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FASS practice questions

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Question 1Assessment and Diagnosis

A researcher administers the same intelligence test to a group of participants on two occasions four weeks apart and correlates the scores. Which psychometric property is being evaluated?

  1. Inter-rater reliability
  2. Content validity
  3. Criterion validity
  4. Test-retest reliability Correct answer.

Explanation

Test-retest reliability concerns the stability of scores across repeated administrations of the same instrument over time. Inter-rater reliability concerns agreement between different scorers, while content and criterion validity concern what the test measures rather than its consistency.

Question 2Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinical psychologist interviews a client and, based on that interview alone, assigns a diagnosis. Which potential source of error most directly threatens the validity of this judgment?

  1. Obtaining collateral reports
  2. Relying on a single information source Correct answer.
  3. Using a structured interview format
  4. Applying diagnostic criteria consistently

Explanation

Diagnostic accuracy improves when information is gathered from multiple sources, since any single source carries method-specific error and bias. Relying solely on one interview increases the risk of an inaccurate conclusion.

Question 3Assessment and Diagnosis

Which statement best describes the purpose of a base-rate in diagnostic decision making?

  1. It reflects the proportion of healthy people correctly classified as healthy
  2. It reflects how common a disorder is in a given population before testing Correct answer.
  3. It reflects the probability that a test correctly identifies a disorder
  4. It reflects the agreement between two independent clinicians

Explanation

A base rate is the prevalence of a condition in the population of interest prior to any test information. Ignoring base rates leads to overestimating the likelihood of rare conditions when using imperfect tests.

Question 4Assessment and Diagnosis

A test has high sensitivity but low specificity. What is the most likely consequence in a screening context?

  1. Many people without the disorder will be flagged as positive Correct answer.
  2. The test will have perfect positive predictive value
  3. Many people with the disorder will be missed
  4. The test will show poor test-retest reliability

Explanation

Sensitivity is the ability to detect true cases, while specificity is the ability to correctly rule out non-cases. A test with low specificity produces many false positives, flagging people who do not have the disorder.

Question 5Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following best characterizes a structured diagnostic interview such as the SCID?

  1. It is designed only for personality assessment via projective methods
  2. It uses predetermined questions and standardized scoring of criteria Correct answer.
  3. It relies entirely on the clinician's unstructured probing
  4. It measures symptom severity on a continuous scale without diagnosis

Explanation

Structured interviews standardize the questions asked and the rules for scoring diagnostic criteria, which improves diagnostic reliability. They are not unstructured and are not projective instruments.

Question 6Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinician rates a client as more impaired than the previous clinician did, largely because the first clinician was known to be lenient in ratings. This disagreement most clearly reflects a problem with which type of reliability?

  1. Alternate-form reliability
  2. Internal consistency
  3. Inter-rater reliability Correct answer.
  4. Test-retest reliability

Explanation

Inter-rater reliability concerns the degree of agreement between different raters scoring the same behavior. Systematic differences in rater leniency reduce this agreement.

Question 7Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is the strongest evidence for the construct validity of a new measure of anxiety?

  1. The measure is brief and easy for clients to complete
  2. The measure contains many items that appear relevant to anxiety
  3. The measure yields the same score when administered twice in one day
  4. Scores correlate with established anxiety measures and not with unrelated constructs Correct answer.

Explanation

Construct validity is supported by a pattern of relations in which scores converge with measures of the same construct and diverge from measures of different constructs. This convergent and discriminant evidence is central to construct validation.

Question 8Assessment and Diagnosis

Which statistical concept describes the degree to which observed scores reflect true differences among individuals rather than measurement error?

  1. Standard error of estimate
  2. Effect size
  3. Reliability coefficient Correct answer.
  4. Regression to the mean

Explanation

The reliability coefficient expresses the proportion of variance in observed scores attributable to true score variance. Higher coefficients indicate that observed differences are less contaminated by random error.

Question 9Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinician suspects that a client's reported memory complaints reflect normal aging rather than a neurocognitive disorder. Which assessment approach best addresses this differential?

