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Question 1General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission by the President every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary?

  1. Article 263
  2. Article 280 Correct answer.
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 324

Explanation

Article 280 mandates that the President constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier to recommend distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and principles governing grants-in-aid. It is the constitutional basis for fiscal devolution in India.

Question 2General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The Mahanadi river dispute is primarily between which two States?

  1. Odisha and Chhattisgarh Correct answer.
  2. Odisha and Jharkhand
  3. Odisha and West Bengal
  4. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

The Mahanadi originates in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha to the Bay of Bengal. Odisha has objected to upstream barrages constructed by Chhattisgarh, making it a classic inter-State river water dispute.

Question 3General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the principal objective of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) as enacted in 2005?

  1. To provide subsidised food grains to households below the poverty line
  2. To provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work Correct answer.
  3. To provide free housing to all rural families
  4. To provide crop insurance to small and marginal farmers

Explanation

MGNREGS, enacted through the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, guarantees at least 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment per rural household per financial year on demand. It is a demand-driven, rights-based employment programme.

Question 4General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The 'Ring of Fire', a zone of frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, is associated with which ocean?

  1. Atlantic Ocean
  2. Indian Ocean
  3. Arctic Ocean
  4. Pacific Ocean Correct answer.

Explanation

The Ring of Fire is a horseshoe-shaped belt around the Pacific Ocean where many tectonic plate boundaries converge, producing frequent earthquakes and volcanic activity. It hosts a majority of the world's active volcanoes.

Question 5General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which Mughal emperor is credited with constructing the Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri to commemorate his victory over Gujarat?

  1. Akbar Correct answer.
  2. Shah Jahan
  3. Babur
  4. Jahangir

Explanation

The Buland Darwaza was built by Akbar around 1575 to commemorate his conquest of Gujarat. It is the monumental southern gateway of the Jama Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri.

Question 6General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The 'Doctrine of Lapse' used by the East India Company to annex Indian princely states was most actively applied by which Governor-General?

  1. Lord Wellesley
  2. Lord Curzon
  3. Lord Cornwallis
  4. Lord Dalhousie Correct answer.

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie (1848–56) aggressively applied the Doctrine of Lapse, annexing states such as Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur where the ruler had no natural heir. The policy became a major grievance behind the 1857 revolt.

Question 7General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is a Kharif crop in India?

  1. Wheat
  2. Mustard
  3. Rice Correct answer.
  4. Barley

Explanation

Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon in June–July and harvested in autumn; rice is the quintessential Kharif crop. Wheat, mustard and barley are Rabi crops sown in winter.

Question 8General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The term 'Basic Structure' doctrine in Indian constitutional law was first articulated in which case?

  1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.
  2. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  3. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a 13-judge bench held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution in a manner that destroys its basic structure. This doctrine limited the amending power under Article 368.

Question 9General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

In the context of the Indian Constitution, which of the following best describes the term 'Money Bill'?

  1. A Bill that deals only with taxation, borrowing, the Consolidated Fund and related financial matters, and is certified by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha Correct answer.
  2. A Bill that must be passed by a special majority in both Houses
  3. A Bill that can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha
  4. A Bill that requires the prior recommendation of the Finance Commission

Explanation

Article 110 defines a Money Bill as one dealing only with matters such as taxation, borrowing, appropriation from the Consolidated Fund and audit of Union accounts. The Speaker's certification is conclusive, and the Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments within 14 days.

Question 10General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Consider the following statements about the Governor of an Indian State: (i) The Governor is appointed by the President. (ii) The Governor holds office for a term of five years but may be removed earlier. (iii) The Governor can be a member of either House of Parliament. Which of the statements are correct?

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (i) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only Correct answer.
  4. (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation

The Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155 and normally holds office for five years under Article 156, though removal can occur earlier. Article 158 bars the Governor from being a member of either House of Parliament or a State legislature.

Question 11General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the layers of the atmosphere from the Earth's surface upward?

  1. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere
  2. Troposphere, Thermosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere
  3. Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere
  4. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere Correct answer.

Explanation

The atmosphere is layered by temperature gradient: the troposphere (weather), stratosphere (ozone layer), mesosphere (meteors burn) and thermosphere (auroras, ionosphere). The order is fixed by the temperature profile.

