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Praxis SLP 5331 study materials
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Praxis SLP 5331 practice questions

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Question 1Foundations and Professional Practice

Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?

  1. Facial nerve (CN VII)
  2. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
  3. Vagus nerve (CN X) Correct answer.
  4. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Explanation

The recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve supplies all intrinsic laryngeal muscles except the cricothyroid, which is supplied by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, also a vagal branch. The trigeminal and facial nerves serve mastication and facial expression, respectively.

Question 2Foundations and Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of supervised clinical practicum hours required for ASHA certification in speech-language pathology?

  1. 200 clock hours
  2. 300 clock hours
  3. 400 clock hours Correct answer.
  4. 500 clock hours

Explanation

ASHA requires a minimum of 400 supervised clinical clock hours, at least 25 of which must be in guided observation and at least 375 in direct client contact. These hours are obtained across the range of the scope of practice before the clinical fellowship.

Question 3Foundations and Professional Practice

The space between the true vocal folds is known as the:

  1. laryngeal ventricle
  2. subglottic space
  3. glottis Correct answer.
  4. laryngeal vestibule

Explanation

The glottis is the opening between the true vocal folds and is the site of phonatory airflow modulation. The ventricle is a recess above the folds, and the vestibule is the cavity above the ventricle.

Question 4Foundations and Professional Practice

Which federal statute entitles eligible children with disabilities to a free appropriate public education and establishes the individualized education program (IEP) process?

  1. The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
  2. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act
  3. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act Correct answer.
  4. The Americans with Disabilities Act

Explanation

IDEA is the special education law that guarantees a free appropriate public education in the least restrictive environment and prescribes IEP content and procedural safeguards. Section 504 and the ADA prohibit discrimination but do not mandate the IEP process.

Question 5Foundations and Professional Practice

The ASHA Code of Ethics states that the welfare of persons served professionally must be held paramount in which principle?

  1. Principle of Ethics IV
  2. Principle of Ethics III
  3. Principle of Ethics I Correct answer.
  4. Principle of Ethics II

Explanation

Principle of Ethics I addresses responsibilities to persons served professionally and contains the duty to hold their welfare paramount. The remaining principles address professional competence, responsibilities to the public, and responsibilities to the professions.

Question 6Foundations and Professional Practice

According to the evidence-based practice framework, clinical decisions should integrate the best available research evidence and clinician expertise with:

  1. the staffing patterns of the employment setting
  2. the values and preferences of the client and family Correct answer.
  3. the reimbursement rules of third-party payers
  4. the assessment tools used most often in the region

Explanation

Evidence-based practice rests on three pillars: best available external evidence, clinician expertise, and client values, preferences, and circumstances. Administrative and financial factors may constrain practice but are not defining pillars of the model.

Question 7Foundations and Professional Practice

Which of the following words consists of two free morphemes?

  1. teacher
  2. running
  3. sunflower Correct answer.
  4. unhappy

Explanation

A free morpheme can stand alone as a word. "Sunflower" combines "sun" and "flower," each of which is an independent word, so both are free morphemes. The other items pair a free morpheme with a bound affix.

Question 8Foundations and Professional Practice

Which structure separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity during speech and swallowing?

  1. Arytenoid cartilage
  2. Epiglottis
  3. Hard palate Correct answer.
  4. Uvula

Explanation

The hard palate forms the bony floor of the nasal cavity and the roof of the mouth, separating the two cavities. The velum and uvula complete the separation posteriorly during velopharyngeal closure.

Question 9Foundations and Professional Practice

Broca's area, which supports motor programming for speech production, is located in the:

  1. occipital lobe at the pole of the nondominant hemisphere
  2. anterior parietal lobe of the nondominant hemisphere
  3. posterior inferior frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere Correct answer.
  4. posterior superior temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

Explanation

Broca's area occupies the posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus, usually in the left hemisphere. Damage here produces nonfluent aphasia with relatively preserved comprehension.

Question 10Foundations and Professional Practice

According to source-filter theory, the vocal tract primarily determines which acoustic characteristic of the voiced signal?

  1. The formant frequencies of the signal Correct answer.
  2. The perceived pitch of the voice
  3. The overall intensity of the radiated sound
  4. The rate of vocal fold vibration

Explanation

In source-filter theory the vibrating vocal folds generate a harmonic source whose fundamental frequency reflects vibration rate, while the supralaryngeal vocal tract acts as a filter that shapes the spectrum into formant peaks. Changing tongue, jaw, and lip position alters those resonances.

