I85PREP
⌘ K
RMA study materials
RMA study resources

RMA practice questions

One question at a time. Build your RMA understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Clinical Procedures

In which situation must the medical assistant wash the hands with soap and water rather than use an alcohol-based hand rub?

  1. Hands have been gloved for a procedure that lasted under five minutes
  2. Hands are visibly soiled with blood or body fluids Correct answer.
  3. Hands are being cleaned before entering the supply room
  4. Hands are dry and there was brief contact with a patient's intact skin

Explanation

Soap and water physically remove visible soil and are required when hands are visibly contaminated; they are also required after care of patients with C. difficile or norovirus because alcohol does not reliably kill spores. Alcohol-based rubs are intended for routine decontamination when hands are not visibly dirty.

Question 2Clinical Procedures

Which range represents a normal resting heart rate for a healthy adult?

  1. 40 to 60 beats per minute
  2. 120 to 140 beats per minute
  3. 60 to 100 beats per minute Correct answer.
  4. 100 to 120 beats per minute

Explanation

A normal adult resting heart rate is generally 60 to 100 beats per minute. Rates below 60 are termed bradycardia and rates above 100 are termed tachycardia in the resting adult.

Question 3Clinical Procedures

At what angle is an intramuscular injection administered?

  1. 15 degrees
  2. 45 degrees
  3. 90 degrees Correct answer.
  4. 180 degrees

Explanation

Intramuscular injections are given at a 90-degree angle so the needle reaches the muscle belly. Subcutaneous injections are typically given at 45 degrees, and intradermal injections at a very shallow angle.

Question 4Clinical Procedures

After a venipuncture, where should the used needle be placed?

  1. Placed in a labeled biohazard bag for later sorting
  2. Bent and discarded in the regular trash
  3. Recapped using one hand and placed on the tray
  4. Dropped into a puncture-resistant sharps container Correct answer.

Explanation

Used needles must be discarded immediately into a closable, puncture-resistant sharps container. Recapping, bending, or breaking needles is prohibited because these actions increase the risk of needlestick injury.

Question 5Clinical Procedures

The Snellen eye chart is routinely positioned at what distance from the patient?

  1. 10 feet
  2. 20 feet Correct answer.
  3. 30 feet
  4. 15 feet

Explanation

The standard Snellen chart is calibrated for a testing distance of 20 feet, which is equivalent to 6 meters. The patient reads the smallest line possible, and the result is recorded as a fraction such as 20/20.

Question 6Clinical Procedures

Which method is appropriate for sterilizing reusable metal surgical instruments?

  1. Exposing to an ultraviolet light for 10 minutes
  2. Autoclaving with steam under pressure Correct answer.
  3. Soaking in soapy water for 30 minutes
  4. Wiping with 70% isopropyl alcohol

Explanation

Sterilization destroys all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, and steam autoclaving under pressure is a standard method for reusable surgical instruments. Alcohol wiping, soapy water, and ultraviolet light do not achieve sterilization.

Question 7Clinical Procedures

Which position is used for administering an enema or performing a rectal examination?

  1. Trendelenburg position
  2. Left lateral (Sims') position Correct answer.
  3. Prone with arms at sides
  4. Supine with legs extended

Explanation

The left lateral, or Sims', position allows access to the rectum and uses gravity to help retain an enema. The patient lies on the left side with the right knee flexed.

Question 8Clinical Procedures

Which respiratory rate range is expected for a healthy adult at rest?

  1. 20 to 24 breaths per minute
  2. 12 to 20 breaths per minute Correct answer.
  3. 10 to 12 breaths per minute
  4. 6 to 10 breaths per minute

Explanation

A normal adult resting respiratory rate is approximately 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 are bradypnea, and rates above 20 are tachypnea.

Question 9Clinical Procedures

A blood pressure cuff that is too narrow for the patient's arm will most likely produce which error?

