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Mauritius DCA PPL Theory study materials
Mauritius DCA PPL Theory study resources

Mauritius DCA PPL Theory practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under the Mauritius Civil Aviation Regulations, an aircraft in the territory of Mauritius is normally flown under which set of rules?

  1. The rules of the country of registry only
  2. The rules of the country of the operator only
  3. The rules of the state of departure of the flight
  4. The rules in force in the territory where the aircraft is flying Correct answer.

Explanation

ICAO Annex 2 establishes that an aircraft must comply with the rules in force in the territory being flown over, and Mauritius applies this through its Civil Aviation Act and Regulations. A pilot therefore follows Mauritian rules while in Mauritian territory, regardless of the aircraft's registration.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Mauritius, which document primarily gives legal effect to the ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices for civil aviation?

  1. The airport operator's standing instructions
  2. The AIP SUP issued by the meteorological service
  3. The Aeronautical Information Publication alone
  4. The Civil Aviation Act and the regulations made under it Correct answer.

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Act, with the regulations made under it (the Mauritius Civil Aviation Regulations), is the legal instrument that adopts and enforces ICAO Standards in Mauritius. The AIP is a publication that informs users of procedures and services, but it is not the enabling legislation.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which document is the primary source a PPL holder should consult for permanent operational information such as aerodrome procedures and airspace classification in Mauritius?

  1. The pilot's personal logbook
  2. The aircraft flight manual
  3. The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) Correct answer.
  4. The certificate of registration

Explanation

The AIP contains the permanent information essential to air navigation, including aerodrome data, airspace structure and local procedures. Pilots are expected to consult it, together with NOTAM and AIP supplements, before flight.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

A NOTAM is issued to notify pilots of which type of information?

  1. The routine republication of unchanged aerodrome information already in the AIP
  2. The licensing requirements for engineers
  3. The historical accident statistics for the state
  4. The temporary or short-notice changes to facilities, services or procedures Correct answer.

Explanation

NOTAM notify pilots of operationally significant information needing timely distribution, including temporary changes and permanent changes introduced at short notice. Establishment of an aerodrome can therefore be notified by NOTAM when appropriate. Enduring details are incorporated into the AIP; unchanged AIP information is not routinely republished as a NOTAM.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the meaning of the term 'ATS route' as used in the Mauritian airspace structure?

  1. A route established for the purpose of providing air traffic services Correct answer.
  2. A taxi route established on the manoeuvring area
  3. A route flown only under visual flight rules below 500 ft
  4. A route designated for the exclusive use of military aircraft

Explanation

An ATS route is a specified route established for the purpose of providing air traffic services along its length. It may be used by IFR and, where prescribed, VFR flights, and it is published in the AIP.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

In which class of airspace are both IFR and VFR flights permitted, with all aircraft subject to ATC clearance and separation provided between all IFR flights and between IFR and VFR flights?

  1. Class F
  2. Class G
  3. Class C Correct answer.
  4. Class A

Explanation

Class C airspace accepts both IFR and VFR flights; ATC provides separation between IFR and IFR and between IFR and VFR, while VFR flights receive traffic information about other VFR flights. Class A admits IFR only, and Class G is uncontrolled.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

Unless otherwise specified for a particular aerodrome, what is the standard VFR cruising altitude band for flights above 3 000 ft in Mauritius?

  1. Odd thousands plus 500 ft regardless of track
  2. Odd thousands plus 500 ft on a track of 000 to 179 degrees magnetic
  3. Even thousands plus 500 ft on a track of 000 to 179 degrees magnetic Correct answer.
  4. Even thousands plus 500 ft regardless of track

Explanation

Under the semi-circular rule, VFR flights on tracks from 000 to 179 degrees magnetic use even thousands plus 500 ft, while tracks from 180 to 359 degrees use odd thousands plus 500 ft. The reference altitude is normally 3 000 ft and above.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight at or below 900 ft AMSL in a control zone in Mauritius, when the prescribed minimum is applied?

  1. 3 km
  2. 8 km
  3. 1 500 m
  4. 5 km Correct answer.

Explanation

The standard VFR minima for controlled airspace at or below 900 ft AMSL require a flight visibility of 5 km and clear of cloud with the surface in sight. Higher minima may be prescribed for specific control zones in the AIP.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

A VFR flight within controlled airspace in Mauritius must, in principle, obtain what before entering that airspace?