Question 11Foundations and Professional Practice

How does ASHA require holders of the Certificate of Clinical Competence to maintain certification?

  1. Complete 10 certification maintenance hours each year
  2. Complete 50 certification maintenance hours per 5-year interval
  3. Complete 30 certification maintenance hours per 3-year interval Correct answer.
  4. Complete 20 certification maintenance hours per 2-year interval

Explanation

The certification maintenance interval is three years, during which 30 certification maintenance hours of professional development must be earned. At least some of these hours must address ethics, and records are subject to random audit.

Question 12Foundations and Professional Practice

Which research design provides the strongest evidence that a treatment causes improvement rather than improvement occurring by chance or maturation?

  1. A retrospective chart review
  2. A survey of practicing clinicians
  3. A randomized controlled trial Correct answer.
  4. A single case study

Explanation

Random assignment to treatment and control conditions distributes confounding variables across groups, allowing causal inference about the intervention. Designs without randomization or a comparison condition cannot rule out maturation, regression, or selection effects.

Question 13Foundations and Professional Practice

Under IDEA Part C, which document guides early intervention services for a 20-month-old with a significant language delay?

  1. A 504 accommodation plan
  2. A behavior intervention plan
  3. An IFSP Correct answer.
  4. An IEP

Explanation

Part C of IDEA covers children from birth to age 3 and requires an individualized family service plan built around family-identified outcomes and delivered in natural environments. The IEP applies from age 3 through the school years.

Question 14Foundations and Professional Practice

Which law governs the confidentiality of and access to student education records held by a public school SLP?

  1. HIPAA
  2. FERPA Correct answer.
  3. IDEA
  4. The ADA

Explanation

FERPA gives parents and eligible students rights of access to education records and restricts disclosure without consent. Records that are part of a student's education record are generally excluded from HIPAA coverage.

Question 15Foundations and Professional Practice

The myoelastic-aerodynamic theory holds that vocal fold vibration during phonation results from:

  1. turbulent airflow alone, independent of the elastic properties of the folds
  2. rhythmic contraction of the thyroarytenoid muscle during each cycle
  3. sympathetic resonance of the vocal tract driving the folds
  4. aerodynamic forces interacting with the elasticity of the vocal folds Correct answer.

Explanation

Subglottal pressure pushes the folds apart and the Bernoulli effect plus elastic recoil draws them back together, producing passive oscillation. Muscle contraction adjusts the folds' position and tension but does not drive each cycle.

Question 16Foundations and Professional Practice

The branch of linguistics concerned with how language is used in social context, such as turn-taking and indirect requests, is:

  1. Pragmatics Correct answer.
  2. Syntax
  3. Morphology
  4. Semantics

Explanation

Pragmatics addresses the use of language in context, including presupposition, conversational implicature, and rules of interaction. The other branches concern meaning at the word level, sentence structure, and word formation.

Question 17Foundations and Professional Practice

Compared with the vowel /i/, the vowel /ɑ/ is characterized by:

  1. a lower first formant and a higher second formant
  2. the same first formant and a higher second formant
  3. a higher first formant and a lower second formant Correct answer.
  4. a higher first formant and a higher second formant

Explanation

First formant frequency rises as the tongue lowers and the pharynx narrows, so the low vowel /ɑ/ has a higher F1 than the high vowel /i/. The back position of /ɑ/ also yields a lower F2 than the front vowel /i/.

Question 18Foundations and Professional Practice

Which professional activity falls within the scope of practice of speech-language pathology?

  1. Performing stapedectomies for otosclerosis
  2. Selecting and fitting hearing aids
  3. Evaluating and treating swallowing disorders Correct answer.
  4. Prescribing medication for laryngopharyngeal reflux

Explanation

Dysphagia assessment and treatment, including clinical and instrumental evaluation, are explicitly within the SLP scope of practice. Hearing aid fitting is audiology, prescribing is medicine, and middle-ear surgery is otolaryngology.

Question 19Foundations and Professional Practice

Which organization awards the Certificate of Clinical Competence in Speech-Language Pathology?

