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MI Vet Tech practice questions

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Question 1Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A veterinary technician is asked to calculate a dose of meloxicam for a 12 kg dog at 0.2 mg/kg. The oral suspension is labeled 1.5 mg/mL. What volume should be drawn up?

  1. 1.6 mL Correct answer.
  2. 16 mL
  3. 0.16 mL
  4. 2.4 mL

Explanation

First multiply body weight by dose: 12 kg × 0.2 mg/kg = 2.4 mg. Then divide by concentration: 2.4 mg ÷ 1.5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL. Checking the units confirms the answer is in milliliters.

Question 2Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which route of administration is described as parenteral?

  1. Oral
  2. Topical
  3. Inhalant
  4. Subcutaneous Correct answer.

Explanation

Parenteral means administration by a route other than the gastrointestinal tract, and subcutaneous injection is a classic parenteral route. Oral administration is enteral by definition, while topical and inhalant routes describe the site of application rather than the injectable/enteral distinction.

Question 3Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A technician is preparing to administer a drug that is a known emetogenic chemotherapeutic agent. Which precaution most directly protects personnel handling the drug and its excretions?

  1. Wearing a standard surgical mask only
  2. Administering the drug in the general treatment area
  3. Using closed-system transfer devices and PPE per hazardous-drug policy Correct answer.
  4. Disposing of waste in regular trash

Explanation

Hazardous drugs require closed-system transfer devices, gowns, gloves, and eye protection, and excretions are handled as hazardous waste for a defined period. These controls limit occupational exposure to cytotoxic agents. General-area administration and routine trash disposal increase exposure risk.

Question 4Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug class is most commonly used to manage acute pain in dogs and cats by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes?

  1. Beta-2 agonists
  2. Loop diuretics
  3. Anticholinergics
  4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Correct answer.

Explanation

NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase, reducing prostaglandin synthesis and providing analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. Beta-2 agonists, loop diuretics, and anticholinergics act on airway, renal, or autonomic targets respectively and are not primary analgesics.

Question 5Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A dog receiving long-term prednisone therapy should be monitored for which expected adverse effect?

  1. Polyuria and polydipsia Correct answer.
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Hyperkalemia

Explanation

Glucocorticoids increase urine output and water intake, so polyuria and polydipsia are expected and should be monitored. They also tend to raise blood glucose rather than lower it and do not typically cause bradycardia or hyperkalemia.

Question 6Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which vaccine type uses a live organism that has been modified to reduce virulence?

  1. Killed vaccine
  2. Subunit vaccine
  3. Modified-live vaccine Correct answer.
  4. Toxoid vaccine

Explanation

A modified-live vaccine contains an attenuated organism capable of limited replication, which strengthens the immune response. Killed, subunit, and toxoid vaccines contain non-replicating antigens and do not produce infection in the host.

Question 7Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A 5 kg cat is prescribed a drug at 2 mg/kg given once, but the vial is labeled 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters are needed?

  1. 0.5 mL
  2. 1 mL Correct answer.
  3. 0.1 mL
  4. 2.5 mL

Explanation

The total dose is 5 kg × 2 mg/kg = 10 mg. Dividing 10 mg by 10 mg/mL yields 1 mL. This is a straightforward weight-to-volume conversion.

Question 8Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which route provides the fastest onset for emergency drug administration in a collapsed patient with no intravenous access?

  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Oral
  3. Intraosseous Correct answer.
  4. Intramuscular

Explanation

Intraosseous administration reaches the central circulation nearly as rapidly as intravenous access, making it the preferred alternative in collapse. Intramuscular and subcutaneous absorption are slower and unreliable in shock, and oral absorption is slowest of all.

Question 9Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A technician is asked to dispense a controlled substance for a patient. Which record-keeping element is required in most jurisdictions?

  1. A log recording drug, quantity, date, and personnel Correct answer.
  2. A verbal report to the veterinarian
  3. No documentation beyond the prescription
  4. Only the patient's name on the label

Explanation

Controlled substances require a perpetual inventory log linking each entry to drug, quantity, date, and the person handling it, so discrepancies can be traced. This documentation supports regulatory compliance and deters diversion. A label alone or a verbal report does not satisfy record-keeping requirements.