  1. Using the same cutoff score applied to all age groups
  2. Administering a single screening instrument once
  3. Comparing performance to age- and education-matched normative data Correct answer.
  4. Relying on the client's self-reported symptom severity

Explanation

Norm-referenced comparison against appropriate age and education peers distinguishes expected age-related change from clinically significant impairment. Self-report and fixed cutoffs across ages can misclassify normal variation.

Question 10Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following best defines a percentile rank on a standardized test?

  1. The percentage of items the examinee answered correctly
  2. The average score of the norm group
  3. The percentage of the norm group scoring at or below a given score Correct answer.
  4. The number of standard deviations above the mean

Explanation

A percentile rank expresses the standing of a score relative to the norm group by indicating the percentage of examinees scoring at or below that value. It is a relative, not raw, index of performance.

Question 11Assessment and Diagnosis

A z-score of +1.5 corresponds to which approximate percentile rank in a normal distribution?

  1. 98
  2. 67
  3. 93 Correct answer.
  4. 84

Explanation

A z-score of +1.5 falls about 1.5 standard deviations above the mean, corresponding to roughly the 93rd percentile in a normal distribution. A z-score of +1.0 corresponds to about the 84th percentile.

Question 12Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a mental status examination?

  1. To measure personality traits through projective techniques
  2. To assess premorbid intellectual ability
  3. To establish a definitive longitudinal diagnosis
  4. To describe current cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning Correct answer.

Explanation

The mental status examination provides a structured, cross-sectional description of the client's current functioning across domains such as appearance, mood, thought, and cognition. It informs but does not by itself establish a longitudinal diagnosis.

Question 13Assessment and Diagnosis

A client's score on a depression inventory is reported with a standard error of measurement of 4 points. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. The observed score likely falls within a band of about 4 points around the true score Correct answer.
  2. The client's true score is exactly the observed score
  3. The client's score will change by 4 points on retest
  4. The test has no reliability

Explanation

The standard error of measurement estimates the typical discrepancy between observed and true scores, so confidence bands are built around the observed score. A larger standard error indicates less precise measurement.

Question 14Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following best describes the function of a cutoff score in a screening instrument?

  1. It establishes the internal consistency of the instrument
  2. It defines the threshold for classifying scores as positive or negative Correct answer.
  3. It determines the test's test-retest reliability
  4. It indicates the average score in the clinical sample

Explanation

A cutoff score sets the boundary used to classify individuals as screening positive or negative. The chosen cutoff trades off sensitivity against specificity.

Question 15Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinician uses a test with strong evidence for use in adults to assess an adolescent. Which principle is most directly relevant?

  1. Tests should be used only with populations for which validity evidence exists Correct answer.
  2. Norms from adults can be safely applied to adolescents
  3. Reliability alone guarantees validity for the new population
  4. Any reliable test is valid for all age groups

Explanation

Validity is population- and context-specific, so an instrument must have evidence supporting its use in the group being assessed. Applying adult norms or validity to adolescents can produce misleading conclusions.

Question 16Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is an example of a performance-based measure of personality?

  1. Beck Depression Inventory
  2. Rorschach Inkblot Method Correct answer.
  3. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
  4. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

Explanation

Performance-based measures present ambiguous stimuli and score the examinee's responses for personality characteristics. The Rorschach is the classic example of such an instrument.

Question 17Assessment and Diagnosis

A researcher finds that a test classifies 70 percent of people with a disorder as positive and 90 percent of people without the disorder as negative. What are the sensitivity and specificity, respectively?

  1. 0.70 and 0.10
  2. 0.70 and 0.90 Correct answer.
  3. 0.90 and 0.70
  4. 0.30 and 0.10

Explanation

Sensitivity is the proportion of true cases correctly identified, here 0.70. Specificity is the proportion of non-cases correctly identified, here 0.90.

Question 18Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following best describes the role of incremental validity in test selection?

  1. Whether a measure correlates with itself over time
  2. Whether a measure has items that appear relevant to the construct
  3. Whether a measure can be administered quickly
  4. Whether a measure improves prediction beyond information already available Correct answer.