  1. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
  2. The state department of education
  3. The American Speech-Language-Hearing Association Correct answer.
  4. The state board of examiners

Explanation

ASHA administers the CCC-SLP, a national professional credential that is separate from state licensure and from state education certification. State boards and departments of education issue their own credentials.

Question 20Foundations and Professional Practice

A 7-year-old who speaks African American English produces final consonant deletion and multiple negation during an evaluation. The SLP's most appropriate next step is to:

  1. determine whether these patterns are consistent with the dialect before considering a disorder Correct answer.
  2. discontinue the evaluation because dialect speakers cannot be assessed validly
  3. recommend grade retention until the patterns resolve
  4. diagnose a phonological disorder based on the departures from Standard American English

Explanation

Features that follow the rules of a child's dialect are not evidence of impairment; the clinician must distinguish dialect differences from true disorder using knowledge of the dialect and, when needed, alternative or dynamic assessment. Retention and outright refusal to assess are both inappropriate.

Question 21Foundations and Professional Practice

A screening instrument that correctly identifies children who do not have language impairment is said to have high:

  1. specificity Correct answer.
  2. test-retest reliability
  3. sensitivity
  4. content validity

Explanation

Specificity is the proportion of individuals without the disorder who are correctly classified as negative, so high specificity means few false positives. Sensitivity, by contrast, concerns correct identification of those who do have the disorder.

Question 22Foundations and Professional Practice

Under IDEA, an IEP for a student receiving speech-language services must be reviewed at least:

  1. every 2 years
  2. every 6 months
  3. annually Correct answer.
  4. every 3 years

Explanation

IDEA requires that the IEP team review the IEP at least once each year to examine progress and revise goals and services as needed. A full reevaluation is required at least every three years.

Question 23Foundations and Professional Practice

Which muscle is the primary generator of inspiratory force during quiet breathing?

  1. Sternocleidomastoid
  2. External oblique
  3. Internal intercostal
  4. Diaphragm Correct answer.

Explanation

The diaphragm contracts and descends during quiet inspiration, increasing thoracic volume and creating negative pressure that draws air in. The external obliques and internal intercostals are used mainly for forced expiration, and the sternocleidomastoid is an accessory inspiratory muscle.

Question 24Foundations and Professional Practice

An SLP in private practice receives a request from a client's insurance company for the client's treatment records. The most appropriate first step is to:

  1. release only the progress notes and withhold the evaluation report
  2. obtain the client's signed authorization before releasing information Correct answer.
  3. refuse all requests for records from third-party payers
  4. send the complete record because the payer is entitled to it

Explanation

Protected health information may be disclosed for payment purposes only in accordance with the client's authorization or a legal exception, and the clinician should verify the scope of that authorization. Releasing records without authorization or refusing all legitimate payer requests are both improper.

Question 25Foundations and Professional Practice

A school district determines SLP staffing needs by considering the full range of activities clinicians perform, including documentation, collaboration, and meetings. This approach is known as:

  1. a caseload approach
  2. a response-to-intervention framework
  3. a pull-out service model
  4. a workload approach Correct answer.

Explanation

The workload approach counts all activities that consume professional time, including direct services, evaluation, documentation, and collaboration, when determining staffing. The caseload approach counts only the number of students served.

Question 26Foundations and Professional Practice

Which principle of the ASHA Code of Ethics addresses the obligation to hold paramount the welfare of the persons served professionally?

  1. Principle of Ethics I Correct answer.
  2. Principle of Ethics III
  3. Principle of Ethics IV
  4. Principle of Ethics II

Explanation

The Code of Ethics is organized into four principles, and Principle I is the one that obligates clinicians to hold the welfare of those they serve paramount and to act with professional integrity. The remaining principles address competence, responsibilities to the public, and responsibilities to the professions and colleagues.

Question 27Foundations and Professional Practice

Which statement accurately distinguishes state licensure from ASHA certification for speech-language pathologists?

  1. ASHA certification is legally required to practice, while licensure is optional.
  2. Licensure is a legal prerequisite to practice, whereas ASHA certification is voluntary. Correct answer.
  3. Licensure and ASHA certification are identical credentials with different names.
  4. Both licensure and ASHA certification are issued by the same state board.

Explanation

A state license is a legal credential that grants the right to practice within that jurisdiction; practicing without it is unlawful regardless of certification status. The Certificate of Clinical Competence is a voluntary professional credential awarded by ASHA that signals that the holder has met national standards.

