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MCAA CPL Theory Exam study materials
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MCAA CPL Theory Exam practice questions

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Question 1Air Law

Under the MCAR, which document must a pilot be able to produce for inspection by an authorised officer before or during a flight in a New Zealand-registered aircraft?

  1. The operator's insurance policy
  2. The aircraft maintenance programme
  3. The aircraft type certificate
  4. The pilot licence and current medical certificate Correct answer.

Explanation

MCAR requires the pilot in command to hold and produce, on demand to an authorised person, the pilot licence and the relevant current medical certificate. The maintenance programme and type certificate are aircraft records kept by the operator or owner rather than carried by the pilot.

Question 2Air Law

A pilot holds a current Class 1 medical certificate. For private operations under a CPL, which statement best describes the medical certificate requirement?

  1. No medical certificate is needed if the flight is under 30 minutes
  2. A Class 1 medical certificate satisfies all licence medical requirements Correct answer.
  3. A Class 2 medical certificate must also be held for private flights
  4. The medical certificate must be renewed every six months regardless of class

Explanation

A higher-class medical certificate is accepted in place of a lower one, so a valid Class 1 satisfies the medical requirement for both commercial and private privileges. There is no additional Class 2 requirement, and validity periods depend on age and class rather than a fixed six months for all holders.

Question 3Air Law

In New Zealand airspace, what is the general rule for a VFR flight above 10,000 ft AMSL?

  1. It is not permitted unless specifically authorised Correct answer.
  2. It is permitted only in Class C airspace
  3. It is permitted without restriction in all classes
  4. It requires an ATC clearance in all cases

Explanation

Under the general operating rules, VFR flight above 10,000 ft AMSL is not permitted unless specifically authorised by the Director or by ATC in accordance with the rules. This reflects the reduced ability to see and avoid traffic at higher levels.

Question 4Air Law

An aircraft is operating under IFR in controlled airspace and the pilot loses radio communication. Which action is consistent with the standard lost-communication procedure?

  1. Continue on the last acknowledged route and level, and comply with the applicable lost-communication rules Correct answer.
  2. Squawk 7600 and hold at the current position until intercepted
  3. Descend immediately to the lowest safe altitude and circle
  4. Turn back to the departure aerodrome at best speed

Explanation

The standard procedure is to continue along the route and level last acknowledged or as specified in the applicable rules, while squawking the communication-failure code, so that ATC can predict the aircraft's position. Immediate descent or turning back without reference to the rules creates conflict risk.

Question 5Air Law

What does a steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight signify?

  1. Cleared to land
  2. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Correct answer.
  3. Return to the aerodrome and land
  4. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

Explanation

A steady red light shown to an aircraft in flight means give way to other aircraft and continue circling. A steady red light on the ground means stop, which is a different meaning and should not be confused with the in-flight signal.

Question 6Air Law

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a clearance limit in an ATC clearance?

  1. The maximum altitude the aircraft may climb to
  2. The maximum speed permitted in the control zone
  3. The latest time by which the flight must land
  4. The point to which the aircraft is cleared and beyond which further clearance is required Correct answer.

Explanation

A clearance limit defines the point to which the aircraft is cleared, and the pilot must not proceed beyond it without further clearance. It is a lateral or positional boundary, not an altitude, time, or speed restriction.

Question 7Air Law

An aircraft on final approach receives a flashing red light from the tower. What action should the pilot take?

  1. Do not land; the aerodrome is unsafe Correct answer.
  2. Land after ensuring no collision risk
  3. Give way and continue circling
  4. Continue the approach to land

Explanation

A flashing red light directed at an aircraft on approach means the aerodrome is unsafe and landing is prohibited. The pilot must break off the approach; this differs from a steady red, which requires giving way and circling.

Question 8Air Law

Under the rules of the air, when two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is risk of collision, what should each pilot do?

  1. Both alter heading to the right Correct answer.
  2. The lower aircraft gives way
  3. The faster aircraft gives way
  4. Both climb to increase separation

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so and there is risk of collision, each shall alter heading to the right. This provides a predictable, consistent separation action for both pilots.

Question 9Air Law

Two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, one approaching from the right of the other. Which aircraft has the right of way?

  1. The aircraft at the higher altitude
  2. The aircraft on the right Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft on the left
  4. The aircraft that first calls on the radio

Explanation

In converging traffic, the aircraft that has the other on its right must give way, so the aircraft on the right has the right of way. The give-way aircraft should avoid crossing ahead of the other and should alter heading or altitude as appropriate.