Question 10Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which organ system is the primary site of drug metabolism for most veterinary drugs?

  1. Liver Correct answer.
  2. Lung
  3. Kidney
  4. Skin

Explanation

The liver is the principal site of biotransformation, largely through cytochrome P450 enzymes. The kidney mainly handles excretion, while lung and skin contribute minimally to metabolism of most drugs.

Question 11Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A cat is prescribed a drug that undergoes glucuronidation in the liver. Why must the dose be adjusted for cats compared with dogs?

  1. Cats have higher plasma protein levels
  2. Cats have greater glucuronidation capacity
  3. Cats have limited glucuronidation capacity Correct answer.
  4. Cats absorb drugs more slowly from the stomach

Explanation

Cats have reduced glucuronidation capacity relative to dogs, so drugs cleared by this pathway can accumulate and cause toxicity. This is why agents such as acetaminophen and some NSAIDs are dangerous in cats. Dose reduction or avoidance may be required.

Question 12Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A technician is preparing to give an intravenous injection of a drug that is a strong tissue irritant. What is the most important precaution?

  1. Dilution in sterile water only
  2. Confirmation of catheter placement before injection Correct answer.
  3. Administration through a butterfly needle without flushing
  4. Rapid bolus administration

Explanation

Confirming that the catheter is within the vein prevents perivascular leakage of an irritant drug, which can cause severe tissue necrosis. Slow administration and appropriate dilution may also be needed, but placement verification is the key safeguard.

Question 13Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which of the following is a key reason to avoid combining two NSAIDs in a patient?

  1. They cancel each other's metabolism
  2. Increased risk of gastrointestinal ulceration Correct answer.
  3. Reduced renal blood flow is prevented
  4. Synergistic analgesia always occurs

Explanation

Combining NSAIDs increases the risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and renal injury without proven added benefit. The prostaglandin inhibition is additive, so mucosal protection is further reduced. Concurrent use is generally avoided.

Question 14Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A patient is receiving intravenous fluids and a drug is added to the bag. Which action best prevents incompatibility?

  1. Using the same line without flushing between drugs
  2. Mixing all drugs in one bag to save time
  3. Checking a compatibility reference before combining drugs Correct answer.
  4. Adding drugs rapidly without mixing

Explanation

Consulting a compatibility reference before combining drugs in a fluid bag prevents precipitation, inactivation, or physical incompatibility. Physical inspection alone is insufficient because some reactions are not visible. Flushing between drugs also reduces contact incompatibility.

Question 15Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which term describes the proportion of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged?

  1. Volume of distribution
  2. Clearance
  3. Half-life
  4. Bioavailability Correct answer.

Explanation

Bioavailability is the fraction of a dose that reaches systemic circulation in active form, and it is lower for orally administered drugs subject to first-pass metabolism. Half-life, volume of distribution, and clearance describe different pharmacokinetic properties.

Question 16Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A dog is receiving digoxin. Which monitoring parameter is most relevant to detect toxicity?

  1. Serum electrolyte concentrations and drug levels Correct answer.
  2. Urine specific gravity
  3. Coat condition
  4. Body temperature only

Explanation

Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, so serum drug concentrations and electrolytes such as potassium are monitored to detect toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate digitalis toxicity. Coat, temperature, and urine specific gravity do not assess digoxin safety.

Question 17Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which of these describes the purpose of a loading dose?

  1. To rapidly achieve therapeutic drug concentrations Correct answer.
  2. To eliminate the need for monitoring
  3. To reduce the frequency of administration
  4. To maintain steady-state levels after the first dose

Explanation

A loading dose is given to reach therapeutic concentrations quickly, especially when the drug has a long half-life. Maintenance doses then sustain those levels. Loading doses do not replace monitoring or change the need for maintenance therapy.

Question 18Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A technician is preparing to administer a drug that is labeled for intramuscular use in a very small patient. Which consideration is most important?

  1. Using the same site repeatedly
  2. Using a large volume in one site
  3. Injecting rapidly to reduce pain
  4. Selecting an appropriate needle length and small volume per site Correct answer.

