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Question 1General Diagnosis
What is the normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult?
- 32 to 40 breaths/min
- 4 to 8 breaths/min
- 12 to 20 breaths/min Correct answer.
- 24 to 30 breaths/min
Explanation
Normal adult resting respiratory rate is conventionally 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 indicate bradypnea, while rates above 20 indicate tachypnea. Interpretation should account for age and clinical context.
Question 2General Diagnosis
A body mass index of 30 kg/m2 or greater is classified as which category?
- Normal weight
- Underweight
- Obesity Correct answer.
- Overweight
Explanation
BMI 30 or above defines obesity; overweight is 25 to 29.9, normal is 18.5 to 24.9, and underweight is below 18.5. BMI is a screening measure and does not directly measure body fat.
Question 3General Diagnosis
A positive Babinski sign in an adult is most consistent with which finding?
- Cerebellar disease
- Peripheral nerve lesion
- Upper motor neuron lesion Correct answer.
- Lower motor neuron syndrome
Explanation
A positive Babinski sign in an adult reflects loss of corticospinal inhibition and indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. The normal adult response is plantar flexion of the toes. Infants may have a positive sign until the corticospinal tract matures.
Question 4General Diagnosis
Which maneuver elicits meningeal irritation by flexing the hip to 90 degrees and then extending the knee?
- Lasegue sign
- Obturator sign
- Brudzinski sign
- Kernig sign Correct answer.
Explanation
Kernig sign is positive when knee extension after hip flexion produces resistance or pain, suggesting meningeal irritation. Brudzinski sign is neck flexion causing hip or knee flexion. Obturator sign assesses pelvic irritation in appendicitis.
Question 5General Diagnosis
Clinical jaundice is usually first visible when serum bilirubin exceeds approximately which level?
- 2.5 to 3 mg/dL Correct answer.
- 15 to 20 mg/dL
- 0.5 to 1 mg/dL
- 10 to 12 mg/dL
Explanation
Jaundice becomes clinically visible when serum bilirubin is roughly 2.5 to 3 mg/dL. Lower levels may be biochemically abnormal but not visibly icteric. Higher levels produce more obvious jaundice but are not the threshold.
Question 6General Diagnosis
Which fasting plasma glucose range is considered normal in a nonpregnant adult?
- 126 to 200 mg/dL
- 100 to 125 mg/dL
- 40 to 60 mg/dL
- 70 to 99 mg/dL Correct answer.
Explanation
Normal fasting plasma glucose is 70 to 99 mg/dL. Impaired fasting glucose is 100 to 125 mg/dL, and a fasting value of 126 mg/dL or higher suggests diabetes when confirmed. Hypoglycemia thresholds are lower.
Question 7General Diagnosis
Capillary refill time is considered prolonged when it exceeds approximately which duration?
- 1 second
- 2 seconds Correct answer.
- 4 seconds
- 0.5 second
Explanation
Capillary refill is considered normal when color returns within 2 seconds; prolongation beyond that may suggest poor peripheral perfusion. It is nonspecific and affected by ambient temperature. It is one component of the perfusion examination.
Question 8General Diagnosis
A tuberculin skin test induration of 5 mm or greater is considered positive in which group?
- Persons with HIV infection Correct answer.
- Healthy adults with no risk factors
- Recent immigrants from low-incidence countries
- Children younger than 4 years
Explanation
A 5-mm induration threshold is used for persons at highest risk, including HIV infection, recent close contacts, and immunocompromised patients. Lower-risk adults generally use a 15-mm threshold, while 10 mm applies to several moderate-risk groups. Induration, not erythema, is measured.
Question 9General Diagnosis
Which murmur is characteristic of mitral stenosis?
- Early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border
- Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the base
- Holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla
- Diastolic rumble at the apex with an opening snap Correct answer.
Explanation
Mitral stenosis produces a low-pitched diastolic rumble heard best at the apex, often with an opening snap. The murmur follows the opening snap and may be accentuated by exercise. Systolic murmurs at the base or apex suggest different valve lesions.
Question 10General Diagnosis
A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids is most characteristic of which lesion?
- Mitral regurgitation
- Aortic stenosis Correct answer.
- Mitral valve stenosis
- Aortic regurgitation
Explanation
Aortic stenosis causes a systolic ejection murmur that peaks in mid-systole and radiates to the carotids. It may be accompanied by a delayed and diminished carotid upstroke. Mitral regurgitation is holosystolic and radiates to the axilla.
Question 11General Diagnosis
Pain in the right lower quadrant when the left lower quadrant is palpated is known as which sign?
