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NLN NACE Adult Health study materials
NLN NACE Adult Health study resources

NLN NACE Adult Health practice questions

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Question 1Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which immunization is routinely recommended for adults age 50 and older to reduce the risk of shingles?

  1. Annual inactivated influenza vaccine
  2. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
  3. Tetanus-diphtheria booster
  4. Recombinant zoster vaccine Correct answer.

Explanation

Herpes zoster risk rises with age because of waning cell-mediated immunity, so a zoster vaccine is recommended starting at age 50. Tetanus, pneumococcal, and influenza vaccines address different pathogens and do not prevent shingles.

Question 2Health Promotion and Maintenance

A healthy 30-year-old woman asks about screening for cervical cancer. What is the recommended approach?

  1. Begin screening at age 21 and continue at recommended intervals Correct answer.
  2. Screen only if she has a family history of cervical cancer
  3. Wait until age 40 and then screen every 5 years
  4. Skip screening because she has no symptoms

Explanation

Cervical cancer screening begins at age 21 regardless of symptoms, using cytology or HPV-based strategies at guideline-specified intervals. Symptoms are not a trigger for screening, and family history does not replace routine screening.

Question 3Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which finding best indicates that a client understands a heart-healthy diet?

  1. Drinking whole milk with every meal
  2. Adding salt to food at the table for flavor
  3. Snacking on processed deli meats daily
  4. Choosing baked fish with steamed vegetables over fried chicken Correct answer.

Explanation

A heart-healthy diet emphasizes lean protein, vegetables, and limited saturated fat and sodium. Fried foods, added table salt, whole milk, and processed meats increase saturated fat or sodium intake.

Question 4Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which statement by a pregnant client suggests she understands safe exercise during an uncomplicated pregnancy?

  1. I will exercise only in hot yoga classes
  2. I will begin a high-intensity interval program
  3. I will walk for 30 minutes most days of the week Correct answer.
  4. I will hold my breath during every lift

Explanation

Moderate aerobic activity such as walking most days is recommended in uncomplicated pregnancy. High-intensity new programs, overheating, and breath-holding are avoided because of maternal and fetal risk.

Question 5Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which behavior is the most effective single way to reduce the spread of respiratory infections?

  1. Taking daily vitamin C supplements
  2. Performing hand hygiene frequently Correct answer.
  3. Wearing gloves at all times in public
  4. Avoiding all outdoor activity

Explanation

Frequent hand hygiene interrupts transmission of respiratory and contact pathogens and is a cornerstone of infection prevention. Gloves, supplements, and avoiding outdoors do not substitute for hand hygiene.

Question 6Health Promotion and Maintenance

A 55-year-old man with no symptoms asks about colorectal cancer screening. Which statement reflects current guidance?

  1. Screening is needed only with a family history
  2. Screening begins only after age 70
  3. Screening should begin at age 45 for average-risk adults Correct answer.
  4. Screening is unnecessary without symptoms

Explanation

Average-risk colorectal cancer screening is recommended beginning at age 45. Symptoms and family history are not prerequisites for routine screening.

Question 7Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client with type 2 diabetes asks how often to check blood glucose when using insulin. Which response is most appropriate?

  1. Check once a month regardless of symptoms
  2. Stop checking once your A1C is below 9%
  3. Check as often as your care team recommends, often before meals and at bedtime Correct answer.
  4. Check only when you feel shaky

Explanation

Insulin users need glucose monitoring at a frequency individualized by the care team, commonly before meals and at bedtime. Symptom-only or monthly checks miss hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, and A1C does not replace daily monitoring.

Question 8Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which client should receive priority teaching about fall prevention?

  1. A 40-year-old recovering from appendectomy
  2. A 25-year-old with a sprained ankle
  3. A 32-year-old with well-controlled asthma
  4. A 78-year-old taking a sedative and a diuretic Correct answer.

Explanation

Advanced age combined with sedatives and a diuretic raises fall risk through sedation, orthostasis, and nocturia. The other clients lack this combination of age-related and medication-related risk.