Question 28Foundations and Professional Practice

Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, the minimum necessary standard requires a covered entity to:

  1. retain protected health information for a minimum of ten years
  2. limit uses and disclosures of protected health information to what is needed for the purpose Correct answer.
  3. obtain written authorization before every disclosure of protected health information
  4. provide clients with copies of all records within 24 hours of a request

Explanation

The minimum necessary standard directs covered entities to make reasonable efforts to use, disclose, and request only the amount of protected health information needed to accomplish the intended purpose. Many disclosures for treatment, payment, and health care operations do not require written authorization.

Question 29Foundations and Professional Practice

A lesion confined to Wernicke's area most typically produces which communication profile?

  1. Pure anomia with intact auditory comprehension
  2. Spastic dysarthria with hypernasality
  3. Fluent speech with markedly impaired auditory comprehension Correct answer.
  4. Nonfluent, agrammatic speech with relatively preserved comprehension

Explanation

Wernicke's area in the posterior superior temporal gyrus supports auditory comprehension of language, so damage produces fluent but often empty or paraphasic output with poor comprehension and poor repetition. Nonfluent agrammatic output is the hallmark of Broca's aphasia.

Question 30Foundations and Professional Practice

Motor innervation to the intrinsic muscles of the larynx is provided by which cranial nerve?

  1. Vagus (CN X) Correct answer.
  2. Trigeminal (CN V)
  3. Facial (CN VII)
  4. Hypoglossal (CN XII)

Explanation

The vagus nerve supplies laryngeal muscles through its superior and recurrent laryngeal branches; the recurrent laryngeal branch innervates most intrinsic laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves listed serve chewing and facial sensation, facial expression, and tongue movement, respectively.

Question 31Foundations and Professional Practice

The number of new cases of a disorder arising in a defined population during a specified period is called the:

  1. incidence Correct answer.
  2. case fatality rate
  3. prevalence
  4. attributable risk

Explanation

Incidence counts new cases over a stated time period, which makes it useful for studying risk and the emergence of a disorder. Prevalence instead counts all existing cases, both new and previously identified, at a given point or period.

Question 32Foundations and Professional Practice

Which statement best describes a dialect?

  1. A disorder in which phonological rules are applied inconsistently
  2. A simplified code used only between speakers of different languages
  3. An individual's idiosyncratic misuse of grammatical morphemes
  4. A rule-governed variety of a language shared by a group of speakers Correct answer.

Explanation

A dialect is a systematic, rule-governed variety of a language associated with a region, social group, or cultural community; it is not a disorder. Differences between dialects are regular and predictable rather than random errors.

Question 33Foundations and Professional Practice

A standardized test that accurately measures the construct it is designed to measure is said to have high:

  1. reliability
  2. interrater agreement
  3. internal consistency
  4. validity Correct answer.

Explanation

Validity refers to the degree to which an instrument measures the construct it claims to measure. Reliability and its subtypes concern consistency of scores rather than accuracy of the underlying construct.

Question 34Foundations and Professional Practice

On a test with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, a child earns a standard score of 85. This score corresponds most closely to which percentile rank?

  1. 50th
  2. 84th
  3. 16th Correct answer.
  4. 34th

Explanation

A score of 85 is one standard deviation below the mean, and in a normal distribution roughly 16% of scores fall below one standard deviation beneath the mean. Percentile rank expresses the percentage of the normative group scoring at or below that score.

Question 35Foundations and Professional Practice

A clinician administers the same language measure to a group of children on two occasions two weeks apart and finds a correlation of .92 between the two sets of scores. This result provides the strongest evidence of:

  1. content validity
  2. interrater reliability
  3. predictive validity
  4. test-retest reliability Correct answer.

Explanation

Test-retest reliability is estimated by correlating scores from repeated administrations of the same instrument over a short interval with no intervention in between. A high correlation indicates that scores are stable across occasions.

Question 36Foundations and Professional Practice

Under IDEA Part B, speech or language impairment is best described as:

  1. a disability category under which students may qualify for special education and related services Correct answer.
  2. a medical diagnosis that automatically entitles a student to an IEP
  3. a related service that can never serve as a student's primary eligibility category
  4. an eligibility category available only to preschool-age children

Explanation

IDEA lists speech or language impairment as one of the disability categories under which a student may be found eligible for special education and related services. Eligibility also requires that the impairment adversely affect educational performance and that the student need specially designed instruction.