Question 10Air Law

What is the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in a control zone at or below 900 m AMSL in Class C airspace?

  1. 8 km
  2. 3,000 m
  3. 1,500 m
  4. 5 km Correct answer.

Explanation

In controlled airspace at or below 900 m AMSL, VFR flight requires flight visibility of at least 5 km and cloud clearances of 600 m horizontally and 300 m vertically. Lower visibility minima apply only in certain uncontrolled or special VFR situations.

Question 11Air Law

For VFR flight in controlled airspace at or below 900 m AMSL, what cloud clearance must be maintained?

  1. 600 m horizontally and 300 m vertically Correct answer.
  2. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
  3. 1,000 m horizontally and 500 m vertically
  4. 1,500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically

Explanation

The standard controlled-airspace VFR cloud clearance at or below 900 m AMSL is 600 m horizontally and 300 m vertically from cloud. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface applies to lower-level or special VFR conditions rather than this standard.

Question 12Air Law

An aircraft is being overtaken. Which statement correctly describes the overtaking aircraft's obligation?

  1. The overtaking aircraft keeps clear by altering heading to the right Correct answer.
  2. Both aircraft must alter altitude
  3. The overtaking aircraft may pass overhead if separation is assured
  4. The aircraft being overtaken must give way

Explanation

The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way, and the overtaking aircraft must keep clear, normally by altering heading to the right. The aircraft being overtaken is expected to maintain its course and speed.

Question 13Air Law

What does a double white cross displayed in the signal square at an aerodrome indicate?

  1. Runway surface is wet
  2. Gliding operations in progress Correct answer.
  3. Special VFR operations are in force
  4. Aerodrome temporarily closed to all traffic

Explanation

A double white cross in the signal square indicates that gliding operations are in progress and that special precautions are needed. It does not indicate closure, runway condition, or special VFR status.

Question 14Air Law

A red cross displayed in the aerodrome signal square means:

  1. Landing is permitted only on the sealed runway
  2. The wind is gusting above 20 kt
  3. Gliders are operating
  4. The aerodrome is temporarily closed to aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

A red cross in the signal square indicates that the aerodrome is temporarily closed to aircraft. A white cross indicates gliding operations, so the two signals must be distinguished.

Question 15Air Law

Which condition must be met before a pilot may operate under special VFR within a control zone?

  1. The flight must remain above 1,500 ft AGL
  2. An ATC clearance must be obtained and the flight kept clear of cloud with the surface in sight Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must be IFR-equipped and the pilot instrument-rated
  4. The pilot must hold a minimum of 500 hours total time

Explanation

Special VFR allows flight in a control zone when the weather is below normal VFR minima, provided an ATC clearance is obtained and the aircraft remains clear of cloud with the surface in sight. It does not by itself require an instrument rating or a specific hour total.

Question 16Air Law

What is the lowest standard ICAO cruising level for IFR flight on a magnetic track of 270 degrees between 9,000 ft and 17,000 ft?

  1. 9,000 ft
  2. 12,000 ft
  3. 11,000 ft
  4. 10,000 ft Correct answer.

Explanation

Under the standard ICAO semi-circular rule, tracks from 180 to 359 degrees magnetic use even thousands of feet. Both 10,000 ft and 12,000 ft satisfy this direction rule, but 10,000 ft is the lowest eligible level in the stated range.

Question 17Air Law

An aeroplane is on an IFR flight and the pilot is instructed to hold at a VOR. Which statement best describes the standard holding pattern entry for an aircraft approaching with the inbound track on the 090 radial?

  1. Parallel entry, because the aircraft is in the holding side Correct answer.
  2. Teardrop entry, turning outbound at 30 degrees
  3. Direct entry, turning right onto the inbound track
  4. Offset entry, turning outbound at 45 degrees

Explanation

For a standard right-hand holding pattern, an aircraft approaching from the holding side with the outbound track ahead is in the sector that calls for a parallel entry. The parallel entry involves turning onto the outbound heading and then turning back to intercept the inbound track.

Question 18Air Law

A pilot is planning a flight and the destination forecast indicates the weather may fall below the required minima on arrival. Which action is most consistent with the rules for IFR flight planning?

  1. Depart without an alternate because the forecast is only a probability
  2. Carry sufficient fuel to reach an alternate and consider the forecast trend Correct answer.
  3. File a VFR flight plan instead
  4. Depart only if the destination has a precision approach

Explanation

When the destination forecast suggests conditions may be below the required minima, the flight plan should include an alternate and sufficient fuel to reach it. Forecast probability is not a basis for omitting an alternate.