  1. A falsely low systolic and diastolic reading
  2. A falsely high systolic and diastolic reading Correct answer.
  3. A reading that fluctuates only during deflation
  4. No change in the reading but more discomfort

Explanation

A cuff that is too narrow or too short requires more pressure to occlude the artery, which falsely elevates the blood pressure reading. An oversized cuff tends to produce falsely low readings.

Question 10Clinical Procedures

The medical assistant has had a tourniquet on a patient's arm for 2 minutes while searching for a vein. What is the best next action?

  1. Switch to a smaller needle and attempt the draw immediately
  2. Leave the tourniquet in place and continue searching for another minute
  3. Release the tourniquet, allow the arm to rest, and then reapply Correct answer.
  4. Tighten the tourniquet to make the vein more prominent

Explanation

A tourniquet should not remain in place for longer than about 1 minute because prolonged venous stasis causes hemoconcentration and can alter laboratory results. If a vein is not found, release the tourniquet, let the arm rest, and reapply before trying again.

Question 11Clinical Procedures

Which site is preferred for a routine capillary blood glucose fingerstick on an adult?

  1. The side of the fingertip Correct answer.
  2. The earlobe
  3. The pad of the thumb
  4. The center of the fingertip

Explanation

The side of the fingertip is preferred because it has fewer nerve endings and provides good capillary blood flow with less pain. Sites should be rotated to avoid tissue injury.

Question 12Clinical Procedures

In a standard 12-lead ECG, where is lead V1 placed?

  1. Fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line
  2. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
  3. Fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border Correct answer.
  4. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Explanation

V1 is placed in the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border. V2 is placed at the left sternal border, and the remaining precordial leads progress across the left chest.

Question 13Clinical Procedures

A Mantoux tuberculin skin test is administered by which route and volume?

  1. Subcutaneous injection of 0.5 mL
  2. Intramuscular injection of 1.0 mL
  3. Intradermal injection of 0.1 mL Correct answer.
  4. Topical application of 0.2 mL

Explanation

The Mantoux test uses 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative injected intradermally into the ventral forearm, creating a small wheal. The site is read 48 to 72 hours later by measuring induration.

Question 14Clinical Procedures

Which instruction should the medical assistant give a patient collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen?

  1. Cleanse, begin voiding, and collect the midstream portion Correct answer.
  2. Collect the first few milliliters of urine in the cup
  3. Collect the entire voided volume over 24 hours
  4. Refrain from cleansing the area to preserve normal flora

Explanation

A clean-catch midstream specimen reduces contamination by having the patient cleanse the genital area, begin voiding into the toilet, and then collect the middle portion of the stream. The first portion is discarded because it may contain normal flora.

Question 15Clinical Procedures

When instilling eye drops, the medical assistant should take which action?

  1. Pull down the lower lid and instill into the conjunctival sac Correct answer.
  2. Ask the patient to look up and keep the eye open without blinking
  3. Place the drops directly on the center of the cornea
  4. Touch the dropper tip to the eyelid to steady it

Explanation

Eye drops are instilled into the lower conjunctival sac after gently pulling down the lower lid. The dropper tip must not touch the eye or eyelid, and the patient should blink gently afterward to distribute the medication.

Question 16Clinical Procedures

Which application is appropriate during the first 24 to 48 hours after an acute ankle sprain?

  1. Alternating hot and cold every 5 minutes
  2. A cloth-wrapped cold pack for 15 to 20 minutes Correct answer.
  3. A heating pad applied directly to the skin
  4. A warm compress applied for 20 minutes every hour

Explanation

Cold application during the first 24 to 48 hours after an acute injury helps reduce swelling, pain, and bleeding in the tissues. The cold pack should be wrapped in cloth to protect the skin and left on for about 15 to 20 minutes.

Question 17Clinical Procedures

When fitting a patient for crutches, the handgrips should be positioned so that the elbows are flexed at approximately what angle?

