flow through the core Correct answer.

Explanation

Bypass ratio is the mass of air passing through the bypass duct divided by the mass flowing through the engine core. A high bypass ratio improves propulsive efficiency and reduces specific fuel consumption at typical cruise speeds.

Question 24Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

An aircraft hydraulic system uses a constant-pressure variable-displacement pump. When system demand falls to near zero, what happens to the pump?

  1. It bypasses all fluid through the case drain
  2. It increases displacement to build more pressure
  3. It reduces its displacement to near zero while maintaining system pressure Correct answer.
  4. It stops rotating entirely

Explanation

A variable-displacement pump adjusts the swashplate angle to reduce stroke, so delivery falls to near zero while the pressure regulator maintains system pressure. The pump continues to rotate because it is driven by the engine or an electric motor.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In a typical transport aircraft hydraulic system, what is the purpose of a hydraulic fuse?

  1. To filter contamination from the fluid
  2. To smooth pressure pulsations from the pump
  3. To shut off flow in the event of a major downstream leak Correct answer.
  4. To limit the maximum system pressure

Explanation

A hydraulic fuse senses abnormal flow, such as from a ruptured line, and closes to isolate the affected branch and preserve the remaining system. Pressure limitation is handled by relief valves or pressure regulators, and filtration by filters.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator in an aircraft system?

  1. To separate water from the hydraulic fluid
  2. To store pressurised fluid and damp pressure surges Correct answer.
  3. To increase the displacement of the pump
  4. To cool the hydraulic fluid during cruise

Explanation

An accumulator contains a gas charge separated from the fluid by a diaphragm or piston, storing energy to damp pressure pulses and supply short-term flow for peak demands. It does not change pump displacement or act as a cooler.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In a pneumatic (air) system used for engine starting, how is the starter motor driven?

  1. By bleed air driving a reciprocating piston directly
  2. By electrical power from the battery
  3. By hydraulic pressure from the main system
  4. By compressed air impinging on a turbine wheel Correct answer.

Explanation

An air turbine starter uses compressed air, usually from an APU or ground cart, to spin a turbine wheel connected through gearing to the engine. The expanding air converts pressure energy into shaft work to rotate the engine to starting speed.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Which statement correctly describes the function of the air conditioning packs in a transport aircraft?

  1. They pressurise the hydraulic reservoir
  2. They supply oxygen to the passengers
  3. They condition bleed air to the correct temperature and pressure for the cabin Correct answer.
  4. They cool the engine oil during descent

Explanation

Air conditioning packs receive hot bleed air and pass it through heat exchangers and a cooling turbine to produce air at the required temperature and pressure for cabin supply. Passenger oxygen is provided by a separate oxygen system, and engine oil cooling is handled by fuel-oil or air-oil coolers.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the purpose of the outflow valve in a cabin pressurisation system?

  1. To regulate the rate at which cabin air leaves, thereby controlling cabin pressure Correct answer.
  2. To distribute conditioned air along the cabin ceiling
  3. To admit fresh bleed air into the cabin
  4. To relieve overpressure only during a rapid decompression

Explanation

The outflow valve modulates the escape of cabin air overboard so that the pressure controller can maintain the selected cabin altitude and rate of climb or descent. Inflow is provided by the air conditioning packs, and overpressure protection is a separate safety valve function.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Which of the following is the main structural function of a wing spar?

  1. To house the fuel tanks only
  2. To provide the aerodynamic aerofoil shape
  3. To attach the flaps to the trailing edge
  4. To carry bending loads from the wing to the fuselage Correct answer.

Explanation

Spars are the primary load-carrying members of the wing, resisting bending and shear and transferring loads to the fuselage attachments. The aerofoil shape is formed by ribs and skin, and fuel storage and flap attachment are secondary arrangements.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Why are semi-monocoque fuselage structures commonly used in modern transport aircraft?

  1. They eliminate the need for frames and bulkheads
  2. They are cheaper to certify than truss structures
  3. They allow the skin to carry no load at all
  4. The skin and stringers share the loads, giving a favourable strength-to-weight ratio Correct answer.

Explanation

In semi-monocoque construction, longitudinal stringers and frames stabilise the skin, which carries much of the shear and tension load. This distributes loads efficiently and produces a light, stiff structure compared with pure monocoque or truss designs.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the function of a wing rib in an aircraft wing structure?

  1. To maintain the aerofoil shape and support the skin between spars Correct answer.
  2. To provide the pivot for the landing gear
  3. To transfer engine thrust to the wing
  4. To carry the main bending loads to the fuselage

Explanation

Ribs give the wing its chordwise shape, support the skin panels and stringers, and distribute loads to the spars. Bending loads are carried primarily by the spars, and engine thrust is transmitted through the engine mount and nacelle structure.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In a landing gear shock strut, what is the function of the metering orifice?