- McBurney sign
- Rovsing sign Correct answer.
- Psoas sign
- Obturator sign
Explanation
Rovsing sign refers to right lower quadrant pain elicited by palpating the left lower quadrant, suggesting appendiceal irritation. McBurney point tenderness is a separate finding. Psoas and obturator signs assess local muscle irritation.
Question 12General Diagnosis
Inspiratory arrest during deep palpation of the right upper quadrant is which sign?
- Grey Turner flank sign
- Courvoisier sign
- Murphy sign Correct answer.
- Cullen periumbilical sign
Explanation
Murphy sign is inspiratory arrest during deep right upper quadrant palpation and supports acute cholecystitis. Courvoisier sign is a palpable, nontender gallbladder. Cullen and Grey Turner signs are periumbilical and flank ecchymoses seen in severe pancreatitis.
Question 13General Diagnosis
Increased anteroposterior chest diameter with hyperresonance is most typical of which condition?
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Correct answer.
- Large pleural effusion with dullness
- Acute pulmonary embolism with infarction
- Acute lobar pneumonia with consolidation
Explanation
COPD classically produces a barrel-shaped chest with increased anteroposterior diameter, hyperresonance, and decreased breath sounds. These changes reflect hyperinflation and air trapping. Pneumonia and effusion more often produce dullness and focal findings.
Question 14General Diagnosis
Which symptom most suggests left-sided heart failure?
- Painful hepatomegaly with ascites
- Jugular venous distension at 45 degrees
- Dependent peripheral edema
- Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea Correct answer.
Explanation
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a hallmark of left-sided heart failure, caused by pulmonary congestion when recumbent. Peripheral edema, jugular venous distension, and hepatomegaly reflect right-sided congestion. Orthopnea may accompany paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
Question 15General Diagnosis
Which set of findings best fits nephrotic syndrome?
- Hyperkalemia with metabolic acidosis
- Pyuria with dysuria and frequency
- Hematuria with marked hypertension
- Proteinuria with low albumin Correct answer.
Explanation
Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Hematuria and hypertension are more typical of nephritic syndrome. Pyuria and dysuria suggest urinary tract infection.
Question 16General Diagnosis
A positive urine nitrite test most strongly suggests infection by which organism?
- Enterococcus faecalis
- Escherichia coli Correct answer.
- Candida albicans
- Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Explanation
A positive nitrite test depends on nitrate-reducing Gram-negative bacteria, most commonly Escherichia coli. Enterococcus and Staphylococcus saprophyticus do not reliably reduce nitrate. Candida is a fungus and does not produce a positive nitrite result.
Question 17General Diagnosis
Which laboratory pattern is typical of primary hyperthyroidism?
- High TSH with low free T4
- High TSH with high free T4
- Low TSH with low free T4
- Low TSH with high free T4 Correct answer.
Explanation
Primary hyperthyroidism produces elevated thyroid hormone levels that suppress pituitary TSH, giving low TSH with high free T4. The opposite pattern suggests primary hypothyroidism. Low TSH with low free T4 suggests central hypothyroidism.
Question 18General Diagnosis
Which acid-base pattern is most typical of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- Normal anion gap acidosis with hyperchloremia
- Metabolic alkalosis with high bicarbonate
- Respiratory alkalosis with low PaCO2
- Anion-gap metabolic acidosis with ketonemia Correct answer.
Explanation
Diabetic ketoacidosis causes an anion-gap metabolic acidosis due to accumulation of ketone bodies. Bicarbonate is low, and compensatory hyperventilation lowers PaCO2. Hyperchloremic normal-gap acidosis is more typical after treatment or in other conditions.
Question 19General Diagnosis
Which laboratory pattern is most consistent with iron deficiency anemia?
- Normocytic anemia with high reticulocytes
- Microcytic anemia with low ferritin Correct answer.
- Hemolytic anemia with high LDH
- Macrocytic anemia with low B12
Explanation
Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic and hypochromic, with low ferritin reflecting depleted iron stores. Low MCV and low ferritin are the most useful screening pattern. B12 deficiency is macrocytic, while hemolysis raises reticulocytes and LDH.
Question 20General Diagnosis
Which ECG finding is an early sign of hyperkalemia?
- ST-segment elevation
- Prolonged QT interval
- Peaked T waves Correct answer.
- Prominent U waves
Explanation
Hyperkalemia typically produces tall, peaked T waves early, followed by QRS widening and sine-wave patterns as severity increases. Prominent U waves suggest hypokalemia. Prolonged QT can occur with hypocalcemia or hypokalemia.