  1. 45 to 60 degrees
  2. 70 to 90 degrees
  3. 90 to 120 degrees
  4. 15 to 30 degrees Correct answer.

Explanation

Properly fitted crutches allow 15 to 30 degrees of elbow flexion when the patient grips the handles. The crutch pads should sit two to three finger widths below the axilla to avoid pressure on the nerves and vessels.

Question 18Clinical Procedures

A sterile swab falls onto the edge of a sterile field. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Remove it and consider the field contaminated if sterility is in doubt Correct answer.
  2. Spray it with alcohol and place it back on the field
  3. Pick it up and continue using it because it landed on the sterile drape
  4. Turn the swab over and use the clean side

Explanation

Any item that touches an unsterile surface, including the outer edge of a sterile drape, is considered contaminated. When sterility is in doubt, the safe action is to discard the item and set up a new sterile field.

Question 19Clinical Procedures

Which action will most likely improve an unreliable pulse oximetry reading on a patient with cold fingers and dark nail polish?

  1. Place the sensor on the earlobe without changing settings
  2. Ask the patient to hold the finger still for 5 seconds
  3. Remove nail polish and warm the hand, then recheck Correct answer.
  4. Increase the oxygen flow rate before rechecking

Explanation

Nail polish and poor peripheral perfusion interfere with the light transmission used by pulse oximetry. Removing polish and warming the hand improves circulation and signal quality before repeating the reading.

Question 20Clinical Procedures

Which factor most strongly determines when sutures should be removed from a wound?

  1. The number of sutures placed
  2. The patient's age alone
  3. Wound location and healing stage Correct answer.
  4. The color of the suture material

Explanation

Suture removal timing depends mainly on wound location and the stage of healing; facial wounds may be ready in a few days, while wounds on the trunk or extremities often require longer. The provider assesses the wound before removal.

Question 21Clinical Procedures

During a blood pressure measurement, the first clear tapping sound heard as the cuff deflates corresponds to which Korotkoff phase and pressure?

  1. Phase I, which represents systolic pressure Correct answer.
  2. Phase V, which represents systolic pressure
  3. Phase II, which represents diastolic pressure
  4. Phase III, which represents mean arterial pressure

Explanation

The first clear tapping sound during deflation is Korotkoff phase I and represents systolic pressure. In adults, phase V, the point at which sounds disappear, represents diastolic pressure.

Question 22Clinical Procedures

During a venipuncture, a hematoma begins to form at the site. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Stop, remove the needle, and apply firm pressure Correct answer.
  2. Continue the draw and apply ice after removing the needle
  3. Withdraw the needle slightly and reinsert at a different angle
  4. Aspirate the hematoma with a syringe before bandaging

Explanation

If a hematoma forms, the draw should be stopped and the needle removed to prevent further bleeding into the tissue. Firm pressure should be applied for several minutes, and the site should be checked before bandaging.

Question 23Clinical Procedures

Which instruction is correct for a patient performing spirometry?

  1. Take several rapid breaths through the mouthpiece without a full inhalation
  2. Inhale fully and then blast out forcefully into the mouthpiece Correct answer.
  3. Exhale completely and then hold the breath for 10 seconds before inhaling
  4. Inhale slowly through the nose and exhale gently into the mouthpiece

Explanation

Spirometry requires a maximal inhalation followed by a forceful, complete exhalation into the mouthpiece. A nose clip is used to prevent air leakage through the nose, and the maneuver may be repeated to ensure reliability.

Question 24Clinical Procedures

Which item requires sterilization rather than high-level disinfection?

  1. A blood pressure cuff used on intact skin
  2. A reusable oral thermometer probe cover
  3. An endoscope that will contact mucous membranes
  4. A surgical instrument entering a sterile cavity Correct answer.

Explanation

Critical items that enter sterile body cavities or the vascular system must be sterile because any microbial contamination can cause serious infection. Semicritical items that contact mucous membranes generally require high-level disinfection, and noncritical items that touch intact skin require low-level disinfection.