Question 37Foundations and Professional Practice

Which element is essential for informed consent to treatment?

  1. A guarantee that the treatment will produce the desired outcome
  2. Approval of the treatment plan by the client's insurance carrier
  3. A signed statement waiving the client's right to ask questions
  4. Discussion of the treatment's risks, benefits, and alternatives Correct answer.

Explanation

Informed consent requires that the client or surrogate receive and understand information about the nature of the proposed treatment, its anticipated benefits, its risks, and reasonable alternatives before agreeing. Consent must be voluntary and may be withdrawn.

Question 38Foundations and Professional Practice

When evaluating a preschooler who is learning English as a second language, the most appropriate practice is to:

  1. administer English standardized tests and adjust the scores for bilingualism
  2. wait until the child has mastered English before conducting any assessment
  3. rely on parent report alone because standardized tests are invalid for bilingual children
  4. assess both the home language and English with qualified bilingual staff or interpreters Correct answer.

Explanation

Best practice is to sample the child's abilities in both the home language and English so that a language difference is not mistaken for a language disorder. Assessment should use qualified personnel, including trained interpreters, and tools or procedures appropriate for the child's linguistic background.

Question 39Foundations and Professional Practice

During an evaluation of a child whose family speaks primarily Vietnamese, the family offers to have the child's bilingual teenage sibling interpret. The SLP should:

  1. arrange for a trained interpreter rather than using the sibling Correct answer.
  2. postpone the evaluation until the family provides its own interpreter
  3. ask the sibling to interpret standardized test items so testing can proceed
  4. use the sibling only for the case history portion of the evaluation

Explanation

Trained interpreters are needed to convey information accurately and to avoid the role confusion, altered family dynamics, and limited proficiency that arise when children interpret for their families. The clinician remains responsible for the assessment and for documenting results appropriately.

Question 40Foundations and Professional Practice

Which statement best reflects ASHA's requirements for supervising a speech-language pathology assistant (SLPA)?

  1. The supervising SLP retains responsibility for services and must provide ongoing supervision. Correct answer.
  2. The SLPA may supervise clinical fellows in the SLP's absence.
  3. The SLPA may practice without supervision after one year of experience.
  4. The SLPA may independently perform assessments and write the final diagnostic report.

Explanation

SLPAs provide services under the direction and supervision of a certified SLP, who remains responsible for the client's care and for activities that require professional judgment, such as diagnosis and treatment planning. Supervision must be ongoing and documented throughout the assistant's employment.

Question 41Foundations and Professional Practice

To be eligible for the ASHA Certificate of Clinical Competence in speech-language pathology, an applicant must complete a clinical fellowship of at least:

  1. 24 weeks and 800 hours
  2. 36 weeks and 1,260 hours Correct answer.
  3. 30 weeks and 1,000 hours
  4. 12 weeks and 400 hours

Explanation

ASHA's certification standards require a clinical fellowship of at least 36 weeks of full-time professional experience totaling a minimum of 1,260 hours. The fellowship must include direct client contact and be completed under appropriate supervision.

Question 42Foundations and Professional Practice

A school SLP provides services to a Medicaid-eligible student under an IEP. Which statement about billing Medicaid for those services is most accurate?

  1. Medicaid may be billed for any service the SLP provides, whether or not it appears in the IEP.
  2. Services may be billed only when the district meets documentation and provider-qualification requirements. Correct answer.
  3. Medicaid billing is prohibited for services delivered in a school setting.
  4. Billing is permitted only if the family pays the district a copayment.

Explanation

School-based Medicaid reimbursement is permitted when the service is included in the IEP, the provider is qualified and enrolled as required, and documentation supports the claim. Billing rules vary by state, but accurate documentation and provider credentials are always prerequisites.

Question 43Foundations and Professional Practice

A clinician discovers a factual error in a handwritten treatment note from the previous day. The most appropriate action is to:

  1. remove the page and rewrite the entire note
  2. use correction fluid and write the correct information on top
  3. erase the error and rewrite the entry neatly
  4. draw a single line through the error, then note the correction, date, and initials Correct answer.