Question 9Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client is in the contemplation stage of change for smoking cessation. Which intervention best matches this stage?

  1. Provide a nicotine patch immediately
  2. Explore ambivalence and discuss benefits of quitting Correct answer.
  3. Avoid discussing smoking until the client asks
  4. Congratulate the client on 6 months of abstinence

Explanation

In contemplation, the client is aware of the problem but ambivalent, so exploring pros and cons supports movement toward action. Immediate pharmacotherapy, relapse-prevention praise, and avoidance fit other stages.

Question 10Health Promotion and Maintenance

A 65-year-old woman has a blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg on two visits. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. Hypotension requiring fluid resuscitation
  2. Hypertensive crisis requiring emergency treatment
  3. Stage 1 hypertension that warrants lifestyle counseling and follow-up Correct answer.
  4. Normal blood pressure requiring no action

Explanation

Systolic 130-139 or diastolic 80-89 mm Hg falls in stage 1 hypertension, which warrants lifestyle counseling and reassessment. It is not normal, crisis-level, or hypotensive.

Question 11Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which instruction should the nurse give a client beginning a new prescription for a statin?

  1. Stop the drug if any nausea occurs
  2. Double the dose if a dose is missed
  3. Take the drug only when cholesterol is high on a lab result
  4. Report unexplained muscle pain or weakness promptly Correct answer.

Explanation

Statin-associated muscle symptoms can signal myopathy and should be reported for evaluation. Nausea alone does not warrant stopping, missed doses are not doubled, and statins are taken on schedule rather than by lab result.

Question 12Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client asks how to perform a breast self-awareness exam. Which instruction is correct?

  1. Perform the exam only once a year on a birthday
  2. Avoid examining the axillary area
  3. Use the exam to replace mammography
  4. Report any new lump, skin change, or nipple discharge to a provider Correct answer.

Explanation

Breast self-awareness focuses on recognizing changes and reporting them promptly. It complements rather than replaces mammography and includes the axilla and skin.

Question 13Health Promotion and Maintenance

Which client is at highest risk for vitamin D deficiency and should be counseled about supplementation?

  1. A 35-year-old who eats fortified dairy daily
  2. A 70-year-old homebound adult with limited sun exposure Correct answer.
  3. A 22-year-old outdoor runner
  4. A 28-year-old with a broken toe

Explanation

Older, homebound adults have reduced skin synthesis and sun exposure, raising deficiency risk. Outdoor activity, fortified intake, and acute injury do not carry the same risk.

Question 14Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client with a new colostomy asks about diet. Which recommendation is appropriate?

  1. Drink fluids only with breakfast
  2. Avoid all cooked vegetables
  3. Eat small, frequent meals and chew food thoroughly Correct answer.
  4. Increase high-fiber foods rapidly in the first week

Explanation

Small frequent meals and thorough chewing help the bowel adapt and reduce blockage and gas. Rapid fiber increases, fluid restriction, and eliminating cooked vegetables are not advised.

Question 15Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client reports drinking six cans of beer daily. Which screening tool is most appropriate to use first?

  1. A validated alcohol screening questionnaire such as AUDIT-C Correct answer.
  2. A pain intensity scale
  3. A fall risk assessment
  4. A depression screening scale

Explanation

Validated tools such as AUDIT-C quantify alcohol use and identify hazardous drinking. Depression, fall risk, and pain scales do not measure alcohol consumption.

Question 16Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client at 28 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority nursing action?

  1. Instruct the client to perform a fetal movement count and contact the provider Correct answer.
  2. Tell the client to increase caffeine intake
  3. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal
  4. Advise the client to return in 2 weeks

Explanation

Decreased fetal movement warrants prompt evaluation, often beginning with a movement count and provider notification. Reassurance without assessment, delayed follow-up, or caffeine are unsafe.

Question 17Health Promotion and Maintenance

A 70-year-old client has not had a tetanus booster in 12 years. Which action is correct?