Question 25Clinical Procedures

A patient develops hives, wheezing, and hypotension minutes after an allergy injection. Which medication should the medical assistant prepare for immediate administration?

  1. Epinephrine 1:1000 IM Correct answer.
  2. Acetaminophen by mouth
  3. Diphenhydramine orally
  4. Nitroglycerin sublingually

Explanation

These findings suggest anaphylaxis, for which intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line treatment. It should be given promptly into the anterolateral thigh, and emergency services should be activated.

Question 26Clinical Procedures

Which route is considered the most accurate reflection of core body temperature when measured with a standard clinical thermometer?

  1. Axillary
  2. Temporal artery
  3. Rectal Correct answer.
  4. Oral

Explanation

Rectal temperature most closely reflects core body temperature because the rectum is internally located and less affected by ambient air, recent drinking, or mouth breathing. Oral and axillary readings are affected by local factors, and temporal artery devices vary with technique.

Question 27Clinical Procedures

Which resting heart rate range is expected for a healthy adult?

  1. 60 to 100 beats per minute Correct answer.
  2. 50 to 90 beats per minute
  3. 100 to 120 beats per minute
  4. 40 to 60 beats per minute

Explanation

The accepted normal adult resting heart rate is 60 to 100 beats per minute. Rates below 60 are bradycardia and rates above 100 are tachycardia in an adult at rest.

Question 28Clinical Procedures

Which needle gauge provides the largest lumen for rapid fluid administration?

  1. 25 gauge
  2. 23 gauge
  3. 21 gauge
  4. 18 gauge Correct answer.

Explanation

Needle gauge and lumen size are inversely related: the smaller the gauge number, the larger the lumen. An 18-gauge needle therefore allows the fastest flow among the choices listed.

Question 29Clinical Procedures

Which evacuated tube top color indicates the presence of EDTA for hematology testing?

  1. Red
  2. Gray
  3. Lavender Correct answer.
  4. Green

Explanation

Lavender-top tubes contain EDTA, which preserves cell morphology for complete blood counts and other hematology tests. Red tops are plain, green tops contain heparin, and gray tops contain oxalate or fluoride.

Question 30Clinical Procedures

Which position is recommended for a patient who is showing signs of shock?

  1. Prone
  2. High Fowler
  3. Left lateral recumbent
  4. Supine with the legs elevated Correct answer.

Explanation

Lying supine with the legs elevated promotes venous return to the heart and supports blood pressure in a patient with shock. The head should remain flat or slightly elevated for comfort and breathing.

Question 31Clinical Procedures

What compression rate is recommended for adult CPR?

  1. 120 to 140 per minute
  2. 80 to 100 per minute
  3. 100 to 120 per minute Correct answer.
  4. 60 to 80 per minute

Explanation

High-quality adult CPR uses chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute. Compressions should be at least 2 inches deep and allow full chest recoil.

Question 32Clinical Procedures

Which intramuscular site is preferred for administering a large volume of medication to an adult?

  1. Ventrogluteal Correct answer.
  2. Deltoid
  3. Rectus femoris
  4. Dorsogluteal

Explanation

The ventrogluteal site has a large muscle mass, reliable landmarks, and minimal risk to major nerves or blood vessels, making it preferred for larger IM volumes. The deltoid holds only small volumes, and the dorsogluteal site carries sciatic nerve risk.

Question 33Clinical Procedures

What is the maximum volume generally recommended for a single deltoid intramuscular injection in an adult?

  1. 1 mL Correct answer.
  2. 2 mL
  3. 0.5 mL
  4. 3 mL

Explanation

The deltoid muscle is small, so injections are typically limited to 1 mL or less to prevent discomfort and ensure absorption. Larger volumes should be given in a larger muscle such as the ventrogluteal site.