  1. A meteorological briefing certificate
  2. A written permission from the aerodrome operator
  3. An aircraft radio licence renewal
  4. An air traffic control clearance Correct answer.

Explanation

VFR flights in controlled airspace require an ATC clearance, which ensures separation and orderly traffic flow. The clearance is requested by radio and is distinct from any operational or licensing document.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

When a pilot reads back an ATC clearance, which element must be included to confirm the instruction was correctly received?

  1. Only the word 'roger'
  2. Only the aircraft callsign
  3. Only the time of receipt
  4. The route, level, heading and any frequency change as applicable Correct answer.

Explanation

A read-back must repeat the safety-related parts of the clearance, such as route, altitude or level, heading, speed and frequency, together with the aircraft callsign. This allows the controller to detect and correct any misunderstanding.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the instruction 'SQUAWK 7000' mean when given by ATC to a VFR flight?

  1. Set the altimeter to 7000 hPa
  2. Climb to 7 000 ft
  3. Contact the tower on 7000 kHz
  4. Select code 7000 on the SSR transponder Correct answer.

Explanation

SQUAWK followed by four digits instructs the pilot to set that code on the transponder. Code 7000 is the standard VFR conspicuity code used in many regions when no specific code has been assigned.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on final approach experiences a complete radio failure. What is the standard action for a VFR flight in the vicinity of a controlled aerodrome?

  1. Turn back to the departure aerodrome without regard to traffic
  2. Continue the approach and land, then report to ATC Correct answer.
  3. Climb to the highest available level and circle indefinitely
  4. Land on the nearest road and abandon the aircraft

Explanation

A VFR flight that loses communication should continue in accordance with the last clearance received, maintain VFR and keep a good lookout, then land and report the failure to ATC. Remaining predictable and avoiding unexpected manoeuvres protects other traffic.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

In the absence of an ATIS, what is the standard procedure for a pilot to obtain the current aerodrome information before departure from a controlled aerodrome?

  1. Read the information from the aircraft registration certificate
  2. Assume the information from the previous flight remains valid
  3. Wait for the tower to broadcast it automatically on the hour
  4. Request the information from ATC by radio or telephone Correct answer.

Explanation

When no ATIS is available, the pilot obtains current aerodrome information by requesting it from ATC, by radio or telephone before flight. Assuming old information or waiting for a broadcast that may not exist is unacceptable for safe operation.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the primary purpose of the 'Clearance Limit' in an ATC clearance?

  1. The maximum fuel that may be carried
  2. The point to which an aircraft is authorised to proceed Correct answer.
  3. The latest time of departure from the apron
  4. The maximum number of passengers on board

Explanation

The clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance. Beyond that point the pilot must obtain a further clearance before proceeding.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

When may a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance without first obtaining a revised clearance?

  1. When the flight is running late and fuel is a concern
  2. When the pilot wishes to take photographs of the coastline
  3. When an immediate safety action is required, followed by prompt notification to ATC Correct answer.
  4. Whenever the pilot prefers a different runway

Explanation

A pilot may deviate from a clearance only in an emergency or when immediate action is needed for safety, and must inform ATC as soon as practicable. Personal preference or convenience is never a valid reason for unannounced deviation.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which phraseology should a pilot use to acknowledge an ATC instruction that requires no read-back, such as a traffic information call?

  1. 'Say again'
  2. 'Standby'
  3. 'Roger' Correct answer.
  4. 'Wilco'

Explanation

'Roger' means 'I have received all of your last transmission' and is used to acknowledge information that requires no action. 'Wilco' means the instruction will be complied with, and 'say again' requests a repetition.

Question 17Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the transponder code 7700 signify when set by a pilot?

  1. Radio communication failure
  2. A general emergency Correct answer.
  3. A VFR conspicuity code
  4. Unlawful interference

Explanation

Code 7700 is the general emergency code and alerts ATC that the aircraft is in distress. Code 7600 denotes radio failure and 7500 denotes unlawful interference.

Question 18Air Law and ATC Procedures

At a controlled aerodrome, when should a pilot establish two-way radio communication with the tower before landing?

  1. Only if another aircraft is known to be present
  2. Before entering the aerodrome traffic circuit Correct answer.
  3. Only after turning final approach
  4. After landing and vacating the runway

Explanation

Two-way communication must be established before the aircraft enters the aerodrome traffic circuit, so that the controller can sequence it with other traffic. Waiting until final or after landing defeats the purpose of the control service.