Question 19Air Law

What is the significance of an aircraft being described as 'unlawful interference' under the Convention on International Civil Aviation?

  1. It refers to a flight conducted without a flight plan
  2. It refers to an aircraft operating without a valid certificate of airworthiness
  3. It refers to an act of seizure or interference with an aircraft in flight or on the ground Correct answer.
  4. It refers to an aircraft exceeding its maximum take-off weight

Explanation

Unlawful interference covers acts of seizure or other interference with an aircraft, including hijacking, and triggers specific obligations on states under the Chicago Convention. It is not a term for airworthiness, flight-planning, or weight matters.

Question 20Air Law

Under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, which document must be carried on board an aircraft engaged in international navigation?

  1. The pilot's logbook
  2. The aircraft registration certificate Correct answer.
  3. The operator's maintenance schedule
  4. The company operations manual

Explanation

The Chicago Convention requires that an aircraft engaged in international navigation carry its certificate of registration, along with the certificate of airworthiness and the licences of the crew. Maintenance schedules, logbooks, and operations manuals are not among the documents listed for carriage.

Question 21Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

On a typical transport-category aeroplane, the primary structural role of the wing spar caps is to carry which loads?

  1. Cabin pressurisation loads
  2. Torsional shear between the skins
  3. Bending loads developed in the wing box Correct answer.
  4. Landing loads through the shock strut

Explanation

Spar caps are the thick longitudinal members at the top and bottom of the spar, and their separation gives the wing box its bending stiffness. They resist the tension and compression produced by bending moments, while the skins and webs carry shear. Landing loads and pressurisation loads are handled by other structure.

Question 22Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

A semi-monocoque fuselage derives most of its strength from which arrangement?

  1. A tubular truss of welded steel members
  2. A thin skin stabilised by frames and stringers Correct answer.
  3. Closely spaced bulkheads with no longitudinal members
  4. A single heavy keel beam along the bottom

Explanation

In semi-monocoque construction the skin carries much of the load, and it is stiffened against buckling by longitudinal stringers and transverse frames. This combination gives a high strength-to-weight ratio. Pure truss construction and single-beam layouts are different structural concepts.

Question 23Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

In a hydraulically powered flight control system, what is the function of the servo valve in an actuator?

  1. It limits system pressure by dumping fluid to the reservoir
  2. It filters contaminants from the return line
  3. It meters fluid flow to the actuator in proportion to the control input Correct answer.
  4. It stores hydraulic energy for emergency use

Explanation

The servo valve is the control element that directs and meters hydraulic flow to the actuator, so that actuator movement follows the commanded input. It is a flow-control device rather than a pressure limiter or a filter. Pressure regulation and energy storage are separate functions.

Question 24Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

Aircraft hydraulic systems commonly use a mineral-based fluid such as MIL-PRF-5606 or a phosphate-ester fluid. What is the principal consequence of mixing the two types?

  1. The fluid may become chemically incompatible and the system must be flushed Correct answer.
  2. The mixture will simply thicken and the system can continue in service
  3. The mixture will reduce the system pressure automatically
  4. The mixture will improve the fluid's fire resistance

Explanation

Mineral and phosphate-ester hydraulic fluids have different chemical bases and are not mutually compatible. Mixing them can cause seal damage, deposits or loss of lubricity, so the system must be drained and flushed and the correct fluid identified from the maintenance manual. The other outcomes described are not valid consequences.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the freewheel (sprag) unit in an engine-driven constant-speed AC generator drive?

  1. To step the generator output down for the busbar
  2. To allow the generator to be driven by the engine but not to motor the engine Correct answer.
  3. To regulate the output voltage of the generator
  4. To disconnect the generator at a fixed overfrequency

Explanation

The freewheel or sprag clutch transmits drive from the engine to the generator but slips in the opposite direction, preventing the generator from being driven as a motor if its supply is energised. It is a mechanical one-way coupling. Voltage regulation and frequency protection are electrical functions.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

On a multi-engine aeroplane, what is the purpose of the bus tie contactors in the DC distribution system?

  1. To connect or separate the main distribution buses so sources can be shared or isolated Correct answer.
  2. To protect individual circuits against overcurrent
  3. To convert alternating current into direct current
  4. To charge the battery only during engine start

Explanation

Bus tie contactors link the main buses, allowing one generator to supply both sides when a source fails and allowing isolation when a fault occurs. They are switching devices in the distribution network. Rectification and circuit protection are performed by other components.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

An aircraft battery is rated 24 V, 40 Ah. Approximately how much energy can it nominally deliver?