Question 12General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The term 'Fiscal Deficit' in the Indian budget refers to which of the following?

  1. Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings Correct answer.
  2. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
  3. Total expenditure minus revenue receipts
  4. Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts

Explanation

Fiscal deficit equals total expenditure minus total receipts other than borrowings, indicating the government's borrowing requirement. Revenue deficit and primary deficit are related but distinct concepts.

Question 13General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following constitutional amendments is associated with the introduction of the Panchayati Raj system in India?

  1. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  2. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 Correct answer.
  3. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  4. 44th Amendment Act, 1978

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, giving constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. The 74th Amendment did the same for urban local bodies.

Question 14General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the dominant soil type found in the Deccan Plateau region of India?

  1. Alluvial soil
  2. Black cotton soil Correct answer.
  3. Desert soil
  4. Laterite soil

Explanation

Black cotton soil, also known as regur soil, is formed from the weathering of basaltic lava in the Deccan Plateau. It is highly retentive of moisture and well suited to cotton cultivation.

Question 15General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The 'Green Revolution' in India is most closely associated with which crop and scientist?

  1. Rice and Verghese Kurien
  2. Oilseeds and Sam Pitroda
  3. Pulses and B. P. Pal
  4. Wheat and M. S. Swaminathan Correct answer.

Explanation

The Green Revolution in India from the mid-1960s used high-yielding wheat varieties and modern inputs, with M. S. Swaminathan as a key architect. It transformed food security, especially in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 16General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct order of the four Ashramas in the classical Hindu social scheme?

  1. Vanaprastha, Grihastha, Brahmacharya, Sannyasa
  2. Grihastha, Brahmacharya, Sannyasa, Vanaprastha
  3. Brahmacharya, Vanaprastha, Grihastha, Sannyasa
  4. Brahmacharya, Grihastha, Vanaprastha, Sannyasa Correct answer.

Explanation

The four Ashramas represent stages of life: student (Brahmacharya), householder (Grihastha), forest-dweller (Vanaprastha) and renunciant (Sannyasa). The sequence reflects a progressive withdrawal from worldly life.

Question 17General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The 'Nirvikalp Samadhi' concept in Indian philosophy is most associated with which of the following schools?

  1. Nyaya
  2. Vaisheshika
  3. Advaita Vedanta Correct answer.
  4. Mimamsa

Explanation

Nirvikalp Samadhi refers to a state of absorption without mental differentiation, a concept central to Advaita Vedanta, particularly in Shankara's tradition. It is distinguished from savikalpa samadhi, where duality persists.

Question 18General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

In the context of Indian administration, the term 'Committed Bureaucracy' was used to describe which of the following?

  1. Civil servants expected to align with the political ideology of the ruling party Correct answer.
  2. Officials appointed by the UPSC on merit
  3. Civil servants bound by a code of neutrality and anonymity
  4. A cadre of officers recruited by the State Public Service Commissions

Explanation

The term 'committed bureaucracy' emerged in the early 1970s to describe expectations that civil servants would align with the government's ideological agenda, challenging the traditional values of political neutrality. It raised concerns about the politicisation of the civil service.

Question 19General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following pairs of folk dance and State is correctly matched?

  1. Garba - Rajasthan
  2. Bihu - Assam Correct answer.
  3. Bhangra - Tamil Nadu
  4. Lavani - Odisha

Explanation

Bihu is the folk dance of Assam, performed during the Bihu festival. Each of the other options pairs a dance with the wrong State.

Question 20General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Consider the following statements about the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): (i) A positive IOD is associated with warmer sea surface temperatures in the western Indian Ocean. (ii) A positive IOD generally strengthens the Indian southwest monsoon. (iii) The IOD has no influence on the monsoon. Which of the statements are correct?

  1. (i) and (ii) only Correct answer.
  2. (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (iii) only
  4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation

A positive IOD features warmer SSTs in the western Indian Ocean and cooler SSTs in the east, which typically enhances monsoon rainfall over India. Statement (iii) is therefore incorrect, as the IOD is a recognised monsoon driver.

Question 21General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct order in which the stages of the Indian legislative process for an ordinary Bill in Parliament occur?