  1. It locks the gear in the down position
  2. It controls the rate of hydraulic fluid flow to damp compression and extension Correct answer.
  3. It provides the main load path to the airframe
  4. It seals the strut against nitrogen leakage

Explanation

The metering orifice restricts fluid flow between the two chambers so that the strut absorbs landing energy without excessive travel and damps rebound. Sealing is provided by packings and seals, and down-locking is achieved by separate locking mechanisms.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the purpose of an anti-skid system on aircraft brakes?

  1. To prevent wheel lock and maintain directional control during braking Correct answer.
  2. To cool the brake discs during taxi
  3. To increase brake pressure beyond the normal maximum
  4. To retract the landing gear after takeoff

Explanation

An anti-skid system senses wheel deceleration or slip and momentarily releases brake pressure to prevent a locked wheel, preserving friction and steering control. It does not increase maximum brake pressure, retract the gear, or provide cooling.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Which type of brake construction is typical of large transport aircraft main wheels?

  1. Cable-operated band brakes
  2. Multiple-disc carbon brakes Correct answer.
  3. Drum brakes with internal shoes
  4. Single-disc steel brakes

Explanation

Large transport aircraft commonly use multiple-disc carbon brakes because carbon withstands high temperatures and gives a good strength-to-weight ratio. Drum and band brakes are unsuitable for the energy levels involved in rejected takeoffs.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In an aircraft electrical system, what is the function of a bus tie contactor?

  1. To regulate generator voltage to a constant value
  2. To connect or isolate the main DC buses so that power can be shared or isolated Correct answer.
  3. To protect the battery from overcharge
  4. To convert AC power to DC power

Explanation

Bus tie contactors link or separate the distribution buses, allowing one generator to supply both sides or isolating a faulty bus. AC-to-DC conversion is performed by transformer-rectifier units, and voltage regulation by the generator control unit.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the purpose of a transformer-rectifier unit (TRU) in an aircraft electrical system?

  1. To step up generator frequency
  2. To provide emergency battery power
  3. To convert DC into AC for the AC bus
  4. To convert AC into DC for the DC distribution bus Correct answer.

Explanation

A TRU transforms the AC supply to a lower voltage and rectifies it to DC, feeding the DC buses when the main DC source is unavailable. Inverters perform the reverse conversion, and batteries provide emergency DC power.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the function of a generator control unit (GCU) in an aircraft electrical system?

  1. To regulate generator output and protect the system by controlling field excitation and contactors Correct answer.
  2. To drive the generator through the accessory gearbox
  3. To distribute AC power to the cabin outlets
  4. To convert AC to DC for the battery bus

Explanation

The GCU regulates generator voltage by controlling field excitation and protects the system by tripping the generator contactor under fault conditions such as overvoltage or overfrequency. It does not perform conversion or mechanical drive functions.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the primary purpose of the ignition system in a gas turbine engine?

  1. To maintain continuous combustion throughout the flight
  2. To preheat the fuel before it enters the combustor
  3. To ignite the afterburner only
  4. To provide a high-energy spark for starting and, in some engines, for relight and anti-icing Correct answer.

Explanation

The ignition system supplies a high-voltage spark to ignite the fuel-air mixture during start, and on many engines it also provides relight capability and continuous ignition in adverse weather. Once combustion is self-sustaining, the flame is maintained without continuous sparking on most engines.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In a fuel system, what is the purpose of a fuel-oil heat exchanger?

  1. To separate water from the fuel
  2. To warm the fuel and cool the engine oil simultaneously Correct answer.
  3. To cool the fuel before it reaches the injectors
  4. To boost fuel pressure to the engine

Explanation

A fuel-oil heat exchanger transfers heat from the hot engine oil to the colder fuel, preventing fuel waxing at high altitude while cooling the oil. It does not separate water or act as a fuel boost pump.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

Which of the following describes the function of a fuel boost pump in a transport aircraft fuel system?

  1. To supply fuel at positive pressure to the engine-driven pump and prevent vapour lock Correct answer.
  2. To filter contaminants from the fuel
  3. To meter fuel flow precisely to the combustion chamber
  4. To transfer fuel between tanks only during refuelling

Explanation

Boost pumps deliver fuel under pressure from the tanks to the engine feed line, suppressing cavitation and vapour lock at high altitude. Metering is carried out by the fuel control unit, and filtration by the fuel filter.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

What is the purpose of a fire detection loop in an engine fire protection system?

  1. To ventilate the engine nacelle
  2. To discharge extinguishing agent automatically
  3. To sense a temperature rise or fire condition and trigger a warning in the cockpit Correct answer.
  4. To shut down the engine automatically without crew action

Explanation

Fire detection loops sense overheat or fire and provide a warning to the crew, who then decide on the appropriate action. Extinguishing agent discharge is normally initiated by the crew through the fire handle, and ventilation is a separate function.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

In a transport aircraft, how is the APU typically started?