Question 21General Diagnosis
Which laboratory pattern is most consistent with primary hyperaldosteronism?
- High renin with normal aldosterone
- High cortisol with low ACTH
- Low aldosterone with high renin
- High aldosterone with low renin Correct answer.
Explanation
Primary hyperaldosteronism is autonomous aldosterone secretion that suppresses renin, often causing hypertension and hypokalemia. Secondary hyperaldosteronism shows high renin with high aldosterone. Cortisol patterns relate to Cushing syndrome.
Question 22General Diagnosis
Which laboratory pattern is most consistent with SIADH?
- Hyperkalemia with metabolic acidosis and low bicarbonate
- Hypernatremia with dilute urine and low urine osmolality
- Euvolemic hyponatremia with concentrated urine Correct answer.
- Hypovolemic hyponatremia with low urine sodium
Explanation
SIADH causes euvolemic hyponatremia with inappropriately concentrated urine and high urine sodium. Serum osmolality is low, and other causes of hyponatremia should be excluded. Hypovolemic hyponatremia usually has low urine sodium.
Question 23General Diagnosis
Which finding best supports acute pancreatitis?
- Lipase greater than three times normal Correct answer.
- Lipase less than twice the upper limit of normal
- Hyperbilirubinemia without abdominal pain
- Leukopenia with marked eosinophilia
Explanation
Acute pancreatitis is supported by characteristic epigastric pain plus lipase or amylase greater than three times the upper limit of normal. Lipase is more specific and remains elevated longer than amylase. Bilirubin elevation alone is nonspecific.
Question 24General Diagnosis
A 72-year-old with new temporal headache and jaw claudication should be evaluated for which condition?
- Trigeminal neuralgia of the mandible
- Migraine with visual aura
- Tension-type headache
- Giant cell arteritis Correct answer.
Explanation
New temporal headache with jaw claudication in an older adult suggests giant cell arteritis, a vision-threatening vasculitis. ESR and CRP are often elevated, and high-dose corticosteroids should be started promptly when suspected. Temporal artery biopsy may confirm the diagnosis.
Question 25General Diagnosis
Which finding is most characteristic of carbon monoxide poisoning?
- Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia
- Normal SpO2 with high carboxyhemoglobin Correct answer.
- Central cyanosis with a low arterial PaO2
- Fever with marked leukocytosis
Explanation
Carbon monoxide binds hemoglobin and is measured by carboxyhemoglobin, while standard pulse oximetry cannot distinguish carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin. Patients may have a normal PaO2 and misleadingly normal oxygen saturation. Cherry-red skin is a late and inconsistent finding.
Question 26General Diagnosis
The patellar (knee-jerk) reflex primarily assesses the integrity of which nerve root?
- T10
- C6
- S1
- L4 Correct answer.
Explanation
The knee jerk is a monosynaptic stretch reflex whose arc runs through L2–L4, with L4 contributing most; a depressed patellar reflex therefore suggests an L4 radiculopathy or a femoral nerve lesion. Comparing it with the biceps jerk (C5–C6) and the ankle jerk (S1) allows the examiner to localize the level of a root lesion.
Question 27General Diagnosis
Orthostatic hypotension is defined by which blood pressure change after standing?
- A diastolic fall of at least 30 mm Hg with no change in systolic pressure
- A systolic rise of at least 20 mm Hg after standing from supine
- A systolic fall of at least 10 mm Hg sustained while standing
- A systolic fall of 20 mm Hg or diastolic fall of 10 mm Hg Correct answer.
Explanation
The accepted criterion is a sustained drop of at least 20 mm Hg systolic or at least 10 mm Hg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing (or upright tilt). The finding reflects inadequate baroreflex compensation, commonly from volume depletion, autonomic neuropathy, or vasoactive medication.
Question 28General Diagnosis
A patient is steady with eyes open but sways and nearly falls when the feet are placed together and the eyes are closed. This finding localizes the problem to which structure?
- Vestibular labyrinth
- Cerebellar vermis
- Dorsal columns Correct answer.
- Corticospinal tract
Explanation
A true positive Romberg sign appears only after eye closure, indicating that balance was being maintained by vision in place of lost proprioceptive input carried in the dorsal columns. Cerebellar and vestibular lesions characteristically produce unsteadiness even with the eyes open, which is why the test is performed both ways.
Question 29General Diagnosis
A patient has a documented conductive hearing loss in the left ear. On Rinne testing of that ear, which result is expected?
- Air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in the left ear
- Bone conduction is heard longer than air conduction in the left ear Correct answer.