  1. First Reading, Third Reading, Second Reading, Committee Stage, President's Assent
  2. First Reading, Second Reading, Committee Stage, Third Reading, President's Assent Correct answer.
  3. Second Reading, First Reading, Third Reading, Committee Stage, President's Assent
  4. Committee Stage, First Reading, Second Reading, Third Reading, President's Assent

Explanation

An ordinary Bill undergoes First Reading (introduction), Second Reading (general discussion and committee scrutiny), Third Reading (voting) and then receives the President's assent. The sequence reflects the standard procedural order in both Houses.

Question 22General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The concept of 'Sarvodaya' in Indian political thought is most closely associated with which of the following thinkers?

  1. Ram Manohar Lohia
  2. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. M. N. Roy
  4. Jayaprakash Narayan Correct answer.

Explanation

Sarvodaya, meaning 'welfare of all', was popularised by Jayaprakash Narayan, drawing on Gandhian thought. He advocated it as a framework for non-violent, decentralised social transformation.

Question 23General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is described as 'quasi-federal'?

  1. It requires unanimous consent of States for constitutional amendments
  2. It vests residual powers in the States
  3. It combines federal features with a strong unitary bias in emergencies and in the distribution of powers Correct answer.
  4. It provides for a confederation of sovereign States

Explanation

The Indian Constitution has federal features such as dual polity and division of powers, but also unitary features like a single citizenship, All-India Services, emergency provisions and a strong Union. This blend makes it quasi-federal.

Question 24General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Consider the following statements about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha: (i) The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority of the House. (ii) The Speaker has the power to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill. (iii) The Speaker's decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review. Which of the statements are correct?

  1. (i) and (iii) only
  2. (i) and (ii) only
  3. (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (i), (ii) and (iii) Correct answer.

Explanation

The Speaker can be removed by an effective majority under Article 94, certifies Money Bills under Article 110, and the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) held that the Speaker's anti-defection decisions are subject to judicial review. All three statements are therefore correct.

Question 25General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The 'Subsidiary Alliance' system introduced by Lord Wellesley primarily required Indian rulers to do which of the following?

  1. Adopt the Doctrine of Lapse
  2. Cede all their territory to the East India Company
  3. Disband their armies and accept British law directly
  4. Accept a British Resident at their court, maintain British troops and surrender control over foreign relations Correct answer.

Explanation

Under the Subsidiary Alliance, rulers retained internal autonomy but had to host a British Resident, pay for British troops and surrender control over foreign affairs. The system expanded British influence without direct annexation.

Question 26General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following best describes the 'Doctrine of Basic Structure' as applied by the Supreme Court of India?

  1. Fundamental Rights may be amended only by a unanimous vote of both Houses of Parliament
  2. Parliament may amend the Constitution only with the prior approval of the President
  3. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution so long as the amendment does not damage its essential features Correct answer.
  4. The Supreme Court may amend the Constitution when Parliament fails to act

Explanation

The Supreme Court held in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is wide but cannot be used to destroy the Constitution's essential features. This implied limitation is what is called the basic structure doctrine. It operates as a judicially enforceable limit on constitutional amendment.

Question 27General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the four stages of the Indian monsoon's onset over the mainland?

  1. Gujarat coast, Maharashtra coast, Karnataka coast, Kerala coast
  2. Maharashtra coast, Kerala coast, Gujarat coast, Karnataka coast
  3. Kerala coast, Karnataka coast, Maharashtra coast, Gujarat coast Correct answer.
  4. Karnataka coast, Kerala coast, Maharashtra coast, Gujarat coast

Explanation

The southwest monsoon normally reaches the Kerala coast around 1 June and then advances northward along the west coast. Its progress is therefore Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra and finally Gujarat. The onset is declared by the IMD based on rainfall, wind field and outgoing longwave radiation criteria.

Question 28General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

In the Indian Constitution, the 'Office of Profit' disqualification for a Member of Parliament is laid down in which provision?

  1. Article 110(1)
  2. Article 105(2)
  3. Article 100(3)
  4. Article 102(1)(a) Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 102 lists the grounds on which a person is disqualified for membership of either House of Parliament, and clause (1)(a) covers holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a State. Parliament has enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act to exempt specified offices. The concept protects the legislature's independence from executive patronage.

Question 29General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the primary objective of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme?

