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Platform App Builder study materials
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Platform App Builder practice questions

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Question 1Salesforce Fundamentals

Which statement describes how Salesforce multi-tenant architecture isolates customer data?

  1. Each customer receives a separate copy of the application code for their org.
  2. Customers must install and maintain the application on their own servers.
  3. Each customer receives a dedicated database server and a separate application instance.
  4. Customers share infrastructure while their data is logically separated. Correct answer.

Explanation

Salesforce runs one shared application and infrastructure for all customers. Each org's data is kept logically separate through metadata and identifiers rather than dedicated servers or code copies.

Question 2Salesforce Fundamentals

Which declarative tool gives a graphical view of objects and their relationships in an org?

  1. Developer Console
  2. Process Builder
  3. AppExchange
  4. Schema Builder Correct answer.

Explanation

Schema Builder is a point-and-click tool that displays objects, fields, and relationship lines in a diagram. The other tools serve coding, automation, or app marketplace purposes rather than schema visualization.

Question 3Salesforce Fundamentals

Which field type calculates a value from an expression that you define?

  1. Text
  2. Checkbox
  3. Auto Number
  4. Formula Correct answer.

Explanation

A formula field derives its value from an expression written in Salesforce's formula syntax. Text and checkbox fields store entered values, while auto-number fields generate sequential identifiers.

Question 4Salesforce Fundamentals

Which of these is a standard object in Salesforce?

  1. Account Correct answer.
  2. Candidate__c
  3. Invoice__c
  4. Equipment__c

Explanation

Account is one of the standard objects included with Salesforce. Objects with a __c suffix are custom objects created for a specific org.

Question 5Salesforce Fundamentals

What does a tab provide in a Salesforce app?

  1. A schedule for data backups
  2. A navigation point to an object or content Correct answer.
  3. A set of field-level permissions for users
  4. An organization-wide sharing default

Explanation

Tabs appear in the navigation bar and let users open an object, a Visualforce page, a Lightning component, or other content. Tabs affect navigation, not permissions or sharing.

Question 6Salesforce Fundamentals

Which sandbox type includes a full copy of production data and metadata?

  1. Developer Pro
  2. Partial Copy
  3. Full Correct answer.
  4. Developer

Explanation

A Full sandbox is a replica of the production org, including all data and metadata. Developer and Developer Pro sandboxes include metadata with limited data, and Partial Copy uses a sample of data.

Question 7Salesforce Fundamentals

A user tries to save a record that meets a validation rule's error condition. What happens?

  1. The record is saved but the field is cleared
  2. The record is routed for approval
  3. The save is blocked with an error Correct answer.
  4. The record saves and a warning is logged

Explanation

A validation rule blocks a save when its formula evaluates to true and displays the configured error message. It does not silently save, clear fields, or start an approval process.

Question 8Salesforce Fundamentals

Which setting controls whether a user can view or edit a specific field?

  1. Field-level security Correct answer.
  2. Sharing rule
  3. Role hierarchy
  4. Organization-wide default

Explanation

Field-level security determines whether a user can see or edit a particular field on an object. Organization-wide defaults, role hierarchy, and sharing rules control record access rather than field access.

Question 9Salesforce Fundamentals

A roll-up summary field is required on a parent object. Which relationship must the child object have to the parent?

  1. Master-detail Correct answer.
  2. Lookup
  3. External lookup
  4. Many-to-many

Explanation

Roll-up summary fields can only be created on the parent side of a master-detail relationship. Lookup relationships do not support roll-up summary fields.

Question 10Salesforce Fundamentals

An object's organization-wide default is Private. What is the default access for users who do not own a record and are not above the owner in the role hierarchy?

  1. They can access only through reports
  2. They can view all records but not edit them
  3. They can view and edit all records
  4. They cannot access the record Correct answer.

Explanation

With a Private organization-wide default, users have no default access to records they do not own unless sharing or hierarchy grants it. Reports do not grant record access.

Question 11Salesforce Fundamentals

How does the role hierarchy affect record access?

  1. It restricts access for users at higher roles
  2. It controls field-level security for users
  3. It sets the default sharing level for all objects
  4. It grants access upward from the record owner Correct answer.