  1. Administer a tetanus-diphtheria booster now Correct answer.
  2. Order a tetanus antibody titer before any booster
  3. Withhold the booster until age 80
  4. Give only the influenza vaccine

Explanation

Tetanus-diphtheria boosters are recommended every 10 years, so a 12-year interval warrants vaccination. Age does not delay it, and routine titers are not required before boosting.

Question 18Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client with prediabetes asks how to reduce progression to diabetes. Which combination is most strongly supported?

  1. Modest weight loss and 150 minutes of moderate activity weekly Correct answer.
  2. Starting insulin therapy immediately
  3. Checking glucose only when symptomatic
  4. Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet

Explanation

Intensive lifestyle change with modest weight loss and regular moderate activity reduces progression to type 2 diabetes. Eliminating carbohydrates, immediate insulin, and symptom-only monitoring are not first-line.

Question 19Health Promotion and Maintenance

A client taking warfarin asks about diet. Which statement shows correct understanding?

  1. I should avoid all green vegetables permanently
  2. I should double my warfarin when I eat salad
  3. I should keep my intake of leafy greens consistent day to day Correct answer.
  4. I should take vitamin K supplements daily

Explanation

Vitamin K intake should be consistent rather than eliminated, so warfarin dosing remains predictable. Avoiding greens entirely, self-adjusting doses, and adding vitamin K supplements are unsafe.

Question 20Health Promotion and Maintenance

A community nurse is planning a program to increase mammography uptake among underserved women. Which strategy best reflects the health belief model?

  1. Schedule screenings only on weekday mornings
  2. Reduce barriers and emphasize personal susceptibility and benefits Correct answer.
  3. Focus solely on the biology of breast cancer
  4. Provide only written pamphlets in English

Explanation

The health belief model predicts behavior from perceived susceptibility, severity, benefits, and barriers, so lowering barriers and raising perceived risk promotes screening. Pamphlets alone, restricted scheduling, and biology-only content do not address these constructs.

Question 21Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to care for a client with an active draining wound. Which action best interrupts transmission of infection at the portal of exit?

  1. Wearing clean gloves and a gown when contact is likely
  2. Ensuring the wound dressing is intact and contained Correct answer.
  3. Teaching the client to cover the mouth when coughing
  4. Placing the client in a private room with the door closed

Explanation

The portal of exit is the route the pathogen leaves the reservoir, which for a draining wound is the drainage itself. Keeping the dressing intact and contained reduces the release of organisms into the environment. Gloves protect the caregiver at the portal of entry, not the exit.

Question 22Safety and Infection Control

Which action demonstrates the correct technique for routine hand hygiene with alcohol-based rub?

  1. Use the rub only after visibly soiled hands are wiped
  2. Apply rub and dry hands with a paper towel
  3. Rinse hands with water first, then apply the rub
  4. Apply rub to dry hands and rub until completely dry Correct answer.

Explanation

Alcohol-based hand rub is applied to dry hands and rubbed until the product evaporates completely. Water dilutes the product and reduces its effectiveness. Visible soil requires soap and water rather than rub.

Question 23Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is removing personal protective equipment after caring for a client on contact precautions. Which item is removed first?

  1. The mask or respirator
  2. The gown
  3. The eye protection
  4. The gloves Correct answer.

Explanation

PPE is removed in an order that minimizes contamination, beginning with the most contaminated item, which is usually the gloves. The gown, then eye protection, then mask follow. Removing gloves first limits spread to other equipment and skin.

Question 24Safety and Infection Control

A client is placed on airborne precautions for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. Which room assignment is appropriate?

  1. A room shared with another client who has the same diagnosis
  2. A standard room with the curtain drawn
  3. A positive-pressure room with the door open
  4. A negative-pressure room with the door closed Correct answer.

Explanation

Airborne precautions require an airborne infection isolation room with negative pressure and a closed door to contain droplet nuclei. Positive pressure would push air out into the corridor. Cohorting is not appropriate for suspected tuberculosis before confirmation.

Question 25Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection. Which action is most important for preventing spread?