  1. To give free residential schooling to children of rural artisans
  2. To provide subsidised food grain to households below the poverty line
  3. To provide at least 100 days of unskilled wage employment per rural household per year on demand Correct answer.
  4. To insure rural households against crop failure

Explanation

MGNREGS, enacted through the MGNREGA 2005, is a demand-driven legal guarantee of at least 100 days of unskilled manual work per rural household in a financial year. Wages must be paid within fifteen days, and unemployment allowance is payable if work is not provided. It is distinct from food security and crop insurance schemes.

Question 30General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

The 'Ashtadhyayi' is associated with which ancient Indian scholar?

  1. Kautilya
  2. Charaka
  3. Panini Correct answer.
  4. Patanjali

Explanation

Panini's Ashtadhyayi is a foundational Sanskrit grammar composed of about eight chapters of aphoristic rules. It describes the morphology and phonology of Sanskrit with remarkable formal rigour. Patanjali later wrote the Mahabhashya, a commentary on Panini's work.

Question 31General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct chemical formula of Plaster of Paris?

  1. CaSO4·2H2O
  2. CaSO4·½H2O Correct answer.
  3. Ca(OH)2
  4. CaCO3

Explanation

Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate, obtained by heating gypsum to about 373 K. It sets to a hard mass on adding water because it rehydrates to gypsum. The hemihydrate formula is written as CaSO4·½H2O.

Question 32General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

In the context of Indian public finance, which of the following best describes 'Revenue Expenditure'?

  1. Expenditure that neither creates an asset nor reduces a liability of the government Correct answer.
  2. Expenditure incurred solely on repayment of external debt
  3. Expenditure met entirely from the Contingency Fund of India
  4. Expenditure that creates a durable asset for the government

Explanation

Revenue expenditure covers the government's routine running costs, such as salaries, subsidies and interest payments, and it neither creates assets nor reduces liabilities. Capital expenditure, by contrast, creates assets or reduces liabilities. The distinction matters for assessing the quality of fiscal deficit.

Question 33General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following States of India has the longest coastline?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Gujarat Correct answer.
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Maharashtra

Explanation

Gujarat has the longest coastline among Indian States, at roughly 1,600 km, owing to the deeply indented Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat. Its coastline includes numerous creeks, estuaries and islands. Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra have substantially shorter coastlines.

Question 34General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following pairs correctly matches a Governor-General with an event of his tenure?

  1. Lord Dalhousie - Annexation of Awadh
  2. Lord Cornwallis - Introduction of the Permanent Settlement Correct answer.
  3. Lord Ripon - Abolition of Sati
  4. Lord Curzon - Introduction of the Ryotwari System

Explanation

Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal in 1793, fixing land revenue in perpetuity with zamindars. Each of the other pairings misplaces the event. Matching reformers and administrators to their measures is a standard way the OCS examination tests modern Indian history.

Question 35General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission of India: (i) It is constituted every five years by the President. (ii) Its recommendations on devolution of taxes are binding on the government. (iii) It recommends principles governing grants-in-aid to States. Which of the statements are correct?

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (iii) only Correct answer.
  4. (i) and (ii) only

Explanation

Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years, and its mandate includes recommending principles for grants-in-aid to States under Article 275. Its recommendations are advisory, not binding, although they are conventionally accepted. Hence statements (i) and (iii) are correct while (ii) is not.

Question 36General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the most important reason for the occurrence of 'Nor'westers' (Kal Baisakhi) in eastern India during the pre-monsoon season?

  1. Subsidence of air over the Bay of Bengal causing adiabatic compression
  2. Cold air incursion from the Himalayas meeting dry air from the Thar desert
  3. Upwelling of cold water along the Odisha coast
  4. Intense surface heating over the Chota Nagpur plateau combined with moist air from the Bay of Bengal Correct answer.

Explanation

Kal Baisakhi are violent pre-monsoon thunderstorms formed when intense heating over the Chota Nagpur plateau lifts moist, unstable air flowing in from the Bay of Bengal. They bring squally winds and heavy showers, and are agriculturally significant for jute and tea. The mechanism is convective instability rather than cold-air advection or subsidence.

Question 37General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following statements about the 'Poona Pact' of 1932 is correct?