Explanation

The role hierarchy opens access to records for users above the record owner in the hierarchy. It does not restrict higher roles and does not set object defaults or field permissions.

Question 12Salesforce Fundamentals

A user has a profile that grants read-only access to the Case object. You assign a permission set that grants edit access to Case. What is the result?

  1. The user can edit cases only if the profile is changed to System Administrator
  2. The profile overrides the permission set, so access stays read-only
  3. The user loses all Case access due to conflict
  4. The permission set adds edit access, so the user can edit cases Correct answer.

Explanation

Permission sets are additive and grant additional access without changing the user's profile. The union of profile and permission set permissions determines the user's effective access.

Question 13Salesforce Fundamentals

In Salesforce, what does metadata describe?

  1. The physical database rows stored in each table
  2. The user's browser settings and login history
  3. The data backup schedule for the org
  4. The org's configuration, such as objects and fields Correct answer.

Explanation

Metadata describes the configuration of the org, including objects, fields, page layouts, and other settings. Business data stored in records is separate from this configuration metadata.

Question 14Salesforce Fundamentals

In Salesforce's MVC architecture, which component represents the data model?

  1. Standard and custom objects Correct answer.
  2. Visualforce pages
  3. Apex controllers
  4. Lightning pages

Explanation

In the Salesforce MVC pattern, standard and custom objects represent the model. Visualforce and Lightning pages represent the view, and Apex controllers supply controller logic.

Question 15Salesforce Fundamentals

Governor limits are enforced in Salesforce to ensure what?

  1. That data is encrypted at rest
  2. That users can log in from any device
  3. That each customer receives a dedicated database server
  4. That shared resources remain available for all tenants Correct answer.

Explanation

Governor limits cap resource consumption so that one transaction or tenant cannot monopolize shared resources. They protect the stability of the multi-tenant platform for all customers.

Question 16Salesforce Fundamentals

Which statement best distinguishes custom metadata types from custom settings?

  1. Custom settings are available only in Developer Edition orgs and cannot be used in production.
  2. Custom settings support relationships between objects while custom metadata types do not support any relationships.
  3. Custom metadata types cannot store configuration data because they are limited to storing code.
  4. Custom metadata records can be deployed between orgs; custom settings data cannot. Correct answer.

Explanation

Custom metadata records are metadata and can be migrated between orgs with change sets or packages. Custom setting data is org-specific and is not deployed the same way.

Question 17Salesforce Fundamentals

What is the main purpose of record types?

  1. To vary picklist values and page layouts by user Correct answer.
  2. To create a separate object for each business unit
  3. To control login hours for each user
  4. To encrypt each record at rest with a unique key

Explanation

Record types let one object present different business processes, picklist values, and page layouts to different users. They do not create separate objects or control encryption or login hours.

Question 18Salesforce Fundamentals

Which tool is designed to import large data volumes into objects that the Import Wizard does not support?

  1. AppExchange
  2. Process Builder
  3. Data Loader Correct answer.
  4. Schema Builder

Explanation

Data Loader is a client application for bulk importing, exporting, and deleting data and supports all objects. The Import Wizard is limited to certain objects and smaller volumes.

Question 19Salesforce Fundamentals

When an active duplicate rule matches a record being created, what can happen?

  1. The record is merged without confirmation
  2. The user may be warned or blocked Correct answer.
  3. The user is logged out of Salesforce
  4. The record is always deleted automatically

Explanation

A duplicate rule can be configured to warn the user or block the save when a matching record is found. It does not automatically delete, merge, or log out the user.

Question 20Salesforce Fundamentals

Which tool is used to create and customize Lightning pages declaratively?

  1. Schema Builder
  2. Lightning App Builder Correct answer.
  3. Developer Console
  4. Data Loader

Explanation

Lightning App Builder is the point-and-click tool for building Lightning pages and assigning them to apps, record types, or profiles. Developer Console, Schema Builder, and Data Loader serve different purposes.

Question 21Salesforce Fundamentals

Two custom objects need a many-to-many relationship. Which approach is standard?

  1. Use a roll-up summary on both objects to count related records.
  2. Add a formula field on each object that references the other object's record ID.
  3. Add a lookup field on each object that points to the other object and make both fields required.
  4. Use a junction object with master-detail fields to both objects. Correct answer.