Explanation

Incremental validity asks whether adding a measure improves prediction or decision making beyond existing information. A test that merely duplicates available data offers little incremental value.

Question 19Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is a key feature of a behavior rating scale used in assessment?

  1. It quantifies the frequency or intensity of specified behaviors Correct answer.
  2. It interprets ambiguous stimuli to reveal unconscious conflicts
  3. It measures intelligence through standardized problem solving
  4. It provides a definitive psychiatric diagnosis without clinical judgment

Explanation

Behavior rating scales ask informants or the client to rate specified behaviors along dimensions such as frequency or intensity. They yield quantitative indices rather than definitive diagnoses.

Question 20Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinician observes that a client performs worse on a cognitive test in the afternoon than in the morning and wonders whether fatigue affects scores. This concern is most directly related to which concept?

  1. Criterion contamination
  2. Construct underrepresentation
  3. Sources of error affecting observed scores Correct answer.
  4. Social desirability bias

Explanation

Transient conditions such as fatigue introduce error variance that affects observed scores. Recognizing such sources of error improves interpretation of test performance.

Question 21Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following best characterizes the relationship between reliability and validity?

  1. Validity is necessary but not sufficient for reliability
  2. Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity Correct answer.
  3. Reliability and validity are identical properties
  4. A highly reliable test is always valid

Explanation

A test must be consistent to support valid interpretations, but consistency alone does not ensure that the test measures the intended construct. Reliability therefore sets an upper bound on validity.

Question 22Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinician wishes to assess a client's intellectual functioning and selects an instrument that is widely used and supported by extensive validity evidence. Which consideration is most important in interpreting the resulting scores?

  1. The client's stated preference for a different test
  2. The raw number of items answered correctly
  3. The confidence interval around the obtained score Correct answer.
  4. The color of the test booklet

Explanation

Scores on ability tests are estimates with measurement error, so they should be interpreted within confidence intervals. This avoids overinterpreting small differences between scores.

Question 23Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following is the best example of a criterion-referenced interpretation?

  1. The client's z-score is +0.5 relative to peers
  2. The client's score falls one standard deviation above the mean
  3. The client scores above the 60th percentile in the norm group
  4. The client demonstrates mastery of 80 percent of the targeted skills Correct answer.

Explanation

Criterion-referenced interpretation compares performance to an absolute standard of mastery rather than to other people. Percentiles and standard scores are norm-referenced comparisons.

Question 24Assessment and Diagnosis

Which of the following best describes why a clinician might use both a broadband and a narrowband measure in assessment?

  1. The broadband measure replaces the need for clinical judgment
  2. The narrowband measure provides norms for the general population
  3. The two measures are equivalent and interchangeable
  4. The broadband measure screens broadly while the narrowband measure assesses a specific area in depth Correct answer.

Explanation

Broadband instruments survey multiple domains to identify areas of concern, while narrowband instruments provide focused, detailed assessment of a specific problem. Using both supports efficient screening followed by targeted evaluation.

Question 25Assessment and Diagnosis

A test developer reports that scores on a new measure correlate strongly with an established measure of the same construct administered at the same time. Which type of validity evidence is this?

  1. Test-retest reliability
  2. Concurrent validity Correct answer.
  3. Internal consistency
  4. Predictive validity

Explanation

Concurrent validity is a form of criterion validity in which the measure and a criterion are assessed at the same time. Predictive validity involves a criterion measured in the future.

Question 26Assessment and Diagnosis

A psychologist administers a structured interview that specifies exactly how each question is worded and in what order it must be asked. Which term best describes this type of interview?

  1. Projective interview
  2. Standardized interview Correct answer.
  3. Unstructured interview
  4. Collateral interview

Explanation

A standardized (structured) interview fixes the wording, order, and scoring of questions so that administration is consistent across clients and interviewers. This consistency is what supports comparability of results. The other formats either vary the questions by interviewer or gather information from another source.

Question 27Assessment and Diagnosis

During an assessment, a clinician notes that a client answers 'true' to nearly every item on a personality inventory, including items that contradict one another. Which response style does this pattern most clearly suggest?