  1. It replaced separate electorates for Dalits with reserved seats in joint electorates Correct answer.
  2. It abolished the system of reserved seats for all minorities
  3. It granted separate electorates to Muslims in the Punjab
  4. It created a federation of princely states with British India

Explanation

The Poona Pact was concluded in September 1932 between Gandhi and Ambedkar after Gandhi's fast against the Communal Award. It abandoned separate electorates for the Depressed Classes and instead provided reserved seats in joint provincial and central legislatures. This shaped the later constitutional scheme of reservation without separate electorates.

Question 38General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

In the context of the Indian Parliament, what is a 'Cut Motion'?

  1. A motion moved in the Lok Sabha to reduce the amount of a demand for grant Correct answer.
  2. A motion to cut short a debate and proceed to voting
  3. A motion to remove a judge of the Supreme Court
  4. A motion to reduce the tenure of a parliamentary committee

Explanation

A cut motion is moved during the discussion of the demands for grants of a ministry, proposing a reduction in the amount demanded. It can take the form of a policy cut, an economy cut or a token cut. Its passage amounts to a vote of no confidence in the government.

Question 39General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct order of the successive stages in the formation of a delta by a river?

  1. Deposition at the mouth, erosion in the upper course, distributary formation, transportation of sediment
  2. Erosion in the upper course, transportation of sediment, deposition at the mouth, distributary formation Correct answer.
  3. Transportation of sediment, distributary formation, deposition at the mouth, erosion in the upper course
  4. Distributary formation, deposition at the mouth, transportation of sediment, erosion in the upper course

Explanation

A delta forms when sediment eroded from the upper course is transported downstream and deposited where the river meets a standing body of water. Slowing velocity at the mouth causes deposition, and the channel then splits into distributaries. The sequence is therefore erosion, transportation, deposition and distributary formation.

Question 40General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following statements about the 'Green Revolution' in India is correct?

  1. It was concentrated in the rice-growing deltas of eastern India
  2. It was concentrated in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and relied on high-yielding wheat varieties Correct answer.
  3. It replaced chemical fertilisers with organic manure on a large scale
  4. It was primarily aimed at increasing pulses production

Explanation

The Green Revolution in India from the mid-1960s used high-yielding dwarf wheat varieties, assured irrigation and fertilisers, and was concentrated in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh. M.S. Swaminathan is closely associated with its Indian adaptation. Its regional concentration later became a subject of criticism for regional imbalance.

Question 41General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following best describes the 'Doctrine of Pleasure' in Indian administrative law?

  1. Government servants are appointed only with the consent of Parliament
  2. Judges of High Courts hold office during the pleasure of the Governor
  3. Civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor, subject to constitutional safeguards Correct answer.
  4. Members of the Public Service Commission serve at the pleasure of the Chief Minister

Explanation

Article 310 provides that members of the defence services and civil services hold office during the pleasure of the President or, as the case may be, the Governor. Article 311 qualifies this by requiring a fair hearing before dismissal, removal or reduction in rank. The doctrine therefore operates subject to constitutional safeguards, not as an unqualified power.

Question 42General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the major events of the Indian national movement in chronological order?

  1. Partition of Bengal, Jallianwala Bagh massacre, Non-Cooperation Movement, Dandi March Correct answer.
  2. Dandi March, Non-Cooperation Movement, Partition of Bengal, Jallianwala Bagh massacre
  3. Jallianwala Bagh massacre, Partition of Bengal, Dandi March, Non-Cooperation Movement
  4. Non-Cooperation Movement, Partition of Bengal, Jallianwala Bagh massacre, Dandi March

Explanation

The Partition of Bengal took place in 1905, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919, the Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920 and the Dandi March occurred in 1930. Placing events in sequence requires attention to both the year and the phase of the freedom struggle. This ordering reflects the shift from moderate to mass-based politics.

Question 43General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following best explains the phenomenon of 'temperature inversion' and its effect on air quality?

  1. Rapid surface heating causes strong vertical mixing that cleans the air
  2. High wind speeds at the surface break up the inversion and worsen pollution
  3. A layer of cooler air above warmer surface air disperses pollutants upward
  4. A layer of warmer air above cooler surface air traps pollutants near the ground Correct answer.