- Bone conduction is heard only in the right ear
- Both air and bone conduction are absent in the left ear
Explanation
Rinne testing compares air conduction with bone conduction in the same ear; normally air conduction is heard longer (a positive Rinne). A conductive loss blocks the air pathway while bone-conducted sound still reaches the cochlea, so bone conduction outlasts air conduction and the test becomes abnormal (negative) in that ear.
Question 30General Diagnosis
Which finding best distinguishes papilledema from optic neuritis?
- Afferent pupillary defect
- Preserved visual acuity Correct answer.
- Pain with eye movement
- Unilateral disc swelling
Explanation
Papilledema is passive bilateral disc swelling from elevated intracranial pressure, and central visual acuity is typically spared until the process is advanced. Optic neuritis is an inflammatory optic nerve lesion that reduces acuity early and is usually unilateral and painful with eye movement.
Question 31General Diagnosis
A diagnostic test has a positive likelihood ratio of 10. How should this value be interpreted?
- The test is falsely positive in 10% of people who do not have the disease
- A positive result substantially raises disease probability Correct answer.
- Ten percent of people with the disease test negative
- A negative result excludes the disease with near certainty
Explanation
The positive likelihood ratio equals sensitivity divided by (1 minus specificity), and it multiplies the pretest odds to give the posttest odds. A value of 10 means a positive result makes disease roughly ten times more likely than it was before testing, a clinically important shift.
Question 32General Diagnosis
Dullness to percussion over Traube's space most directly suggests which abnormality?
- Splenomegaly Correct answer.
- Left pleural effusion
- Perforated peptic ulcer
- Hiatal hernia
Explanation
Traube's space is the normally tympanitic crescent over the gastric air bubble, bounded by the left costal margin, the sixth rib, and the midaxillary line. New dullness means something solid or fluid-filled has displaced that air, most often an enlarged spleen, and should be confirmed by palpation or imaging.
Question 33General Diagnosis
A patient with a large pericardial effusion shows a 16 mm Hg fall in systolic pressure during inspiration. What does this finding indicate?
- Cardiac tamponade Correct answer.
- A normal respiratory variation in blood pressure
- Severe aortic stenosis
- Constrictive pericarditis without tamponade
Explanation
Pulsus paradoxus is an inspiratory systolic decline greater than 10 mm Hg. When pericardial pressure is high, right ventricular filling is impaired during inspiration and the septum bows toward the left ventricle, exaggerating the normal respiratory variation; in a patient with a large effusion this points to tamponade.
Question 34General Diagnosis
On examination the uvula deviates to the left when the patient says "ah." Which lesion explains this finding?
- Left CN X
- Right CN XII
- Left CN XII
- Right CN X Correct answer.
Explanation
The palate is elevated by CN X, and when one side is weak the intact side pulls the uvula toward itself, so the uvula deviates away from the lesion. Deviation to the left therefore implies right-sided CN X weakness, whereas a CN XII lesion would cause the tongue to deviate toward the weak side.
Question 35Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Loss of pinprick sensation over the thumb and index finger most directly localizes to which cervical nerve root?
- C6 Correct answer.
- C8
- C5
- C7
Explanation
The C6 dermatome includes the thumb and index finger. C5 supplies the lateral arm, C7 the middle finger, and C8 the little finger.
Question 36Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension most directly implicates which nerve root?
- L5 Correct answer.
- L4
- S1
- L3
Explanation
L5 innervates tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus, producing ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension. L4 contributes to ankle dorsiflexion but not great toe extension as strongly, and S1 drives plantarflexion.
Question 37Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
The biceps brachii reflex is most closely associated with which nerve root?
- T1
- C4
- C5 Correct answer.
- C7
Explanation
The biceps reflex is mediated primarily by the C5 root through the musculocutaneous nerve. C7 contributes to the triceps reflex, and T1 contributes to intrinsic hand muscles.
Question 38Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
An absent ankle jerk with weak plantarflexion most directly points to which nerve root?
- S2
- L5
- S1 Correct answer.
- L4
Explanation
The S1 root mediates the ankle jerk and much of gastrocnemius-soleus plantarflexion. L4 is associated with the patellar reflex, while L5 is associated with dorsiflexion and great toe extension.
Question 39Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
A positive straight leg raise test most directly suggests irritation of which nerve roots?
- S2-S4
- L2-L3
- L1-L2
- L4-S1 Correct answer.
Explanation
The straight leg raise tension sign commonly reproduces radicular pain from the lower lumbar roots, especially L4 through S1. Upper lumbar roots are better assessed with femoral stretch, and sacral roots do not produce a classic SLR response.