  1. Wearing a mask when within 3 feet of the client
  2. Washing hands with soap and water after contact Correct answer.
  3. Using an alcohol-based rub before and after contact
  4. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room

Explanation

C. difficile spores survive alcohol-based hand rub, so soap and water with friction is required to remove them mechanically. Contact precautions with gown and gloves are also used. Airborne precautions are not indicated.

Question 26Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection and sustains a needlestick injury. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Report the incident to the supervisor
  2. Squeeze the site to express blood
  3. Wash the site with soap and water Correct answer.
  4. Obtain the source client's consent to test

Explanation

Immediate care of a needlestick injury is washing the site with soap and water to reduce contamination. Reporting and source testing follow. Squeezing or milking the wound is not recommended because it may increase tissue trauma.

Question 27Safety and Infection Control

Which statement by a nursing assistant indicates correct understanding of standard precautions?

  1. I will wear gloves whenever I might contact blood or body fluids Correct answer.
  2. A gown is required for every client interaction
  3. Gloves are needed only when the client has a known infection
  4. Masks are needed whenever I enter any client's room

Explanation

Standard precautions require gloves when contact with blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, or mucous membranes is anticipated, regardless of diagnosis. Precautions are based on the task, not on known infection status. Gowns and masks are used when splashes or sprays are anticipated.

Question 28Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a dressing change. Which action contaminates the field?

  1. Keeping the field at waist level and visible
  2. Reaching across the field with a bare arm Correct answer.
  3. Holding sterile items above the field before placing them
  4. Adding items to the field using sterile forceps

Explanation

Reaching across a sterile field with a bare, nonsterile arm contaminates the field. Items are dropped from above, the field is kept above waist level and within view, and sterile forceps may be used to add items.

Question 29Safety and Infection Control

A client with a latex allergy requires a urinary catheter insertion. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Use a silicone catheter and latex-free supplies Correct answer.
  2. Apply a latex-free tourniquet only to the arm
  3. Ask the client to hold their breath during insertion
  4. Double-glove with latex gloves for protection

Explanation

For a latex-allergic client, all supplies that contact the client or staff should be latex-free, and a silicone catheter is appropriate. Latex gloves must be avoided entirely. Breath-holding is unrelated to latex allergy.

Question 30Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is transporting a client who is on droplet precautions for influenza. Which action is correct?

  1. Have the client wear a surgical mask during transport Correct answer.
  2. Remove the client's mask during transport
  3. Skip hand hygiene to shorten transport time
  4. Place the client in a negative-pressure room for transport

Explanation

When a client on droplet precautions must be transported, the client wears a surgical mask to contain respiratory droplets. Transport should be limited, and hand hygiene and precautions continue. Negative-pressure rooms are not used for transport.

Question 31Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for an older adult client at risk for falls. Which intervention is most effective for preventing falls at night?

  1. Keeping the bed in the highest position
  2. Using a bed alarm and keeping the call light within reach Correct answer.
  3. Dimming all lights in the room and hallway
  4. Restraining the client's arms at night

Explanation

Bed alarms and easy access to the call light help the client summon help and alert staff to unassisted movement. Beds should be kept low with rails as appropriate. Restraints increase injury risk and are not a fall-prevention measure.

Question 32Safety and Infection Control

A nurse finds a client on the floor after a fall. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Move the client back to bed quickly
  2. Assess the client for injury before moving them Correct answer.
  3. Complete an incident report before assessment
  4. Call the family to report the fall

Explanation

After a fall, the nurse first assesses for injury, including level of consciousness, pain, and obvious deformity, before moving the client. Movement may worsen a fracture or spinal injury. Incident reports are completed after care is provided.

Question 33Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is applying restraints to a client who is confused and pulling at IV lines. Which action is correct?

  1. Leave the restraint in place until the next shift
  2. Apply the restraint tightly to prevent escape
  3. Tie the restraint to the side rail
  4. Use the least restrictive device that meets the need Correct answer.

Explanation

Restraints must be the least restrictive option that protects the client, and alternatives should be tried first. Restraints are never tied to side rails and must be released and assessed at regular intervals. Tight application impairs circulation.