  1. 9.6 kWh
  2. 0.96 kWh Correct answer.
  3. 96 Wh
  4. 2.4 kWh

Explanation

Energy in watt-hours equals voltage multiplied by ampere-hours, so 24 V times 40 Ah gives 960 Wh, which is 0.96 kWh. This nominal figure ignores derating for temperature and discharge rate. The other values result from arithmetic errors.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

In a gas turbine engine, what is the function of the diffuser immediately downstream of the compressor?

  1. To drive the accessory gearbox
  2. To reduce air velocity and raise static pressure before combustion Correct answer.
  3. To mix fuel with air before ignition
  4. To increase air velocity for thrust production

Explanation

The diffuser converts the high-velocity compressor delivery air into a slower flow at higher static pressure, which is the condition required for stable combustion. It does not add energy to the flow. Fuel mixing and accessory drive occur elsewhere.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

Which statement correctly describes the operation of a turbofan's bypass ratio?

  1. It is the fan pressure ratio divided by the compressor pressure ratio
  2. It is the fuel flow divided by the airflow through the core
  3. It is the mass flow through the bypass duct divided by the mass flow through the core Correct answer.
  4. It is the exhaust velocity divided by the intake velocity

Explanation

Bypass ratio compares the mass of air passing through the bypass duct with the mass passing through the engine core. A high bypass ratio generally improves propulsive efficiency and reduces noise. The other definitions confuse unrelated engine parameters.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

During a normal start of a turboprop engine, the starter is disengaged at what point?

  1. When the propeller reaches 100 percent RPM
  2. When the generator comes online
  3. Immediately after fuel is introduced
  4. When the engine reaches self-sustaining speed and the starter cut-out operates Correct answer.

Explanation

The starter is disengaged once the engine has accelerated to self-sustaining speed, at which point the starter cut-out removes starter torque and the engine continues to accelerate on its own. Disengaging earlier would risk a hung start; disengaging at full RPM is unnecessary.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

What is the primary purpose of the igniter system in a turbine engine during normal operation in flight?

  1. To preheat the combustion chamber before start
  2. To continuously ignite the fuel-air mixture throughout the cruise
  3. To provide re-ignition in the event of a flame-out and for relight within the starting envelope Correct answer.
  4. To ignite the afterburner only

Explanation

Once combustion is established the flame is self-sustaining, so the igniters are normally off in flight. They are used for starting and for relight after a flame-out, often automatically in adverse weather. Continuous ignition is used only in specific conditions.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

A fire in an engine nacelle is detected by which type of sensor most commonly used on transport aeroplanes?

  1. A carbon monoxide detector in the bleed duct
  2. A continuous loop detector that changes resistance with temperature Correct answer.
  3. A pressure switch in the fuel line
  4. A smoke detector in the cabin ceiling

Explanation

Engine fire detection typically uses continuous loop elements that respond to the temperature rise of a fire and trigger the warning system. They are arranged to cover the nacelle zone so that a local fire is detected quickly. Smoke detectors and CO detectors serve other zones.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

Which extinguishing agent is normally used in a fixed fire-extinguishing system for an aircraft engine nacelle?

  1. Halon 1301 Correct answer.
  2. Carbon dioxide stored at ambient pressure
  3. Dry powder
  4. Water

Explanation

Halon 1301 is the standard agent for engine and cargo compartment fixed systems because it interrupts the combustion reaction at low concentration and leaves no residue. Water and dry powder are unsuitable for these installations, and CO2 is used mainly in portable extinguishers.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the anti-icing system on a pitot-static probe?

  1. To cool the probe during high-speed flight
  2. To heat the static port only during descent
  3. To provide a backup source of static pressure
  4. To prevent ice formation that would block the pressure ports and cause erroneous air data Correct answer.

Explanation

Pitot heaters keep the probe above freezing so that ice cannot obstruct the pitot and static ports, which would corrupt the airspeed and altitude indications. The heater operates whenever icing conditions are possible, not only in descent. It does not cool the probe or supply pressure.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

In a pneumatic de-icing system, how is ice removed from the protected surface?

  1. Hot bleed air is continuously supplied to the leading edge
  2. A chemical fluid is sprayed ahead of the surface
  3. Electrically heated mats melt the ice continuously
  4. Inflatable boots periodically expand to crack and shed the ice Correct answer.