Question 19Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard meaning of the signal given by a series of green flashes from the tower to an aircraft on the ground?

  1. Return to the starting point
  2. Stop immediately
  3. Cleared to taxi Correct answer.
  4. Cleared for take-off

Explanation

For an aircraft on the ground, a series of green flashes from the control tower means 'cleared to taxi'. A steady green light is used for aircraft in flight to mean 'cleared to land'.

Question 20Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following best describes a 'controlled aerodrome'?

  1. An aerodrome where customs and immigration are available
  2. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic Correct answer.
  3. An aerodrome used only by scheduled commercial flights
  4. An aerodrome with a paved runway longer than 1 500 m

Explanation

A controlled aerodrome is one at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic, regardless of runway surface or traffic type. The presence of customs or scheduled services does not define it.

Question 21Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot flying VFR at 2 500 ft encounters deteriorating weather ahead and cannot maintain the required cloud clearance. What is the correct course of action?

  1. Descend below 500 ft to remain clear of cloud
  2. Continue on track and maintain altitude
  3. Turn back or divert to remain in VMC, and inform ATC Correct answer.
  4. Climb into cloud and request a Special VFR clearance en route

Explanation

A VFR flight must remain in visual meteorological conditions at all times; if this is no longer possible, the pilot should turn back or divert and advise ATC. Continuing or descending below safe heights risks controlled flight into terrain or collision.

Question 22Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard purpose of the 'position report' made by a VFR flight to ATC?

  1. To confirm the aircraft's registration
  2. To inform ATC of the aircraft's location and flight conditions Correct answer.
  3. To obtain permission to switch off the transponder
  4. To request a change of altimeter setting

Explanation

A position report informs ATC of the aircraft's location, level and relevant flight conditions so that the controller can maintain traffic separation and provide information. It is not a request for altimeter settings or a licensing confirmation.

Question 23Air Law and ATC Procedures

When a pilot is instructed to 'report downwind', what is expected?

  1. A radio call when the aircraft has landed and vacated
  2. A radio call when the aircraft is on the downwind leg of the circuit Correct answer.
  3. A radio call when the aircraft is on the runway
  4. A radio call when the aircraft is at the apron before start-up

Explanation

A 'report downwind' instruction requires the pilot to call ATC when established on the downwind leg of the traffic circuit. This allows the controller to sequence the aircraft with other traffic in the circuit.

Question 24Air Law and ATC Procedures

In the event that a pilot receives two conflicting instructions from the same controller, which principle should guide the response?

  1. Request clarification before acting on either instruction Correct answer.
  2. Comply with whichever instruction is more convenient
  3. Comply with the first instruction received
  4. Comply with the last instruction received without query

Explanation

When instructions are ambiguous or conflicting, the pilot must seek clarification rather than guess, because acting on the wrong interpretation could compromise safety. Clear, unambiguous communication is the foundation of ATC coordination.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

On a light aircraft, what is the primary function of the empennage?

  1. To absorb landing impact energy through the main gear
  2. To house the fuel tanks and reduce wing bending moment
  3. To carry the wing bending loads into the fuselage
  4. To provide longitudinal and directional stability and control Correct answer.

Explanation

The empennage comprises the horizontal stabiliser with elevator and the vertical fin with rudder. It provides pitch (longitudinal) and yaw (directional) stability and the control surfaces for those axes. Wing bending loads are carried by the wing spar structure, not the tail.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a semi-monocoque fuselage, what is the main role of the stringers and frames?

  1. They stiffen the skin and distribute loads so the skin does not buckle prematurely Correct answer.
  2. They provide the attachment points for the engine mount only
  3. They carry the primary torsion loads alone without any skin contribution
  4. They act as the primary electrical return path for the aircraft

Explanation

In semi-monocoque construction the skin carries much of the load, but thin skin would buckle under compression or shear. Stringers and frames stiffen the skin and spread concentrated loads, allowing the skin to work efficiently. The structure is therefore a shared load path, not a skin-only or frame-only arrangement.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

A pilot notices that the aircraft's turn coordinator shows a steady deflection while the slip-skid ball is centred in a level turn. What does this indicate?