Question 34Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a central venous catheter. Which action best prevents a central line-associated bloodstream infection?

  1. Scrub the hub with an antiseptic and allow it to dry Correct answer.
  2. Use clean gloves for all catheter care
  3. Change the dressing only when it falls off
  4. Flush the line with tap water before use

Explanation

Scrubbing the catheter hub with an antiseptic and allowing it to dry before access reduces contamination and central line-associated bloodstream infections. Sterile technique is required for dressing changes, and dressings are changed on schedule.

Question 35Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

  1. Disconnecting the tubing to obtain urine samples
  2. Irrigating the catheter routinely each shift
  3. Hanging the drainage bag on the bed rail
  4. Keeping the drainage bag below the level of the bladder Correct answer.

Explanation

Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level prevents backflow of urine into the bladder. The system should remain closed, and routine irrigation is not recommended. Samples are obtained with a sterile syringe from the sampling port.

Question 36Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is teaching a client about surgical wound care at home. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

  1. I will wash my hands before and after changing the dressing Correct answer.
  2. I will clean the wound from the edges toward the center
  3. I will keep the wound open to the air at all times
  4. I will reuse the same dressing for one week

Explanation

Hand hygiene before and after dressing changes prevents introducing organisms into the wound. Dressings are changed per orders, and cleaning proceeds from the clean center outward. Wounds are covered as directed.

Question 37Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to care for a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which PPE is required in addition to standard precautions?

  1. A face shield only
  2. Gloves only
  3. An N95 respirator and a gown and gloves as needed Correct answer.
  4. A surgical mask only

Explanation

Care of a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires an N95 respirator fit-tested for the nurse, plus gown and gloves when contact with body fluids is anticipated. A surgical mask does not filter droplet nuclei adequately for the caregiver.

Question 38Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is caring for a client who has an order for neutropenic precautions. Which action is appropriate?

  1. Screen visitors for illness and avoid sick visitors Correct answer.
  2. Use a shared bathroom with other clients
  3. Place fresh flowers in the room
  4. Allow the client to eat raw fruits and vegetables

Explanation

Neutropenic precautions protect the immunocompromised client by limiting exposure to pathogens, including screening visitors for illness. Fresh flowers, raw produce, and shared bathrooms increase exposure to organisms.

Question 39Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important for preventing a transfusion reaction?

  1. Add medications to the blood bag before infusion
  2. Verify the client and blood product with a second qualified person Correct answer.
  3. Warm the blood in a microwave before infusion
  4. Infuse the blood rapidly through a small-gauge needle

Explanation

Two-person verification of the client identity and the blood product at the bedside prevents ABO incompatibility errors, the most serious cause of transfusion reaction. Blood is not warmed in a microwave, medications are not added to the bag, and a larger-gauge needle is used.

Question 40Safety and Infection Control

A nurse is teaching a client about safe use of oxygen at home. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

  1. I will store oxygen tanks near a heater for warmth
  2. I will smoke only in the room with the oxygen off
  3. I will keep the oxygen away from open flames and post signs Correct answer.
  4. I will use petroleum jelly on my nose under the cannula

Explanation

Oxygen supports combustion, so it must be kept away from open flames, heat sources, and smoking, with warning signs posted. Petroleum-based products are flammable and avoided near oxygen.

Question 41Basic Care and Comfort

A client is on strict bed rest. Which nursing action best prevents pressure injury formation over the sacrum?

  1. Massage the reddened area vigorously
  2. Place a rubber ring under the sacrum
  3. Reposition the client at scheduled intervals Correct answer.
  4. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 60 degrees

Explanation

Pressure injuries result from unrelieved pressure; regularly turning and repositioning the client redistributes pressure and restores perfusion to at-risk areas. Massage, high Fowler positioning, and ring cushions all increase tissue damage or shear.