Explanation

Pneumatic boots are inflated cyclically, which cracks the accumulated ice and allows the airflow to carry it away. This is a de-icing rather than an anti-icing method, and it is used mainly on turboprop airframes. Bleed air and electrical heating are different systems.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

What does the term 'fail-safe' mean in aircraft structural design?

  1. The structure will never fail under any load
  2. The structure is inspected only after a failure occurs
  3. The structure can sustain damage to a single element without catastrophic failure Correct answer.
  4. The structure is designed to fail at a predictable load

Explanation

Fail-safe design uses redundant load paths so that a crack or failure in one element is carried by others until it is found at inspection. It does not mean the structure is indestructible. The concept differs from safe-life design, where components are retired at a calculated life.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

A landing gear shock strut is serviced with nitrogen and hydraulic fluid. What is the purpose of the nitrogen charge?

  1. To cool the fluid during repeated landings
  2. To act as a spring that absorbs landing energy and returns the strut to extension Correct answer.
  3. To provide hydraulic pressure for the brakes
  4. To lubricate the sliding surfaces of the strut

Explanation

The gas in the upper chamber is compressed as the strut strokes, storing the landing energy and extending the strut afterwards. The hydraulic fluid provides the damping that dissipates the energy. Lubrication and brake pressure are separate functions.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the torque link (scissors) on a nose landing gear strut?

  1. To keep the wheel assembly aligned with the strut while allowing it to move up and down Correct answer.
  2. To lock the gear in the down position
  3. To drive the wheel brake assembly
  4. To absorb the vertical landing loads

Explanation

The torque links connect the inner and outer strut cylinders and prevent relative rotation, so the wheel remains aligned for steering while the strut strokes vertically. They transmit steering and ground reaction torque. They do not absorb vertical loads or lock the gear.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

In a cabin pressurisation system, what does the cabin pressure controller regulate?

  1. The engine bleed pressure entering the air conditioning packs
  2. The temperature of the cabin supply air
  3. The rate of outflow through the outflow valve to hold the selected cabin altitude and rate of change Correct answer.
  4. The oxygen partial pressure delivered to the masks

Explanation

The controller modulates the outflow valve, which sets how quickly cabin air escapes, thereby controlling cabin altitude and the rate of climb or descent of cabin pressure. Supply pressure and temperature are handled by other components. Oxygen partial pressure is a separate physiological matter.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the air conditioning pack's water separator?

  1. To separate fuel from the bleed air
  2. To cool the bleed air by evaporation of water
  3. To add moisture to the cabin air
  4. To remove condensed water from the conditioned air before it enters the cabin Correct answer.

Explanation

As the conditioned air is cooled, water vapour condenses; the water separator removes these droplets so that the cabin is not filled with mist. The removed water may be used to cool the air in some designs, but the separator's primary job is extraction. It does not add moisture.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

A passenger oxygen system uses chemical oxygen generators. What is the main operational limitation of this type of system?

  1. It requires engine bleed air to operate
  2. It cannot supply oxygen above 20,000 feet
  3. It delivers oxygen only through the flight crew masks
  4. Once activated, the generator cannot be switched off and continues to produce oxygen until exhausted Correct answer.

Explanation

Chemical generators produce oxygen by an exothermic reaction that, once started, runs to completion and cannot be shut down. This is why the system is armed and triggered only when needed. It supplies the passenger masks and does not depend on engine bleed.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

During a flight, the left generator fails and the bus tie contactors close. What is the effect on the DC distribution system?

  1. Both buses lose power until the generator is reset
  2. The battery alone supplies both buses indefinitely
  3. The remaining generator supplies both main buses through the closed bus ties Correct answer.
  4. The essential bus is isolated and loses power

Explanation

Closing the bus ties parallels the buses so the serviceable generator feeds the loads of both sides. The battery provides only a short-term standby supply and the essential bus remains fed. This arrangement maintains supply to essential equipment after a single generator failure.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

An engine is fitted with a full-authority digital engine control (FADEC). Which statement best describes its authority?

  1. It only trims the fuel flow set by a hydro-mechanical unit
  2. It schedules fuel and controls engine parameters throughout the operating range with no separate hydro-mechanical backup for normal control Correct answer.
  3. It controls only the ignition system
  4. It acts only as a monitoring system with no control output

Explanation

A FADEC system computes and commands fuel flow and other engine parameters across the whole operating envelope, using redundant channels for integrity. It is not merely a trimming or monitoring device. Some installations retain a limited backup mode, but normal control authority is full.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Power Plant and Emergency Equipment

An aircraft experiences a sudden loss of cabin pressure at high altitude. Which sequence best describes the correct crew response?