  1. The aircraft is in a stall and the instrument has failed
  2. The aircraft is slipping and the ball indication is faulty
  3. The turn is coordinated and the instrument is showing the rate of turn Correct answer.
  4. The gyro has toppled and the indication must be ignored

Explanation

The turn coordinator's miniature aircraft indicates rate of turn about the yaw axis, while the ball indicates slip or skid. A centred ball in a steady turn means the turn is coordinated. A steady deflection with a centred ball is the normal picture of a coordinated turn at that rate.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Why is a suction-driven gyro instrument such as a heading indicator or attitude indicator spun by an air pump rather than by ram air?

  1. Because ram air pressure varies too much with airspeed and attitude to give a reliable spin Correct answer.
  2. Because the gyro requires negative pressure to work at all
  3. Because suction pumps produce a higher rotational speed than any air source
  4. Because ram air contains too much fuel vapour

Explanation

Vacuum-driven gyros need a stable, low-pressure air flow. Ram air varies strongly with airspeed, slipstream and attitude, so it cannot provide the constant spin required. An engine-driven vacuum pump gives a more consistent suction, though it introduces a dependency on the engine and pump.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the voltage regulator in a light aircraft's DC charging system?

  1. To disconnect the battery from the bus during engine start
  2. To convert alternating current from the alternator into direct current
  3. To step up battery voltage to 28 volts for the avionics bus
  4. To limit generator or alternator output voltage to a safe value as rpm and load change Correct answer.

Explanation

The regulator controls the field current so that charging voltage stays within limits as engine speed and electrical load vary. Without it, voltage would rise with rpm and could damage the battery and avionics. Rectification of AC is a separate function performed by diodes.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

During flight the ammeter shows a continuous discharge, and after landing the battery is found flat. Which is the most likely cause?

  1. The voltage regulator is overcharging the battery
  2. The battery master relay is stuck closed
  3. The alternator or generator has failed and the battery is carrying the electrical load Correct answer.
  4. The starter solenoid has remained engaged

Explanation

A continuous discharge in flight means the charging source is not supplying the bus, so the battery is draining to run the equipment. The most common cause is a failed alternator or generator, or a broken field/belt drive. Overcharging would show a high charge rate, not a discharge.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a four-stroke aircraft engine, what is the purpose of the exhaust stroke?

  1. To draw the fuel-air mixture into the cylinder
  2. To convert the burning mixture into mechanical work on the piston
  3. To compress the mixture before ignition
  4. To drive the burnt gases out of the cylinder through the exhaust valve Correct answer.

Explanation

The four strokes are induction, compression, power and exhaust. During the exhaust stroke the piston moves toward top dead centre with the exhaust valve open, sweeping burnt gases out. Power is produced during the power stroke, not the exhaust stroke.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Why does a carburettor-equipped engine risk icing when the outside air temperature is between about -5 and +15 degrees Celsius with high humidity?

  1. Because the throttle valve is heated by the engine and condenses water
  2. Because vaporisation of fuel and the pressure drop at the venturi cool the mixture below freezing Correct answer.
  3. Because the air filter traps ice from the outside air
  4. Because the fuel itself freezes in the float chamber

Explanation

Fuel vaporisation absorbs latent heat, and the pressure drop through the venturi further cools the mixture. In humid air this can drop the mixture temperature below 0 degrees Celsius, allowing ice to form on the throttle and venturi even on a warm day. Carburettor heat is the standard preventative.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What happens to the mixture strength if carburettor heat is applied during cruise?

  1. The mixture is unaffected because only the fuel flow changes
  2. The mixture becomes richer because warm air is less dense and the fuel metering is unchanged Correct answer.
  3. The mixture becomes richer because the fuel is heated and expands
  4. The mixture leans because the air is less dense

Explanation

Carburettor heat warms the intake air, lowering its density and therefore its mass for a given volume. The fuel metering remains essentially unchanged, so the fuel-to-air ratio rises and the mixture becomes richer. Pilots normally lean the mixture after applying carburettor heat in cruise.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the magneto in an aircraft piston engine ignition system?

  1. To store fuel for the primer system
  2. To generate a high-tension voltage that fires the spark plugs without relying on the aircraft battery Correct answer.
  3. To measure manifold pressure for the ignition timing
  4. To regulate the engine-driven alternator output

Explanation

A magneto is a self-contained generator that produces high voltage for the spark plugs using a rotating magnet and coil, independent of the aircraft's electrical system. This independence is why the engine keeps running after an electrical failure. Dual magnetos provide redundancy and better combustion.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

During a magneto check at run-up, selecting the left magneto causes a greater rpm drop than selecting the right. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. The left magneto is producing stronger sparks than the right
  2. The propeller is out of balance
  3. The engine is running too lean at idle
  4. The right magneto is faulty or its timing is retarded, so the engine runs worse on the right alone Correct answer.