Explanation

Small patients have limited muscle mass, so needle length and the volume per injection site must be appropriate to avoid tissue damage and ensure absorption. Dividing volumes and rotating sites improves safety. Rapid injection or repeated site use increases discomfort and injury.

Question 19Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which statement best describes the role of a veterinary technician in dispensing prescription medications?

  1. Diagnosing the condition and selecting the drug
  2. Changing the prescription without authorization
  3. Providing a diagnosis to the client
  4. Preparing and dispensing under veterinary supervision per legal requirements Correct answer.

Explanation

Technicians prepare and dispense medications under the supervision of a veterinarian and within legal scope of practice. Diagnosis and drug selection are the veterinarian's responsibility. Unauthorized changes to a prescription are not permitted.

Question 20Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A drug is described as having a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean for dosing?

  1. The drug is effective only in high doses
  2. The drug is safe at any dose
  3. Small changes in dose can cause toxicity Correct answer.
  4. The drug has no side effects

Explanation

A narrow therapeutic index means the toxic dose is close to the therapeutic dose, so small dosing errors can cause harm. These drugs require careful calculation and often therapeutic drug monitoring. They are not automatically safe or free of side effects.

Question 21Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A client reports giving a double dose of a medication by mistake. What is the technician's most appropriate initial action?

  1. Advise stopping all future doses without consultation
  2. Recommend inducing vomiting at home
  3. Reassure the client that no action is needed
  4. Consult the veterinarian promptly and document the event Correct answer.

Explanation

A suspected overdose should be reported to the veterinarian promptly so an appropriate assessment and treatment plan can be made, and the event should be documented. Home remedies such as inducing vomiting without guidance can be harmful. Reassurance without evaluation or stopping therapy unilaterally is unsafe.

Question 22Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which factor most affects the oral bioavailability of a drug in a patient with vomiting?

  1. Increased renal excretion
  2. Reduced plasma protein binding
  3. Reduced gastrointestinal absorption Correct answer.
  4. Increased hepatic clearance

Explanation

Vomiting reduces the time the drug remains in the GI tract, limiting absorption and lowering oral bioavailability. Hepatic clearance, renal excretion, and protein binding affect drug disposition but are not the direct cause of reduced absorption in vomiting.

Question 23Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which of the following is an appropriate storage practice for most veterinary vaccines?

  1. Freezing to extend shelf life
  2. Keeping at room temperature indefinitely
  3. Refrigerating at the manufacturer-recommended temperature Correct answer.
  4. Storing in direct sunlight

Explanation

Most vaccines must be stored refrigerated at the temperature specified on the label to preserve potency, and freezing usually inactivates them. Direct sunlight and prolonged room-temperature storage also reduce efficacy.

Question 24Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A patient on chemotherapy is being discharged. What instruction is most important for the owner regarding handling of urine and feces?

  1. Flush all waste into the garden
  2. No special precautions are needed
  3. Store waste until the next appointment
  4. Handle excretions with gloves and dispose of them per hazardous-waste guidance Correct answer.

Explanation

Cytotoxic drugs and their metabolites can be excreted in urine and feces for a period after treatment, so owners should use gloves and follow hazardous-waste guidance. Ordinary handling or improper disposal can expose household members.

Question 25Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which agent is most appropriate for premedication to provide sedation and analgesia before induction in an otherwise healthy dog undergoing elective surgery?

  1. Acepromazine alone
  2. Butorphanol combined with acepromazine Correct answer.
  3. Furosemide
  4. Atropine alone

Explanation

Butorphanol is an opioid agonist-antagonist that provides sedation and some analgesia, and it is commonly combined with acepromazine for premedication in healthy dogs. Acepromazine alone gives sedation without analgesia, and atropine is an anticholinergic used for other purposes.

Question 26Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

During anesthesia maintenance, which finding most directly indicates that the patient is at an inadequate depth and requires deepening?

  1. Bradycardia with a stable blood pressure
  2. Increased respiratory rate with breath holding and limb withdrawal Correct answer.
  3. Constricted pupils with a stable heart rate
  4. Dorsal recumbency with relaxed jaw tone

Explanation

Breath holding, limb withdrawal, and a rising respiratory rate are signs of a light plane of anesthesia requiring deeper anesthesia or additional analgesia. Stable cardiovascular values with relaxed muscle tone suggest an adequate depth.