Question 34Clinical Procedures

Which action is essential when administering an intramuscular injection by the Z-track technique?

  1. Massage the site vigorously immediately after the needle is removed
  2. Aspirate for 5 to 10 seconds before injecting the medication
  3. Pull the skin laterally before injecting and release it after withdrawal Correct answer.
  4. Pinch the skin and inject at a 90-degree angle without displacing tissue

Explanation

Z-track technique displaces the skin and subcutaneous tissue before injection so that a zigzag track seals the medication in the muscle. The skin is released only after the needle is withdrawn, and the site is not massaged.

Question 35Clinical Procedures

Which needle length is most appropriate for a subcutaneous injection in an average adult?

  1. 5/8 inch Correct answer.
  2. 1.5 inch
  3. 1/4 inch
  4. 3 inch

Explanation

Subcutaneous tissue lies just below the skin, so a short needle of about 5/8 inch is typical for an average adult. Longer needles risk reaching muscle, while 1/4 inch may not penetrate subcutaneous tissue reliably.

Question 36Clinical Procedures

Which area is the correct site for a capillary puncture on an infant's heel?

  1. The posterior aspect of the heel
  2. The center of the heel
  3. The tip of the toes
  4. The medial or lateral plantar surface Correct answer.

Explanation

Heel punctures in infants are made on the medial or lateral plantar surface, where there is adequate tissue and less risk of bone injury. The center and posterior heel are avoided because of the underlying calcaneus.

Question 37Clinical Procedures

A patient reports burning and pain at an intravenous catheter site. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

  1. Apply a warm compress and continue the infusion
  2. Stop the infusion and assess the site Correct answer.
  3. Increase the infusion rate to flush the vein
  4. Reposition the arm and continue at the same rate

Explanation

Pain and burning during an infusion may indicate infiltration, extravasation, or phlebitis, so the infusion must be stopped and the site assessed immediately. Continuing the infusion can worsen tissue damage.

Question 38Clinical Procedures

Which instruction should be given to a patient collecting a sputum specimen?

  1. Rinse the mouth with water and collect a deep cough specimen Correct answer.
  2. Collect saliva from the mouth after meals
  3. Use a swab to sample the inside of the cheek
  4. Collect the specimen immediately after waking without rinsing

Explanation

A sputum specimen should come from the lower respiratory tract, so the patient rinses the mouth to reduce contamination and then coughs deeply. Saliva and cheek swabs do not represent lower airway secretions.

Question 39Clinical Procedures

When instructing a patient about a 24-hour urine collection, which step is correct?

  1. Collect the first voided specimen of the day and discard all later ones
  2. Keep the container at room temperature until the collection is complete
  3. Discard the first voided specimen and collect all urine for the next 24 hours Correct answer.
  4. Collect only the daytime specimens and discard nighttime ones

Explanation

The collection begins after the first void is discarded, and all urine produced during the following 24 hours is collected. This ensures the specimen represents a complete 24-hour period.

Question 40Clinical Procedures

Which principle guides the cleaning of a surgical wound during a dressing change?

  1. Clean from the least contaminated area toward the most contaminated area Correct answer.
  2. Clean from the most contaminated area toward the least contaminated area
  3. Scrub the center with alcohol before cleaning the edges
  4. Use the same gauze pad for the entire wound surface

Explanation

Cleaning proceeds from clean to dirty so that contaminants from the wound edges are not carried into the wound bed. A new gauze pad is used for each stroke to avoid spreading contamination.

Question 41Clinical Procedures

Which action is most important after applying a bandage to a patient's limb?

  1. Apply the bandage as tightly as possible
  2. Leave the bandage loose enough to slip off
  3. Cover the fingers or toes completely
  4. Check circulation distal to the bandage Correct answer.

Explanation

A bandage that is too tight can impair arterial flow and cause numbness, pallor, or coolness. Checking circulation, sensation, and color distal to the bandage detects compromise early.