Explanation

On a magneto check each magneto is selected in turn and the engine runs on that magneto alone. A larger drop on one side indicates that the engine runs less efficiently on that magneto, suggesting a weak spark, faulty plug or incorrect timing on that side. The normal drop is small and similar on both sides.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the constant-speed propeller governor?

  1. To meter engine oil pressure to the propeller hub so blade angle adjusts to hold the selected rpm Correct answer.
  2. To feather the propeller automatically after engine failure
  3. To keep the propeller blade angle constant at all times
  4. To limit engine manifold pressure during climb

Explanation

The governor senses engine rpm and controls oil pressure to the propeller hub. It changes blade angle so that rpm remains at the value selected by the pilot, within the limits of the pitch stops. Blade angle is therefore varied, not constant, and feathering is a separate pilot action.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

On a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft, what happens to propeller efficiency if the aircraft is flown well above its design cruise speed?

  1. Efficiency remains constant at all speeds
  2. Efficiency decreases because the engine rpm falls below idle
  3. Efficiency decreases because the blade angle is too small for the advance per revolution Correct answer.
  4. Efficiency increases because more air is accelerated

Explanation

A fixed-pitch propeller has a blade angle chosen for a particular speed range. At higher speeds the advance per revolution becomes large relative to the blade angle, so the blades operate at a poor angle of attack and efficiency falls. This is the reason variable-pitch propellers are used where a wide speed range is needed.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the fuel selector valve in a light aircraft?

  1. To drain water from the fuel system before flight
  2. To automatically maintain a constant fuel pressure at the carburettor
  3. To measure the quantity of fuel in each tank
  4. To shut off fuel flow to the engine and allow selection of the tank in use Correct answer.

Explanation

The selector valve lets the pilot choose which tank supplies the engine and provides a positive shut-off position. It is a routing and isolation device, not a pressure regulator, drain or quantity gauge. Correct selection and management prevent fuel starvation and imbalance.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

During a pre-flight inspection, water is found in the fuel drained from a wing sump. What is the correct action?

  1. Ignore it because water is heavier than fuel and will stay in the tank
  2. Run the engine briefly to clear the water through the exhaust
  3. Drain the sample repeatedly until no water appears, and investigate the source Correct answer.
  4. Add a fuel additive to absorb the water

Explanation

Water is heavier than aviation fuel and collects at the lowest points, where sump drains are located. The correct action is to keep draining until the sample is clear of water and then investigate why water is present, since it may indicate contaminated fuel or a leaking filler cap. Water in the system can cause engine stoppage.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the hydraulic pressure relief valve in a light aircraft hydraulic system?

  1. To limit system pressure by returning excess fluid to the reservoir when the set value is exceeded Correct answer.
  2. To maintain a minimum pressure in the system at all times
  3. To filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid
  4. To indicate the quantity of fluid in the reservoir

Explanation

The relief valve protects the system from overpressure by opening at a set pressure and bypassing excess fluid back to the reservoir. It is a safety device, not a pressure-maintaining pump or a filter. Without it, a blocked actuator or jammed valve could rupture lines.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Why must hydraulic fluid be kept clean and free of air in an aircraft hydraulic system?

  1. Contaminants cause wear and blockages, and air makes the system spongy and reduces effectiveness Correct answer.
  2. Clean fluid is required only for the appearance of the system
  3. Air is needed to pressurise the reservoir
  4. Air improves the compressibility of the fluid and smooths operation

Explanation

Contamination such as dirt or metal particles causes seal wear, scoring and blocked orifices. Entrained air is compressible, so actuators feel spongy and response is delayed. Hydraulic systems are therefore bled and filtered, and fluid is checked for cleanliness.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a light aircraft vacuum system, what does a low suction gauge reading indicate?

  1. The engine oil pressure is low
  2. The electrical alternator has failed
  3. The gyro instruments may be unreliable because the air pump or filter is failing Correct answer.
  4. The pitot heat is switched on

Explanation

The suction gauge shows the vacuum available to drive the gyros. A low reading means the gyros may not be spinning at the correct speed, so their indications can be unreliable. Common causes include a worn pump, a blocked filter or a leaking line.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the static dischargers fitted to the trailing edges of control surfaces?