  1. Random responding
  2. Malingering
  3. Acquiescence response set Correct answer.
  4. Social desirability

Explanation

Acquiescence is the tendency to agree with or endorse items regardless of their content, which produces the contradictory endorsements described. It is a response set that can distort scale scores. The other patterns involve deliberately presenting oneself favorably, answering without regard to content at all, or feigning symptoms.

Question 28Assessment and Diagnosis

A clinician is selecting an instrument to detect a low-prevalence condition in a general outpatient clinic. Which property is most important for the instrument to have in this setting?

  1. High sensitivity Correct answer.
  2. High test-retest reliability
  3. High positive predictive value
  4. High negative predictive value

Explanation

When a condition is rare in the population being screened, even a specific test will yield many false positives, so positive predictive value falls. A test with high sensitivity minimizes missed cases, which is the priority for initial screening; confirmation then follows with a more specific procedure. Reliability supports consistency but does not by itself determine case detection.

Question 29Assessment and Diagnosis

A neuropsychologist wants to determine whether a client's performance on one cognitive domain is significantly lower than the client's overall level of ability. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Examining the discrepancy between domain scores and an estimate of premorbid functioning Correct answer.
  2. Comparing the client's score to the normative mean for that domain
  3. Administering the same domain test a second time to check consistency
  4. Averaging the client's scores across all administered domains

Explanation

Intraindividual comparison requires a reference point representing the person's own expected level, such as estimated premorbid ability, so that relative strengths and weaknesses can be identified. Comparing only to group norms shows absolute standing, not a personal discrepancy. Averages and retesting do not establish whether a domain is lower than the person's own baseline.

Question 30Assessment and Diagnosis

A psychologist interprets a client's elevated score on a self-report scale as evidence of a depressive disorder. However, the scale also contains many items assessing sleep problems and fatigue, and the client has a diagnosed sleep disorder. Which threat to validity most directly affects this interpretation?

  1. Floor effect
  2. Demand characteristics
  3. Construct underrepresentation
  4. Criterion contamination Correct answer.

Explanation

Criterion contamination occurs when the measure used to define or predict a criterion includes content that is part of another condition, inflating the apparent association. Because the scale's items overlap with symptoms of the client's sleep disorder, the elevated score may reflect that condition rather than depression. The other concepts concern missing content, situational cues, or restricted score ranges.

Question 31Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person experiences recurrent unexpected panic attacks and for a month has worried persistently about having another attack or its consequences. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Generalized anxiety disorder
  2. Agoraphobia
  3. Social anxiety disorder
  4. Panic disorder Correct answer.

Explanation

Panic disorder requires recurrent unexpected panic attacks followed by at least a month of persistent concern about further attacks or their consequences, or maladaptive behavioral change. The worry here is specifically about panic attacks, not a broad range of everyday events.

Question 32Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which core feature most distinguishes a major depressive episode from persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)?

  1. Onset before age 21
  2. Presence of a discrete episode meeting full symptom and duration criteria for major depression Correct answer.
  3. Total duration of low mood exceeding two years
  4. Presence of comorbid anxiety symptoms

Explanation

A major depressive episode is defined by a discrete period of at least two weeks with five or more specified symptoms. Persistent depressive disorder is a more chronic, lower-grade condition lasting at least two years in adults, so a discrete full-threshold episode is the distinguishing marker.

Question 33Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Delusions of persecution and auditory hallucinations occurring in clear consciousness for six months, with functional decline, best support which diagnosis?

  1. Substance-induced psychotic disorder
  2. Brief psychotic disorder
  3. Delusional disorder
  4. Schizophrenia Correct answer.

Explanation

Schizophrenia requires continuous signs of disturbance for at least six months, including at least one month of active-phase symptoms such as delusions or hallucinations, along with functional decline. The duration and symptom profile fit this diagnosis.

Question 34Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person has a marked fear of a specific object that is consistently provoked on exposure and is out of proportion to actual danger. This presentation is most consistent with which diagnosis?

  1. Illness anxiety disorder
  2. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  3. Panic disorder
  4. Specific phobia Correct answer.