Question 40Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
A positive Spurling test in a patient with arm pain most directly supports which diagnosis?
- Rotator cuff tear
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- Cervical radiculopathy Correct answer.
- Ulnar neuropathy at the elbow
Explanation
Spurling test narrows the cervical neural foramen and provokes radicular symptoms. Rotator cuff and peripheral nerve disorders are not reproduced by cervical extension and rotation.
Question 41Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Trendelenburg sign during single-leg stance indicates weakness of which muscle group?
- Hip extensors
- Knee flexors
- Hip adductors
- Hip abductors Correct answer.
Explanation
The hip abductors, primarily gluteus medius and minimus, stabilize the pelvis during single-leg stance. Their weakness causes the contralateral pelvis to drop.
Question 42Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
A positive McMurray test most directly suggests injury to which structure?
- Posterior cruciate ligament
- Medial collateral ligament
- Meniscus Correct answer.
- Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
McMurray test loads the menisci during flexion and rotation and reproduces pain or clicking with meniscal tears. ACL and PCL integrity are assessed with drawer and Lachman tests, while MCL is assessed with valgus stress.
Question 43Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Which finding is a classic upper motor neuron sign?
- Babinski sign Correct answer.
- Areflexia
- Muscle atrophy
- Fasciculations
Explanation
Upper motor neuron lesions produce disinhibition of the plantar reflex, causing an extensor Babinski response. Areflexia, fasciculations, and prominent atrophy are lower motor neuron findings.
Question 44Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Atrophy and fasciculations with reduced deep tendon reflexes most directly localize the lesion to which region?
- Lower motor neuron Correct answer.
- Upper motor neuron
- Cerebellum
- Basal ganglia
Explanation
Lower motor neuron lesions interrupt the final common pathway, producing atrophy, fasciculations, and hyporeflexia. Upper motor neuron lesions instead cause spasticity and hyperreflexia.
Question 45Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
In a patient with cervical spondylosis, which finding most suggests myelopathy rather than isolated radiculopathy?
- Dermatomal arm pain
- Positive Spurling test
- Reduced triceps reflex
- Spastic gait Correct answer.
Explanation
Myelopathy reflects cord compression and produces upper motor neuron signs such as spastic gait, hyperreflexia, and Babinski sign. Radiculopathy tends to produce dermatomal pain, reflex loss, and a positive Spurling test.
Question 46Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
A patient reports an electric shock sensation traveling down the spine and into the limbs with neck flexion. This is most consistent with which sign?
- Lhermitte sign Correct answer.
- Romberg test of proprioceptive balance
- Hoffmann reflex
- Babinski plantar response
Explanation
Lhermitte sign is an electric shock-like sensation evoked by neck flexion and suggests dorsal column or cervical cord irritation. Hoffmann and Babinski are upper motor neuron signs, and Romberg assesses proprioceptive balance.
Question 47Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Which combination is most concerning for cauda equina syndrome and warrants urgent imaging?
- Saddle anesthesia with urinary retention Correct answer.
- Chronic low back pain with morning stiffness
- Unilateral ankle pain with swelling
- Dermatomal itch without weakness
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome classically causes saddle anesthesia, bowel or bladder dysfunction, and bilateral lower extremity symptoms. It is a surgical emergency requiring urgent MRI.
Question 48Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Which knee examination test is most sensitive for an anterior cruciate ligament tear?
- Lachman test Correct answer.
- Valgus stress test
- Posterior drawer test
- McMurray test
Explanation
The Lachman test assesses anterior tibial translation with the knee slightly flexed and is the most sensitive clinical test for ACL insufficiency. McMurray assesses menisci, posterior drawer assesses PCL, and valgus stress assesses MCL.
Question 49Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
A positive posterior drawer test most directly indicates injury to which structure?
- Posterior cruciate ligament Correct answer.
- Medial meniscus
- Anterior cruciate ligament of the knee
- Patellar tendon
Explanation
The posterior drawer test detects posterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur, reflecting PCL insufficiency. ACL injury is assessed by Lachman or anterior drawer testing.
Question 50Neuromusculoskeletal Diagnosis
Inability to hold the arm abducted against gravity after passive abduction to 90 degrees suggests weakness of which rotator cuff muscle?
- Subscapularis
- Teres minor
- Infraspinatus
- Supraspinatus Correct answer.
Explanation
The drop arm test reflects supraspinatus dysfunction, because this muscle initiates and maintains early arm abduction. Infraspinatus and teres minor are external rotators, and subscapularis is an internal rotator.