  1. To discharge static electricity and reduce radio interference caused by precipitation static Correct answer.
  2. To measure the static pressure for the altimeter
  3. To provide a lightning path to the ground during flight
  4. To reduce the aerodynamic flutter of the control surface

Explanation

Static dischargers provide a controlled path for static charge to leave the airframe, reducing the precipitation static that causes radio noise. They are not a lightning protection system, which relies on bonding and skin conductivity. They also have no role in static pressure measurement.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

A fire in the engine compartment of a light aircraft is detected shortly after start. What is the correct initial action?

  1. Increase power to blow the fire out
  2. Shut down the engine, cut off fuel and the electrical master, and evacuate with a fire extinguisher Correct answer.
  3. Open the cowling to locate the fire
  4. Continue the start and taxi to the apron for maintenance

Explanation

The priority is to stop the fuel and ignition sources and get the occupants out. Shutting down the engine, closing the fuel selector and switching off the master reduce the fuel and electrical supply to the fire. Opening the cowling or increasing power would feed the fire with air and fuel.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the fire sleeve or fireproof covering on hoses in the engine compartment?

  1. To protect flexible hoses from heat and fire long enough to allow shutdown Correct answer.
  2. To insulate the hoses electrically from the airframe
  3. To prevent the hoses from freezing at altitude
  4. To reduce the weight of the engine installation

Explanation

Fire sleeves are fitted to hoses carrying fuel, oil and hydraulic fluid in fire zones. They delay heat damage to the hose so that fluid is not released to feed a fire and so that systems remain serviceable during a fire. They are not electrical insulation or anti-freeze protection.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Why are the cabin walls and furnishings of a light aircraft made from materials that pass flammability tests?

  1. To limit the spread of fire and the release of toxic smoke after a cabin fire starts Correct answer.
  2. To improve the acoustic insulation of the cabin
  3. To prevent the cabin from being pressurised
  4. To reduce the weight of the aircraft

Explanation

Flammability requirements are intended to limit fire propagation and toxic smoke in the cabin, giving occupants time to escape. Weight saving and acoustic insulation are separate design considerations. Materials are tested to specific burn and smoke standards.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the stall warning horn in a light aircraft?

  1. To indicate that the landing gear is not locked down
  2. To warn of an impending stall by sensing airflow angle at the wing leading edge Correct answer.
  3. To warn that the fuel selector is on the wrong tank
  4. To alert the pilot when the alternator is overvoltage

Explanation

The stall warning system uses a vane or a reed on the leading edge that responds to the local airflow angle. As the angle approaches the stall, it sounds a horn or buzzer to warn the pilot. Gear and fuel warnings are separate systems.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

An aircraft has a fuel-injected engine. What is the function of the engine-driven fuel pump in this installation?

  1. To return unused fuel to the tank only
  2. To meter the fuel-air ratio automatically
  3. To provide the high pressure needed to deliver fuel to the injector nozzles Correct answer.
  4. To prime the cylinders before start only

Explanation

In a fuel-injected engine the engine-driven pump supplies fuel at the higher pressure required by the injector nozzles. An electrically driven auxiliary pump is normally provided as a backup for take-off, landing and vapour lock. Metering is done by the fuel control unit, not by the pump.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning

For a light aeroplane planning a landing at Plaisance (Mauritius) with a reported runway condition of wet, which factor most directly increases the landing ground roll?

  1. Lower outside air temperature than standard
  2. Reduced tyre-to-surface friction allowing less effective braking Correct answer.
  3. A runway slope of 1% uphill
  4. Increased headwind component on final approach

Explanation

A wet surface reduces the coefficient of friction between tyres and runway, so braking force is lower and more runway length is needed to stop. Wind, temperature and uphill slope in the other options would generally shorten, not lengthen, the roll.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning

In the take-off distance chart for a normally aspirated training aircraft, what is the effect of increasing pressure altitude while keeping mass and temperature constant?

  1. Take-off distance decreases because true airspeed at rotation is higher
  2. Take-off distance increases because air density and thrust decrease Correct answer.
  3. Take-off distance decreases because the air is denser
  4. Take-off distance remains unchanged because mass is constant

Explanation

Higher pressure altitude means lower air density, so the engine produces less thrust and the wings generate less lift at a given true airspeed. Both effects lengthen the ground roll and the distance to 50 ft.