Explanation

A many-to-many relationship is modeled with a junction object that has two master-detail relationships, one to each related object. Two direct lookup fields do not create a true many-to-many model.

Question 22Salesforce Fundamentals

Which sharing rule shares records with a public group based on who owns the records?

  1. Territory sharing rule
  2. Owner-based sharing rule Correct answer.
  3. Manual sharing
  4. Criteria-based sharing rule

Explanation

An owner-based sharing rule shares records owned by specified users or groups with other users or groups. A criteria-based rule shares records that meet field criteria instead.

Question 23Salesforce Fundamentals

What happens to a record when an approval process locks it?

  1. The record's owner is changed to the approver
  2. The record becomes read-only while locked Correct answer.
  3. The record is deleted and moved to the Recycle Bin
  4. The record is moved to a different object automatically

Explanation

A locked record cannot be edited by users who lack permission to modify locked records while the approval is in progress. The record is not deleted, reassigned, or moved to another object by the lock.

Question 24Salesforce Fundamentals

How long are deleted records retained in the Recycle Bin by default before permanent deletion?

  1. 7 days
  2. 15 days Correct answer.
  3. 30 days
  4. 90 days

Explanation

Salesforce retains deleted records in the Recycle Bin for 15 days by default, allowing them to be restored during that period. After retention expires, the records are permanently removed.

Question 25Salesforce Fundamentals

Which feature tracks changes to the values of specific fields on a record?

  1. Field history tracking Correct answer.
  2. Recycle Bin
  3. Setup audit trail
  4. Login history

Explanation

Field history tracking stores an audit of changes to selected fields on an object, including old and new values. Login history, the Setup audit trail, and the Recycle Bin track different types of events.

Question 26Salesforce Fundamentals

A developer creates a custom object named Invoice. Which API name does Salesforce assign to that object?

  1. Invoice__r
  2. Invoice_s
  3. Invoice__c Correct answer.
  4. c_Invoice

Explanation

Salesforce appends the suffix __c to the API name of every custom object, just as it does for custom fields; the label can be anything, but the API name always carries this suffix.

Question 27Salesforce Fundamentals

Which field type lets a user choose exactly one value from a list of values that an administrator maintains?

  1. Checkbox
  2. Picklist Correct answer.
  3. Text area (rich)
  4. Multi-select picklist

Explanation

A picklist stores a single value selected from an administrator-defined list of options, which can be defined locally on the field or drawn from a shared global value set.

Question 28Salesforce Fundamentals

Which standard object stores one record for each person who can log in to a Salesforce org?

  1. Contact
  2. User Correct answer.
  3. Profile
  4. Account

Explanation

The User object holds one record per person with login credentials, and it is the record to which profiles, roles, and permission sets are attached.

Question 29Salesforce Fundamentals

What is the purpose of a public group in Salesforce?

  1. To define the record types that are available to a given profile
  2. To set the organization-wide default sharing for a custom object
  3. To grant access to records and folders to several users at once Correct answer.
  4. To store reusable email templates that are shared across the org

Explanation

A public group is a container that can hold individual users, roles, and other groups, so that sharing rules, manual sharing, and folder sharing can grant access to all of its members in one step.

Question 30Salesforce Fundamentals

A company has a custom object Position that must always be associated with a Job record, and every Position should be removed automatically when its Job is deleted. Which relationship type should be defined on Position?

  1. A hierarchical relationship to Job
  2. A master-detail relationship to Job Correct answer.
  3. A lookup relationship to Job
  4. An external lookup relationship to Job

Explanation

A master-detail relationship binds the child tightly to the parent: the child inherits the parent's sharing, the parent field is required, and deleting the parent deletes its children by default.

Question 31Salesforce Fundamentals

An administrator builds two custom picklists so that the values offered in the second field are filtered by the value chosen in the first field. What is the second field called?

  1. A dependent picklist Correct answer.
  2. A global value set
  3. A controlling field
  4. A multi-select picklist

Explanation

In a field dependency, the controlling field limits the choices available in the dependent picklist, so the dependent field's options change with the controlling selection.

Question 32Salesforce Fundamentals

New support cases must sit in a shared list where any member of the support team can pick up and take ownership of a case. Which feature provides this shared ownership?