Question 27Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which monitoring parameter is the most sensitive early indicator of hypovolemia or inadequate anesthetic depth during surgery in a dog?

  1. Rectal temperature
  2. Packed cell volume
  3. Heart rate Correct answer.
  4. Urine specific gravity

Explanation

Heart rate responds rapidly to changes in sympathetic tone, blood volume, and anesthetic depth, making it one of the earliest monitored indicators of hypovolemia or light anesthesia. Temperature, PCV, and urine specific gravity change slowly and are not real-time indicators.

Question 28Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

A dog under isoflurane anesthesia has a mean arterial pressure of 45 mmHg. Which action is the most appropriate first step?

  1. Reduce the vaporizer setting and assess anesthetic depth Correct answer.
  2. Increase the vaporizer setting
  3. Administer a diuretic
  4. Continue monitoring without intervention

Explanation

A mean arterial pressure of 45 mmHg indicates hypotension, and isoflurane causes dose-dependent vasodilation and myocardial depression. Reducing the vaporizer setting while assessing depth, then supporting blood pressure with fluids or vasopressors, is the appropriate initial response.

Question 29Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which suture material is classified as absorbable and is commonly used for ligating small vessels and closing subcutaneous tissue?

  1. Nylon
  2. Silk
  3. Polyglactin 910 Correct answer.
  4. Polypropylene

Explanation

Polyglactin 910 is a synthetic absorbable suture that loses tensile strength over weeks and is commonly used for subcutaneous closure and vessel ligation. Nylon, polypropylene, and silk are nonabsorbable materials.

Question 30Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

When preparing a surgical site on a dog, which sequence best reflects standard aseptic skin preparation?

  1. Apply chlorhexidine scrub, then rinse, then apply alcohol, working from the incision outward Correct answer.
  2. Apply chlorhexidine scrub without rinsing, then cover with a drape
  3. Apply alcohol first, then chlorhexidine scrub without rinsing
  4. Apply povidone-iodine scrub, then rinse, then apply alcohol, working from the periphery inward

Explanation

Standard preparation alternates a scrub solution with rinsing and finishes with an alcohol or antiseptic solution, working from the incision site outward to avoid dragging contamination into the surgical field. Scrubbing without rinsing leaves residue and is not recommended.

Question 31Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which instrument is best suited for grasping and holding tissue during closure of a laparotomy incision?

  1. Needle holder
  2. Mayo scissors
  3. Scalpel handle
  4. Thumb forceps Correct answer.

Explanation

Thumb forceps are designed to grasp and stabilize tissue during suturing. Scissors cut, needle holders drive needles, and scalpel handles carry blades for incision.

Question 32Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which finding during the postoperative period most warrants immediate veterinary attention after an ovariohysterectomy?

  1. Mild incisional swelling on day one
  2. Decreased appetite for one meal
  3. Pale mucous membranes with tachycardia Correct answer.
  4. Serosanguineous discharge from the incision

Explanation

Pale mucous membranes with tachycardia suggest hemorrhage or hypovolemia and require immediate assessment. Mild incisional swelling, minor serosanguineous discharge, and a single missed meal are common and usually self-limiting.

Question 33Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which preanesthetic bloodwork abnormality most strongly warrants delaying elective surgery?

  1. Mild eosinophilia
  2. Mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase in a young dog
  3. Azotemia with elevated creatinine Correct answer.
  4. Slightly low normal hematocrit

Explanation

Azotemia with elevated creatinine suggests renal dysfunction, which affects drug clearance and anesthetic risk, so elective surgery should be postponed pending evaluation. Mild enzyme elevations, borderline hematocrit, and eosinophilia are less likely to contraindicate anesthesia.

Question 34Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which statement about endotracheal intubation in a cat is correct?

  1. The cuff should be fully inflated to maximum volume
  2. The tube should be removed before the patient regains a swallow reflex
  3. The cuff should be inflated until no leak is heard with gentle positive pressure Correct answer.
  4. Intubation should be performed without visualizing the larynx

Explanation

The endotracheal tube cuff should be inflated just enough to seal the airway, confirmed by the absence of an audible leak during gentle positive pressure. Overinflation risks tracheal damage, and the tube should remain until protective reflexes return.