  1. Increase cabin altitude rate to equalise pressure
  2. Don oxygen masks, establish communications, then descend to a safe cabin altitude Correct answer.
  3. Continue cruise while troubleshooting the outflow valve
  4. Descend first, then don masks once below 10,000 feet

Explanation

Hypoxia can incapacitate the crew within seconds at high altitude, so oxygen masks must be donned first, followed by establishing communication and initiating an emergency descent. Delaying the masks risks loss of consciousness before any descent can be made. Troubleshooting is secondary to protecting the crew.

Question 45Flight Performance and Planning

During the take-off ground roll, which force acts parallel to the runway and directly opposes the aircraft's forward motion?

  1. Rolling friction Correct answer.
  2. Thrust
  3. Lift
  4. Weight

Explanation

Rolling friction arises from the tyres in contact with the runway and acts backwards along the direction of travel, so it is the force that directly retards acceleration during the ground roll. Lift and weight act mainly perpendicular to the runway, while thrust acts forward.

Question 46Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft rotates at a higher indicated airspeed than the scheduled value on a given runway. What is the effect on the take-off distance required to reach 50 ft?

  1. It decreases because the aircraft climbs more steeply
  2. It decreases because acceleration is greater at higher speed
  3. It is unchanged because the ground roll distance is fixed
  4. It increases because more runway is used before lift-off Correct answer.

Explanation

Rotating at a higher speed means the aircraft continues accelerating along the ground for longer, adding to the ground roll, and the total distance to 50 ft therefore increases. The scheduled speeds are chosen to minimise the combined ground and airborne distance.

Question 47Flight Performance and Planning

In the landing distance calculation, the required landing distance is normally obtained by applying a factor to the landing distance achieved from a screen height of 50 ft. What is the standard factor applied to that achieved distance?

  1. 1.67
  2. 1.15
  3. 1.92
  4. 1.43 Correct answer.

Explanation

The certified landing distance from 50 ft is multiplied by 1.43 to give the required landing distance, which provides margin for pilot technique and runway conditions. The factor 1.15 is associated with the take-off climb or the take-off distance calculation, not the landing distance.

Question 48Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft must clear a 50 ft obstacle at the end of the take-off distance available. Which speed schedule should be used to minimise the total distance to the 50 ft point?

  1. Rotate at the lowest speed at which the aircraft can fly and hold VX Correct answer.
  2. Rotate at V1 and climb at V2
  3. Rotate at V2 and hold VX
  4. Rotate at VR and hold VY

Explanation

The minimum total distance to 50 ft is achieved by rotating at the lowest speed at which the aircraft can safely become airborne and then climbing at VX, the speed for maximum angle of climb. This gives the steepest achievable gradient and clears the obstacle in the shortest horizontal distance.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning

The take-off distance available is 1,800 m and the take-off run available is 1,650 m. The aircraft's scheduled take-off distance to 50 ft is 1,200 m and its take-off run is 1,050 m. Which statement is correct?

  1. The take-off is limited by the clearway length
  2. The take-off is limited by the take-off distance available
  3. Neither limit applies because both margins exceed 30%
  4. The take-off is limited by the take-off run available Correct answer.

Explanation

The take-off distance of 1,200 m uses 66.7% of the 1,800 m take-off distance available, while the take-off run of 1,050 m uses 63.6% of the 1,650 m take-off run available; the critical case is therefore the one with the smaller percentage margin. The required take-off run is 1,050 x 1.15 = 1,208 m, which exceeds the 1,200 m distance case, so the run available is the limiting factor.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning

Which combination of conditions produces the greatest take-off ground roll for a given aircraft mass and airfield?

  1. High pressure altitude, low temperature, headwind, wet runway
  2. High pressure altitude, high temperature, tailwind, dry runway Correct answer.
  3. Low pressure altitude, high temperature, tailwind, wet runway
  4. Low pressure altitude, low temperature, headwind, dry runway

Explanation

High pressure altitude and high temperature both reduce air density, which reduces thrust and lift and lengthens the ground roll, while a tailwind further increases the distance travelled over the ground. A dry runway removes the additional rolling friction of a wet surface but the density and wind effects dominate.