Question 42Basic Care and Comfort

A client reports pain rated 7 on a 0-to-10 scale. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Document the pain score and reassess in one hour
  2. Administer the prescribed analgesic as ordered
  3. Explore the character, location, and aggravating factors of the pain Correct answer.
  4. Reposition the client and apply a warm compress

Explanation

A complete pain assessment establishes the nature of the pain and guides appropriate intervention. Only after characterizing the pain can the nurse select and evaluate the correct comfort measures.

Question 43Basic Care and Comfort

Which position is most appropriate for a client receiving a tube feeding to reduce the risk of aspiration?

  1. Prone
  2. Semi-Fowler with head of bed at 30 to 45 degrees Correct answer.
  3. Flat supine
  4. Trendelenburg

Explanation

Elevating the head of the bed at least 30 degrees uses gravity to keep formula in the stomach and reduces reflux and aspiration. Supine, Trendelenburg, and prone positions promote regurgitation.

Question 44Basic Care and Comfort

A nurse is providing a bed bath to a client. Which action best maintains the client's comfort and dignity?

  1. Complete the bath quickly without speaking
  2. Use hot water to promote vasodilation
  3. Wash from distal extremities toward the heart
  4. Expose only the body part being washed Correct answer.

Explanation

Exposing only the area being cleansed preserves warmth, privacy, and dignity while preventing chilling. Water should be comfortably warm, and the nurse should communicate throughout care.

Question 45Basic Care and Comfort

Which finding indicates that a client's oral care has been effective?

  1. The tongue is coated and dry
  2. The mucous membranes are pink and moist Correct answer.
  3. The gums bleed easily on contact
  4. The client reports a bitter taste

Explanation

Pink, moist mucous membranes without coating or bleeding indicate effective oral hygiene and adequate hydration. Coating, bleeding, and unpleasant taste suggest inadequate care.

Question 46Basic Care and Comfort

A client is at risk for falls. Which intervention most directly addresses the risk of injury during ambulation?

  1. Apply a bed alarm
  2. Provide nonskid footwear and assist with transfers Correct answer.
  3. Keep the call light within reach
  4. Raise all four side rails

Explanation

Nonskid footwear and physical assistance during transfers directly reduce slipping and loss of balance, the immediate mechanisms of fall injury. Other measures support safety but do not address ambulation mechanics.

Question 47Basic Care and Comfort

A client with an indwelling urinary catheter needs perineal care. Which technique is correct?

  1. Cleanse from the meatus outward using a new wipe for each stroke Correct answer.
  2. Use the same washcloth for the entire perineal area
  3. Cleanse from the anus toward the meatus
  4. Cleanse only the external catheter tubing

Explanation

Cleansing from the meatus outward moves away from the urinary opening and reduces the risk of introducing organisms into the urinary tract. A new wipe per stroke prevents cross-contamination.

Question 48Basic Care and Comfort

A nurse is assessing a client's pain using the PQRST mnemonic. Which element does the "R" represent?

  1. Radiation of the pain Correct answer.
  2. Relief measures tried
  3. Respiratory rate at onset
  4. Range of motion limitations

Explanation

In PQRST, R stands for radiation, describing whether pain travels to other areas. The other letters address provocation, quality, severity, and timing.

Question 49Basic Care and Comfort

A client receiving continuous oxygen therapy reports dry, irritated nasal passages. Which intervention is most appropriate?

  1. Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the nares Correct answer.
  2. Discontinue oxygen therapy
  3. Use a nonhumidified nasal cannula
  4. Increase the oxygen flow rate

Explanation

Low-flow oxygen dries the nasal mucosa; a water-soluble lubricant soothes irritation without damaging tissue. Oxygen flow should not be altered without an order, and discontinuing therapy is unsafe.

Question 50Basic Care and Comfort

A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which item should the nurse confirm is allowed?

  1. Strained fruit juice Correct answer.
  2. Whole milk
  3. Cream of tomato soup
  4. Vanilla ice cream

Explanation

Clear liquids are transparent at room temperature; strained fruit juice meets this criterion. Cream soups, ice cream, and milk are opaque and belong to a full liquid diet.