Question 35Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which parameter is the most reliable indicator of adequate ventilation during anesthesia when capnography is unavailable?

  1. Palpebral reflex
  2. Thoracic wall excursion and respiratory rate Correct answer.
  3. Mucous membrane color
  4. Jaw tone

Explanation

Observing thoracic wall excursion and respiratory rate provides the best available assessment of ventilation when capnography is unavailable. Mucous membrane color reflects oxygenation more than ventilation, and jaw tone and palpebral reflex reflect depth.

Question 36Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which analgesic approach is most appropriate for a dog undergoing orthopedic surgery as part of a multimodal plan?

  1. An NSAID alone
  2. A single dose of an opioid alone
  3. Acepromazine alone
  4. An opioid combined with an NSAID and a local nerve block Correct answer.

Explanation

Multimodal analgesia combines agents acting at different points in the pain pathway, such as an opioid, an NSAID, and a local anesthetic block, to improve pain control and reduce individual drug doses. Single-agent approaches are less effective for orthopedic pain.

Question 37Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which statement about the use of a local anesthetic block in surgical patients is correct?

  1. Bupivacaine has a faster onset than lidocaine
  2. Epinephrine shortens the duration of local anesthetics
  3. Local anesthetics block sodium channels in nerve membranes Correct answer.
  4. Local anesthetics are contraindicated in all surgical patients

Explanation

Local anesthetics produce conduction blockade by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels in nerve membranes. Bupivacaine has a slower onset and longer duration than lidocaine, and epinephrine prolongs rather than shortens the block.

Question 38Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

A patient recovering from anesthesia is hypothermic at 35 degrees Celsius. Which consequence is most directly associated with this temperature?

  1. Prolonged recovery and increased risk of arrhythmias Correct answer.
  2. Increased anesthetic metabolism
  3. Faster return of the swallow reflex
  4. Increased oxygen delivery to tissues

Explanation

Hypothermia slows drug metabolism, prolongs recovery, and predisposes to cardiac arrhythmias and coagulopathy. It reduces rather than increases metabolic rate and oxygen delivery.

Question 39Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which agent is most appropriate to reverse the effects of an opioid such as morphine in a patient with marked respiratory depression?

  1. Yohimbine
  2. Flumazenil
  3. Atipamezole
  4. Naloxone Correct answer.

Explanation

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Atipamezole reverses alpha-2 agonists, flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and yohimbine is an alpha-2 antagonist.

Question 40Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which factor most increases the risk of gastric reflux during anesthesia in a dog?

  1. Use of a cuffed endotracheal tube
  2. Premedication with an opioid
  3. Withholding food for 12 hours before surgery
  4. Recumbency with reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone Correct answer.

Explanation

Anesthesia reduces lower esophageal sphincter tone, and recumbency promotes reflux of gastric contents. Fasting reduces gastric volume, opioids can affect motility but are not the primary cause, and a cuffed tube protects the airway rather than causing reflux.

Question 41Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which monitoring device directly measures the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen?

  1. Pulse oximeter Correct answer.
  2. Capnograph
  3. Doppler blood pressure monitor
  4. Electrocardiogram

Explanation

A pulse oximeter estimates arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation using light absorbance. A capnograph measures exhaled carbon dioxide, a Doppler measures blood pressure, and an ECG records cardiac electrical activity.

Question 42Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

During surgery, the surgeon requests a suture pattern that apposes tissue edges without tension and provides a continuous closure. Which pattern best fits this request?

  1. Horizontal mattress pattern
  2. Purse-string pattern
  3. Simple continuous pattern Correct answer.
  4. Simple interrupted pattern

Explanation

A simple continuous pattern apposes tissue edges with a continuous suture line and is efficient for closures under minimal tension. Simple interrupted provides individual sutures, purse-string encircles a lumen, and horizontal mattress provides eversion and tension support.

Question 43Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which statement about aseptic technique during surgery is correct?