Explanation

Records should be corrected in a way that preserves the original entry and shows who made the change and when, which maintains the record's integrity and legal defensibility. This standard applies to paper and electronic records alike.

Question 44Foundations and Professional Practice

An SLP plans to deliver telepractice services to a client located in another state. The SLP must:

  1. notify ASHA but need no state authorization
  2. obtain ASHA certification in the client's state but need not be licensed there
  3. hold only a license in the state where the SLP physically resides
  4. comply with the licensure requirements of the state where the client is located Correct answer.

Explanation

Telepractice is generally treated as practice occurring where the client is located, so the clinician must hold the appropriate license or authorization in that jurisdiction. Many states participate in licensure compacts or telepractice registrations that can simplify compliance.

Question 45Foundations and Professional Practice

A kindergarten teacher reports that several children are not responding to core classroom literacy instruction. Within a multi-tiered system of support, the most appropriate first step is to:

  1. provide small-group Tier 2 intervention and monitor progress Correct answer.
  2. begin Tier 3 individualized intervention for the whole group
  3. refer all of the children for special education evaluation immediately
  4. wait one year to see whether the children mature

Explanation

Multi-tiered frameworks begin with high-quality core instruction and add targeted small-group intervention with progress monitoring for students who need more support. Data from those tiers inform, but do not preempt, a later referral for a comprehensive evaluation if the student still does not respond.

Question 46Foundations and Professional Practice

A treatment study randomly assigns participants to treatment and control conditions, uses a manualized protocol, and keeps examiners blind to group assignment. These procedures chiefly strengthen:

  1. external validity
  2. criterion validity
  3. social validity
  4. internal validity Correct answer.

Explanation

Randomization, protocol standardization, and blinding reduce threats such as selection bias and expectancy effects, which increases confidence that the observed change was caused by the treatment. Internal validity concerns causal inference within the study rather than generalization beyond it.

Question 47Foundations and Professional Practice

A study reports that a treatment produced a statistically significant improvement with a large effect size and a 95% confidence interval that excludes zero. The large effect size primarily indicates that:

  1. the sample size was too small to detect differences
  2. the magnitude of improvement was substantial in practical terms Correct answer.
  3. the findings generalize to all clinical populations
  4. the result is likely due to chance

Explanation

Effect size quantifies the magnitude of a difference or relationship independent of sample size, so a large value indicates a clinically meaningful amount of change. Statistical significance and the confidence interval address the role of chance, which is a separate question.

Question 48Foundations and Professional Practice

A study reports a 95% confidence interval for a mean difference of 2.1 to 8.4 points. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. The result is not statistically significant because the interval is wide.
  2. Ninety-five percent of individual clients will improve by between 2.1 and 8.4 points.
  3. There is a 95% chance that the sample mean difference equals 2.1 points.
  4. About 95% of intervals constructed this way would contain the true difference if the study were repeated. Correct answer.

Explanation

A confidence interval is a range of plausible values for the population parameter, and the 95% level describes the long-run performance of the procedure used to build it. Because the interval excludes zero, the difference would be considered statistically significant at the .05 level.

Question 49Foundations and Professional Practice

After a client is discharged, the family offers the SLP a substantial gift card as thanks. According to the ASHA Code of Ethics, the SLP should:

  1. decline gifts that could reasonably appear to influence professional judgment Correct answer.
  2. ask the family to give the gift to the clinic instead
  3. accept it and document it as a professional courtesy
  4. accept it, because gifts after discharge cannot create a conflict of interest

Explanation

The Code of Ethics prohibits accepting gifts that could reasonably be perceived as influencing professional judgment or creating a conflict of interest, and the timing of the gift does not remove that appearance. Clinicians should avoid arrangements that exploit the professional relationship for personal gain.

Question 50Foundations and Professional Practice

A student with a language impairment has been served in a self-contained classroom but makes progress in a general education classroom when consultative support is provided. The IEP team should:

  1. consider the less restrictive setting with appropriate supports before continuing the more restrictive placement Correct answer.
  2. place the student in the general classroom without any support
  3. keep the self-contained placement because it is already established
  4. defer the decision to the district's special education director

Explanation

IDEA requires that students be educated in the least restrictive environment in which they can make progress with appropriate aids and services. Placement decisions must be individualized and reconsidered as the student's needs and performance change.