Explanation

Specific phobia is defined by marked, persistent fear of a circumscribed object or situation that is provoked on exposure and recognized as excessive or unreasonable. The fear is tied to a specific stimulus rather than to obsessions or spontaneous panic.

Question 35Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which symptom is most characteristic of a manic episode?

  1. Recurrent intrusive thoughts of contamination
  2. Decreased need for sleep with increased goal-directed activity Correct answer.
  3. Hypersomnia with psychomotor retardation
  4. Persistent anhedonia with weight loss

Explanation

Manic episodes are marked by elevated or irritable mood and increased energy, often including decreased need for sleep and heightened goal-directed activity. Sleep loss in mania is distinct from insomnia because the person feels rested after little sleep.

Question 36Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which feature is required for a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

  1. Body weight within or above the normal range
  2. Absence of body image disturbance
  3. Recurrent binge eating followed by purging
  4. Restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight Correct answer.

Explanation

Anorexia nervosa requires persistent restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight relative to what is expected, along with fear of weight gain and body image disturbance. Binge-purge behavior can occur but is not required.

Question 37Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which description best fits a delusion?

  1. A sensory perception occurring without an external stimulus
  2. An intrusive thought recognized as one's own product
  3. A fixed false belief not amenable to change despite contradictory evidence Correct answer.
  4. A repetitive behavior performed to reduce distress

Explanation

A delusion is a fixed false belief held with strong conviction despite clear contradictory evidence and cultural context. Hallucinations, compulsions, and obsessions are distinct phenomena.

Question 38Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which criterion is central to post-traumatic stress disorder?

  1. Exposure to a traumatic event followed by intrusive symptoms, avoidance, and altered arousal Correct answer.
  2. Recurrent unexpected panic attacks
  3. A pervasive pattern of disregard for the rights of others
  4. Grandiose delusions lasting at least one month

Explanation

Post-traumatic stress disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or violence followed by intrusion, avoidance, negative cognitions or mood, and altered arousal or reactivity. These symptom clusters must persist beyond the acute period.

Question 39Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A patient with schizophrenia shows reduced emotional expression, diminished spontaneous speech, and reduced goal-directed behavior. These are best classified as which type of symptom?

  1. Affective symptoms
  2. Positive symptoms
  3. Cognitive symptoms
  4. Negative symptoms Correct answer.

Explanation

Negative symptoms reflect a diminution or loss of normal functions, including blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Positive symptoms instead add abnormal experiences such as hallucinations and delusions.

Question 40Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person reports obsessions and compulsions that consume about one hour per day and cause distress but no significant functional impairment. How does this best fit the diagnostic threshold for obsessive-compulsive disorder?

  1. Criteria are met, because the symptoms are time-consuming or cause distress even without major impairment Correct answer.
  2. Criteria are met, because the person recognizes the symptoms as unreasonable
  3. Criteria are not met, because obsessions alone are required
  4. Criteria are not met, because functional impairment is required

Explanation

Obsessive-compulsive disorder requires obsessions or compulsions that are time-consuming or cause clinically significant distress or impairment. Significant impairment is not mandatory if the symptoms are time-consuming or distressing.

Question 41Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A diagnosis of bulimia nervosa requires that binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors occur, on average, at least how often?

  1. Daily for two weeks
  2. Once a month for six months
  3. Once a week for three months Correct answer.
  4. Twice a week for one month

Explanation

Bulimia nervosa requires recurrent episodes of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors occurring on average at least once a week for three months. Body shape and weight also unduly influence self-evaluation.

Question 42Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person with bipolar I disorder has had a full manic episode and is currently euthymic. What does the presence of the manic episode establish?

  1. Bipolar I disorder can be diagnosed even without a prior major depressive episode Correct answer.
  2. A diagnosis of schizophrenia should be considered
  3. Bipolar II disorder is the correct diagnosis
  4. Cyclothymic disorder is the correct diagnosis

Explanation

Bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode; a major depressive episode is common but not necessary. Bipolar II disorder instead requires hypomanic and major depressive episodes without full mania.

Question 43Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which feature best differentiates a hypomanic episode from a manic episode?