  1. A queue Correct answer.
  2. A public group
  3. A role hierarchy
  4. A criteria-based sharing rule

Explanation

Queues hold records that are not yet assigned to an individual, and members of the queue can take ownership of a record when they begin work on it; queues are supported for cases, leads, and most custom objects.

Question 33Salesforce Fundamentals

Which tool moves metadata such as custom objects, fields, and Lightning pages from a sandbox into production without writing code?

  1. Data Loader
  2. An outbound change set Correct answer.
  3. A weekly data export
  4. The Data Import Wizard

Explanation

An outbound change set is the point-and-click container for deploying metadata from one related org, such as a sandbox, to another, such as production.

Question 34Salesforce Fundamentals

An administrator needs to find out which user changed a profile setting last week. Which Setup feature provides that history?

  1. The Setup Audit Trail Correct answer.
  2. Field history tracking on the User object
  3. A debug log
  4. The login history

Explanation

The Setup Audit Trail records configuration changes made in Setup, including who made each change and when, and it is retained for the last 180 days.

Question 35Salesforce Fundamentals

Which feature lets an administrator allow selected users to create and edit users within specific roles and departments, without giving them full system administrator rights?

  1. A permission set group
  2. Log in as a user
  3. Delegated administration Correct answer.
  4. The role hierarchy

Explanation

Delegated administration assigns users to a delegated group that can manage users who fall under the roles granted to that group, while the rest of Setup stays off limits.

Question 36Salesforce Fundamentals

An employee leaves the company. The administrator must block any further login but keep all records and ownership history the employee created. What should the administrator do?

  1. Freeze the user's login for 30 days
  2. Change the user's profile to a read-only profile
  3. Delete the user record and reassign the records that were owned
  4. Deactivate the user record Correct answer.

Explanation

Deactivating a user prevents sign-in while preserving the user record, its ownership of records, and its audit history, and the user can later be reactivated if needed.

Question 37Salesforce Fundamentals

A company wants its support agents to be able to sign in only between 08:00 and 18:00 on weekdays. Which setting enforces this?

  1. Password policies in Setup
  2. Session settings in Setup
  3. Trusted IP ranges in network access
  4. Login hours on the user's profile Correct answer.

Explanation

Login hours on a profile define the days and time windows during which its users may sign in, and any active session can be ended when the allowed window closes.

Question 38Salesforce Fundamentals

A hierarchy custom setting stores a value at the organization level, at a profile level, and at a user level. A validation rule reads the setting for a specific user. Which value does the user's session use?

  1. The value set at the profile level
  2. The value set at the organization level
  3. The values are combined by summing all three levels
  4. The value set at the user level Correct answer.

Explanation

Hierarchy custom settings resolve from most specific to least specific: a value defined for the user overrides the profile value, which in turn overrides the organization-level value.

Question 39Salesforce Fundamentals

Which statement is true of a managed package that a subscriber installs from AppExchange?

  1. It can be installed only in Developer Edition organizations
  2. Its components carry a namespace prefix and cannot be edited by the subscriber Correct answer.
  3. It must be uninstalled before any custom objects can be created
  4. Its components can be edited by the subscriber just like locally created objects

Explanation

Managed packages are distributed under a namespace prefix, which keeps their components distinct from the subscriber's own, and the subscriber cannot modify the package's components.

Question 40Salesforce Fundamentals

A child object has an optional lookup relationship to a parent object. An administrator deletes a parent record that is referenced by 12 child records. What happens to those child records by default?

  1. They are reassigned to the administrator who deleted the parent
  2. The deletion is blocked until the children are reassigned
  3. Their lookup field is cleared and they remain in the org Correct answer.
  4. They are deleted together with the parent record

Explanation

With a lookup relationship, the child records are independent of the parent, so deleting the parent simply clears the lookup value on the children; the children stay in the org because the field is not required.

Question 41Data Modeling and Management

Which statement about a master-detail relationship is accurate?

  1. Master-detail relationships cannot be built on standard objects.
  2. The detail record requires a master record to be saved. Correct answer.
  3. The detail record can exist with a blank master-detail field.
  4. Master-detail relationships can only link two custom objects.