  1. Sterile personnel must keep their hands above waist level and within the sterile field Correct answer.
  2. Nonsterile personnel may reach over the sterile field to pass instruments
  3. The circulating nurse may touch sterile instruments with bare hands
  4. Sterile gowns are only required for the surgeon

Explanation

Sterile personnel must keep their hands above waist level and within the sterile field to avoid contamination. Gowns and gloves are required for all scrubbed personnel, and nonsterile personnel must not reach over the sterile field.

Question 44Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which finding in a recovering patient suggests a problem with the endotracheal tube rather than with anesthetic depth?

  1. Mild shivering
  2. Gradual return of the swallow reflex
  3. Increasing jaw tone
  4. Progressive cyanosis despite adequate ventilation Correct answer.

Explanation

Progressive cyanosis despite adequate ventilation suggests an obstructed or misplaced endotracheal tube or a cuff problem. Return of the swallow reflex and increasing jaw tone reflect recovery from anesthesia, and shivering reflects thermoregulation.

Question 45Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which statement about fluid therapy during anesthesia in a healthy dog is most accurate?

  1. Hypertonic saline is the first-line maintenance fluid
  2. Isotonic crystalloids are commonly administered to support blood pressure and replace losses Correct answer.
  3. Fluids should be withheld until hypotension occurs
  4. Fluid rate should be based only on body weight and never reassessed

Explanation

Isotonic crystalloids are commonly given during anesthesia to support blood pressure and replace insensible and surgical losses, with rates adjusted to the patient's response. Fluids are typically started before hypotension develops, and hypertonic saline is reserved for specific indications.

Question 46Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which statement best describes the purpose of preemptive analgesia in surgical patients?

  1. Providing analgesia before the painful stimulus to reduce central sensitization Correct answer.
  2. Administering analgesia only after the patient shows signs of pain
  3. Avoiding analgesia to prevent drug interactions
  4. Using analgesics only during the recovery period

Explanation

Preemptive analgesia is given before the painful stimulus to reduce nociceptive input and central sensitization, improving postoperative comfort. Waiting for pain signs or limiting analgesia to recovery is less effective.

Question 47Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

Which parameter is most useful for confirming correct placement of an endotracheal tube immediately after intubation?

  1. Checking the color of the tube connector
  2. Palpating the tube cuff in the esophagus
  3. Observing thoracic excursions and auscultating both lung fields Correct answer.
  4. Measuring rectal temperature

Explanation

Observing thoracic excursions and auscultating both lung fields confirms that the tube is in the trachea and ventilating both lungs. Palpating a cuff in the esophagus, connector color, and rectal temperature do not confirm airway placement.

Question 48Surgical Nursing and Anesthesia

A dog undergoing anesthesia has a sudden drop in end-tidal carbon dioxide from 40 to 15 mmHg with a concurrent drop in blood pressure. Which cause is most likely?

  1. Improved cardiac output
  2. A sudden decrease in pulmonary blood flow such as from severe hypotension or cardiac arrest Correct answer.
  3. Hyperthermia
  4. Excessively deep anesthesia alone with stable circulation

Explanation

End-tidal carbon dioxide reflects pulmonary blood flow as well as ventilation, so a sudden fall alongside hypotension suggests a major reduction in pulmonary perfusion, as in severe hypotension or cardiac arrest. Hyperthermia and improved cardiac output would not cause this pattern.

Question 49Dentistry

During a routine oral examination of a dog, which tooth is identified as the largest and most robust carnassial tooth in the upper jaw?

  1. The maxillary fourth premolar Correct answer.
  2. The maxillary first molar
  3. The mandibular first molar
  4. The maxillary canine

Explanation

The carnassial pair is formed by the maxillary fourth premolar and the mandibular first molar. In the upper arcade the fourth premolar is the largest tooth and is the primary shearing tooth.

Question 50Dentistry

A veterinary technician is charting a dog's dentition using the modified Triadan system. Which number designates the mandibular right canine in the permanent dentition?

  1. 104
  2. 204
  3. 404 Correct answer.
  4. 304

Explanation

In the modified Triadan system the first digit indicates the quadrant: 1 maxillary right, 2 maxillary left, 3 mandibular left, and 4 mandibular right. The canine is tooth position 04, so the mandibular right canine is 404.