Explanation

In a temperature inversion, the normal lapse rate is reversed so that temperature rises with height, creating a stable layer that suppresses vertical mixing. Pollutants emitted near the surface are then trapped, which is why winter smog in northern India is severe. Inversions are common on cold, clear nights and in valleys.

Question 44General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following statements about the 'National Green Tribunal' is correct?

  1. It can hear only criminal cases relating to wildlife offences
  2. It is a constitutional body created by an amendment to the Constitution
  3. It was established under a statute of 2010 and is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure Correct answer.
  4. Its principal bench is located in Kolkata

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal was established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, and is guided by principles of natural justice rather than the Code of Civil Procedure. It deals with civil cases involving environmental protection and conservation. Its principal bench sits in New Delhi, with zonal benches elsewhere.

Question 45General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following statements about the 'Indian Ocean Dipole' is correct?

  1. A positive IOD generally weakens the Indian monsoon
  2. A positive IOD, with warmer waters in the western Indian Ocean, generally strengthens the Indian monsoon Correct answer.
  3. The IOD has no measurable relationship with Indian rainfall
  4. The IOD is confined to the Bay of Bengal and does not affect the Arabian Sea

Explanation

The Indian Ocean Dipole is an east-west sea surface temperature gradient across the equatorial Indian Ocean. In a positive phase the western Indian Ocean is warmer than normal, which enhances convection and typically supports a stronger monsoon over India. A negative phase is associated with weaker monsoon rainfall.

Question 46General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution: (i) They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. (ii) They are enforceable directly by writs under Article 32. (iii) They were added on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. Which of the statements are correct?

  1. (i) and (ii) only
  2. (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (iii) only Correct answer.
  4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation

Fundamental Duties were inserted as Article 51A by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced through writs under Article 32. Courts may, however, consider them while interpreting statutes and constitutional provisions.

Question 47General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

In the context of India's external trade, which of the following best describes the 'Most Favoured Nation' principle under the WTO?

  1. A member may grant special treatment to any single trading partner without extending it to others
  2. A member must impose identical tariffs on all goods irrespective of origin
  3. A member must extend any trade advantage granted to one member to all other members Correct answer.
  4. A member must grant tariff concessions only to developing countries

Explanation

The MFN principle under GATT Article I requires a WTO member to extend any advantage, favour or immunity granted to one member's product immediately and unconditionally to like products of all other members. It is a cornerstone of non-discrimination in trade. Regional trade agreements and the Generalised System of Preferences are recognised exceptions.

Question 48General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following is the correct order of the atmospheric layers in which temperature increases with altitude?

  1. Troposphere and stratosphere
  2. Mesosphere and thermosphere
  3. Stratosphere and thermosphere Correct answer.
  4. Troposphere and mesosphere

Explanation

Temperature increases with height in the stratosphere, owing to ozone absorption of ultraviolet radiation, and in the thermosphere, owing to absorption of high-energy solar radiation. The troposphere and mesosphere both show a normal decrease of temperature with height. Identifying the layers with positive lapse rates is a common atmospheric structure question.

Question 49General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution's emergency provisions are described as a 'unitary feature'?

  1. Emergency provisions permanently transfer residuary powers to the States
  2. Emergency provisions require the consent of all State Legislatures before proclamation
  3. During a national emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects and the federal division of powers is effectively suspended Correct answer.
  4. During a national emergency, the States may legislate on Union List subjects

Explanation

Under Article 250, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, Parliament may legislate on any matter in the State List. The Union executive may also give directions to States, and the normal federal division is substantially overridden. This temporary centralisation is the reason the emergency provisions are cited as a unitary feature.

Question 50General Studies (Preliminary and Main written papers)

Which of the following statements about 'zero-base budgeting' in the Indian context is correct?

  1. Every expenditure must be justified afresh from a nil base rather than by reference to the previous year's allocation Correct answer.
  2. It applies only to defence expenditure
  3. It permits expenditure without legislative appropriation
  4. It requires the budget to be balanced in every financial year

Explanation

Zero-base budgeting requires each activity and expenditure to be justified from scratch, with decision packages ranked by priority, rather than incrementally from the previous year's base. It was introduced in India on a limited experimental basis in the mid-1980s. It is distinct from the requirement of a balanced budget or from legislative appropriation.