Explanation

A master-detail relationship makes the detail record dependent on the master: the master-detail field is required, and deleting the master deletes its detail records. Master-detail relationships can be created between custom objects, between standard objects, and across the two, subject to per-object limits.

Question 42Data Modeling and Management

Which field type calculates its value from an expression at the time a record is viewed instead of storing the result in the database?

  1. Formula Correct answer.
  2. Lookup relationship
  3. Auto-number
  4. Roll-up summary

Explanation

Formula fields are evaluated whenever the record is displayed or queried, so no value is written to the database. Roll-up summaries, lookups and auto-number fields all store persistent data in the record.

Question 43Data Modeling and Management

A junction object is used to model which type of relationship between two objects?

  1. Self-referential hierarchy
  2. Parent-to-child with roll-up summaries
  3. Many-to-many Correct answer.
  4. One-to-one

Explanation

A junction object carries two master-detail relationships, so each junction record links one record from each object and the overall model becomes many-to-many. A single relationship of any kind can only express one-to-many or one-to-one cardinality.

Question 44Data Modeling and Management

On which object can a roll-up summary field be created?

  1. The parent object in a master-detail relationship Correct answer.
  2. The child object in a master-detail relationship
  3. Any standard or custom object
  4. The parent object in a lookup relationship

Explanation

Roll-up summary fields are created on the master side of a master-detail relationship and aggregate the related detail records. They are not offered on lookup relationships, and they are never placed on the detail object.

Question 45Data Modeling and Management

A validation rule blocks a record from being saved under which condition?

  1. When the rule's formula returns true Correct answer.
  2. Only when the record is created, never when it is edited
  3. When the rule's formula returns false
  4. Only when the record is edited through the API

Explanation

A validation rule fires when its formula evaluates to true and prevents the save, displaying the configured error message. A false result means the invalid condition was not met and the save proceeds.

Question 46Data Modeling and Management

What is the primary purpose of marking a custom field as an External ID?

  1. To replace the 15-character record ID in URLs
  2. To match records during an import or upsert Correct answer.
  3. To enforce uniqueness without any other setting
  4. To encrypt the field's values at rest

Explanation

An External ID field stores an identifier from another system and is the standard field used to match incoming rows to existing records during imports and upserts. It does not encrypt data, and uniqueness is only enforced when the Unique attribute is also selected.

Question 47Data Modeling and Management

A user needs to load new records into a custom object using only the Data Import Wizard. What is the maximum number of records one import can process?

  1. 500
  2. 50,000 Correct answer.
  3. 5,000
  4. 250,000

Explanation

The Data Import Wizard accepts up to 50,000 records per import. Larger volumes are normally handled with Data Loader or the Bulk API.

Question 48Data Modeling and Management

Which setting prevents a user from accessing a field's data through the API, reports, and list views?

  1. Field-level security Correct answer.
  2. Record type assignment
  3. Page layout assignment
  4. Organization-wide default

Explanation

Field-level security is the only setting that blocks a user from reading a field's value everywhere, including the API, reports, list views and related lists. Page layouts and record types only affect what appears in the user interface.

Question 49Data Modeling and Management

A junction object has two master-detail relationships, one to Object A and one to Object B. A user deletes an A record. What happens to the junction records linked to that A record?

  1. They remain, and the A relationship field is cleared.
  2. Salesforce blocks the delete until the junction records are removed.
  3. They are reassigned to the user who deleted the A record.
  4. They are deleted along with the A record. Correct answer.

Explanation

A junction record is a detail record of both parents, so deleting either master cascades to the junction records. Sharing, ownership and reassignment rules do not override the cascade delete behavior of master-detail relationships.

Question 50Data Modeling and Management

Users want a field on the parent object that totals related child records, but the two objects are linked by a lookup relationship. What should the app builder do?

  1. Create a roll-up summary field and select the lookup relationship.
  2. Automate the total with a record-triggered flow or an Apex trigger. Correct answer.
  3. Create a cross-object formula on the parent that references child records.
  4. Convert the lookup to a hierarchical relationship so roll-ups become available.

Explanation

Roll-up summary fields require a master-detail relationship and are not offered for lookup relationships. The common declarative workaround is automation that recalculates and stores the total on the parent record, such as a record-triggered flow or Apex trigger.