  1. Hypomania lasts at least four days while mania lasts at least two weeks
  2. Hypomania requires psychotic features
  3. Hypomania lacks elevated mood
  4. Hypomania is not severe enough to cause marked impairment or require hospitalization Correct answer.

Explanation

Hypomania involves a distinct period of elevated or irritable mood and increased energy lasting at least four days that is not severe enough to cause marked impairment, require hospitalization, or include psychosis. Mania causes marked impairment or requires hospitalization or features psychosis.

Question 44Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person avoids public transportation, crowds, and being outside alone because of fear that escape might be difficult or help unavailable if panic-like symptoms occur. This best describes which condition?

  1. Social anxiety disorder
  2. Agoraphobia Correct answer.
  3. Separation anxiety disorder
  4. Specific phobia

Explanation

Agoraphobia involves fear or avoidance of situations because escape might be difficult or help unavailable in the event of panic-like or incapacitating symptoms. The fear spans multiple situational domains such as transport, crowds, and being outside alone.

Question 45Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which cluster of symptoms is most characteristic of a major depressive episode?

  1. Elevated mood with decreased need for sleep and increased activity
  2. Fixed false beliefs of persecution
  3. Depressed mood or anhedonia plus changes in sleep, appetite, energy, and concentration Correct answer.
  4. Recurrent panic attacks with anticipatory worry

Explanation

A major depressive episode requires depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure plus additional symptoms such as sleep and appetite changes, fatigue, and poor concentration for at least two weeks. It represents a pervasive shift from prior functioning.

Question 46Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person presents with a persistent pattern of intense and unstable relationships, identity disturbance, and recurrent self-harm. Which diagnosis is most consistent with this presentation?

  1. Schizotypal personality disorder
  2. Avoidant personality disorder
  3. Borderline personality disorder Correct answer.
  4. Antisocial personality disorder

Explanation

Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, along with marked impulsivity such as recurrent self-harm. These features form a stable enduring pattern.

Question 47Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which feature distinguishes somatic symptom disorder from illness anxiety disorder?

  1. Illness anxiety disorder requires the presence of prominent pain symptoms
  2. Somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of delusions about illness
  3. Somatic symptom disorder occurs only in older adults
  4. Somatic symptom disorder involves distressing somatic symptoms, whereas illness anxiety disorder centers on fear of having an illness with minimal somatic symptoms Correct answer.

Explanation

Somatic symptom disorder is defined by one or more distressing somatic symptoms plus excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to them. Illness anxiety disorder instead involves preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness with few or no somatic symptoms.

Question 48Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which symptom is required for the diagnosis of a brief psychotic disorder?

  1. At least one of delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech lasting more than one day but less than one month Correct answer.
  2. Symptoms lasting more than six months
  3. A prior manic episode
  4. Prominent negative symptoms for at least two years

Explanation

Brief psychotic disorder requires at least one core psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech, lasting more than one day but less than one month with eventual full return to prior functioning. The short duration distinguishes it from schizophrenia.

Question 49Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

Which feature is characteristic of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder rather than obsessive-compulsive disorder?

  1. Performance of repetitive rituals to reduce anxiety
  2. Recognition that symptoms are excessive
  3. Pervasive preoccupation with orderliness and perfectionism without true obsessions or compulsions Correct answer.
  4. Presence of recurrent intrusive unwanted thoughts

Explanation

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is a stable pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, without true obsessions or compulsions. Obsessive-compulsive disorder instead involves intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors.

Question 50Psychopathology and Clinical Disorders

A person reports recurrent intrusive and unwanted thoughts that cause anxiety, along with repetitive handwashing performed to reduce that anxiety. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?

  1. Generalized anxiety disorder
  2. Body dysmorphic disorder
  3. Specific phobia
  4. Obsessive-compulsive disorder Correct answer.

Explanation

Obsessive-compulsive disorder is defined by obsessions (intrusive, unwanted thoughts) and compulsions (repetitive behaviors performed to reduce distress). The pairing of intrusive thoughts with ritualized washing fits this pattern.