Question 42Clinical Procedures

In which order should personal protective equipment be donned before a procedure?

  1. Goggles, gloves, mask, gown
  2. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves Correct answer.
  3. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
  4. Gloves, gown, mask, goggles

Explanation

PPE is applied from cleanest to most contaminated: gown first, then mask, then eye protection, and gloves last. Gloves are put on last so they do not contaminate the other equipment during donning.

Question 43Clinical Procedures

Which item of personal protective equipment should be removed first after patient care?

  1. Gloves Correct answer.
  2. Gown
  3. Goggles
  4. Mask

Explanation

Gloves are removed first because they are the most contaminated item and removing them first prevents contamination of the face and other PPE. Hand hygiene follows glove removal.

Question 44Clinical Procedures

When should a colostomy pouch be emptied?

  1. Only when it is completely full
  2. Every 8 hours regardless of fullness
  3. When it is one-third to one-half full Correct answer.
  4. When it is three-quarters full

Explanation

A colostomy pouch is emptied when it is about one-third to one-half full to prevent weight-related leakage and skin breakdown. Waiting until it is full increases the risk of detachment and odor.

Question 45Clinical Procedures

What oxygen flow rate is typically delivered by a nasal cannula?

  1. 15 to 20 liters per minute
  2. 1 to 6 liters per minute Correct answer.
  3. 6 to 10 liters per minute
  4. 10 to 15 liters per minute

Explanation

A nasal cannula delivers low-flow oxygen, generally 1 to 6 liters per minute, providing an approximate inspired oxygen concentration of 24% to 44%. Higher flows require a different delivery device.

Question 46Clinical Procedures

A patient has an order that reads 'NPO except medications.' How should the medical assistant interpret this order?

  1. A full liquid diet may be given with medications
  2. Nothing by mouth except medications taken with a small sip of water Correct answer.
  3. No food, but clear liquids are allowed freely
  4. Only ice chips may be given

Explanation

NPO means nothing by mouth, and the exception permits only medications, usually with the smallest amount of water needed to swallow them. Clear liquids and ice chips are not included unless specifically ordered.

Question 47Clinical Procedures

An order is for 1,000 mL of intravenous fluid to infuse over 8 hours using tubing with a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. What is the correct flow rate in drops per minute?

  1. 25 drops per minute
  2. 42 drops per minute
  3. 31 drops per minute Correct answer.
  4. 21 drops per minute

Explanation

First divide 1,000 mL by 480 minutes to get about 2.08 mL per minute. Multiply by the 15 drops per milliliter drop factor to get about 31 drops per minute.

Question 48Clinical Procedures

What does a pulse deficit indicate when comparing apical and radial pulses?

  1. An irregular cardiac rhythm
  2. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
  3. The difference between the apical and radial rates Correct answer.
  4. A weak radial pulse on one side

Explanation

A pulse deficit is the difference between the apical heart rate and the radial pulse rate. It occurs when some heartbeats do not generate a peripheral pulse strong enough to be felt, as in atrial fibrillation.

Question 49Clinical Procedures

Which technique is correct when obtaining a throat culture?

  1. Swab only the hard palate and the gums
  2. Swab the inside of the cheek and the tongue
  3. Swab the anterior nares and the nasal septum
  4. Swab both tonsillar pillars and the posterior pharynx Correct answer.

Explanation

A throat culture must sample the tonsillar pillars and posterior pharynx, avoiding the tongue, cheeks, and uvula. Touching those areas contaminates the swab with normal oral flora.

Question 50Clinical Procedures

Which condition is a contraindication to inserting a rectal suppository?

  1. Constipation
  2. Mild fever
  3. Recent rectal surgery Correct answer.
  4. Hypertension

Explanation

Recent rectal surgery, rectal bleeding, or significant rectal irritation contraindicates suppository insertion because of the risk of injury or disruption of healing tissue. Constipation is often the indication for a suppository rather than a contraindication.