  1. By a hydraulic motor driven from the green system
  2. By an electric starter motor powered by the aircraft battery or DC bus Correct answer.
  3. By a cartridge starter using explosive charges
  4. By bleed air from the main engines

Explanation

APUs are usually started by an electric starter motor drawing power from the aircraft battery or DC bus, since main engine bleed air is unavailable before engine start. Once running, the APU supplies bleed air and electrical power to the aircraft.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems and Powerplant

During a rejected takeoff, why must the crew avoid retarding the thrust levers below idle before the aircraft has slowed significantly?

  1. The brakes will overheat immediately
  2. Reverse thrust may be unavailable or ineffective at high speed and can cause directional control problems Correct answer.
  3. The landing gear may retract unintentionally
  4. The engines may flame out permanently

Explanation

At high speed, selecting reverse thrust can produce asymmetric thrust and directional control difficulty, and reversers may not deploy until the aircraft has slowed. Crews normally retard to idle, apply maximum braking, and select reverse only when appropriate.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

In a light aircraft, the pitot-static system supplies total pressure to the airspeed indicator and static pressure to the airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. Which statement correctly describes the effect of a blocked pitot tube (static line clear) while climbing?

  1. The airspeed indicator behaves like an altimeter, showing an increasing speed as the aircraft climbs Correct answer.
  2. The airspeed indicator under-reads because total pressure is trapped at the lower value
  3. The vertical speed indicator freezes at its last indication
  4. The airspeed indicator reads a constant speed regardless of any change of altitude or power

Explanation

With the pitot tube blocked, the trapped total pressure stays constant while the static pressure falls in the climb. The pressure difference across the capsule therefore grows, and the ASI indicates a steadily increasing speed, effectively acting as an altimeter. The VSI and altimeter remain connected to the static source and continue to work normally.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

An aircraft climbs at a constant calibrated airspeed. What happens to the true airspeed and to the Mach number as altitude increases?

  1. TAS increases and Mach number increases Correct answer.
  2. TAS increases and Mach number decreases
  3. TAS remains constant and Mach number increases
  4. TAS decreases and Mach number remains constant

Explanation

True airspeed rises with altitude for a given CAS because the air density falls, so the same dynamic pressure corresponds to a higher true speed. The speed of sound also falls as temperature drops, so the ratio of TAS to local speed of sound, the Mach number, increases as well.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

Which instrument uses the gyroscopic property of rigidity in space to provide a direct indication of aircraft heading?

  1. The attitude indicator
  2. The magnetic compass
  3. The directional gyro Correct answer.
  4. The turn coordinator

Explanation

The directional gyro is a free gyro whose spin axis is held horizontally and aligned with a reference heading, so rigidity in space gives a stable heading display. It must be synchronised periodically with the magnetic compass because of apparent drift. The turn coordinator and attitude indicator use gyros for rate and attitude respectively, not heading.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

In a turn, the attitude indicator of a conventional artificial horizon shows a false indication if the turn is prolonged. What is the usual cause of this error?

  1. Blockage of the static line feeding the instrument
  2. Magnetic variation acting on the gyro spin axis
  3. Real precession of the gyro caused by unbalance and bearing friction during the turn Correct answer.
  4. Failure of the instrument's internal lighting

Explanation

During a sustained turn, small mechanical imperfections such as rotor unbalance and bearing friction cause the gyro to precess for real, tilting the horizon bar away from the true attitude. The error appears as a false climb or descent indication during the turn and slowly erodes afterwards. It is a mechanical limitation, not an erection-system fault.

Question 49Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

A turn indicator shows a rate of turn of 3 degrees per second. What does this correspond to, and what is the required bank angle at a true airspeed of 120 knots?

  1. Rate one turn; approximately 30 degrees of bank Correct answer.
  2. Rate two turn; approximately 45 degrees of bank
  3. Rate half turn; approximately 15 degrees of bank
  4. Rate one turn; approximately 15 degrees of bank

Explanation

A rate of 3 degrees per second completes 360 degrees in 120 seconds, which is a rate one turn. The bank angle needed follows from the standard formula, and at 120 knots a rate one turn requires about 30 degrees of bank. The angle increases with airspeed, so the same rate at higher speed needs more bank.

Question 50Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation

What is the primary purpose of the flux valve in a remote-indicating magnetic compass system?

  1. To measure the rate of turn for the flight director
  2. To sense the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field and send signals to the indicator Correct answer.
  3. To provide the static pressure reference for the heading indicator
  4. To supply a stable heading reference independent of the Earth's magnetic field

Explanation

The flux valve, or flux gate, detects the direction of the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field and transmits electrical signals to the heading indicator or compass card. This allows a stable display that is slaved to magnetic north. It is not a free gyro and does not measure turn rate.