I85PREP
⌘ K
STCW Basic Safety Training study materials
STCW Basic Safety Training study resources

STCW Basic Safety Training practice questions

One question at a time. Build your STCW Basic Safety Training understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Chapter I: General provisions

Under STCW, which term means the government whose authority the ship is operating under?

  1. Administration Correct answer.
  2. Port State control officer
  3. Recognized organization
  4. Company

Explanation

STCW uses "Administration" for the government of the Party whose authority the ship operates under. It is the authority responsible for issuing or authorizing certificates and applying the Convention's requirements.

Question 2Chapter I: General provisions

In which language must STCW certificates and endorsements be issued or translated?

  1. The language of the ship's next port
  2. Any language chosen by the seafarer
  3. The flag State's national language only
  4. English Correct answer.

Explanation

STCW requires certificates and endorsements to be issued in English or to include an English translation. This supports international verification of seafarers' qualifications.

Question 3Chapter I: General provisions

Under STCW, which person is a rating?

  1. A harbour pilot
  2. A deck officer
  3. A crew member other than the master or an officer Correct answer.
  4. The master

Explanation

A rating is defined as a member of the crew other than the master or an officer. Ratings may hold certificates of proficiency for specific functions or training.

Question 4Chapter I: General provisions

What is the main purpose of an STCW medical certificate?

  1. To confirm medical fitness, including sight and hearing Correct answer.
  2. To list the seafarer's previous ships
  3. To confirm the seafarer has paid medical fees
  4. To record the seafarer's vaccination history

Explanation

An STCW medical certificate provides evidence that the seafarer meets the required medical fitness standards, including vision and hearing. It supports safe performance of shipboard duties.

Question 5Chapter I: General provisions

A certificate of competency is normally revalidated at intervals not exceeding how many years?

  1. Two years
  2. Ten years
  3. Five years Correct answer.
  4. One year

Explanation

STCW certificates of competency are normally revalidated at intervals not exceeding five years. Revalidation requires evidence of continued competence and medical fitness.

Question 6Chapter I: General provisions

Before a seafarer is assigned to shipboard duties, what must the company ensure?

  1. That the seafarer has joined a union
  2. That the seafarer has a shore address
  3. That the seafarer is familiar with the ship and their duties Correct answer.
  4. That the seafarer has bought uniform

Explanation

The company must ensure that each seafarer receives ship-specific familiarization before being assigned to duties. This covers ship arrangements, equipment, procedures and emergency instructions.

Question 7Chapter I: General provisions

Under STCW, what is the master?

  1. The owner of the ship
  2. The company's designated representative ashore
  3. The person having command of the ship Correct answer.
  4. The senior engineer on board

Explanation

The master is the person having command of the ship. The master carries ultimate responsibility for the ship, crew and operations on board.

Question 8Chapter I: General provisions

Which person is a seafarer under STCW?

  1. Only persons standing watches
  2. Any person employed or engaged on board a ship Correct answer.
  3. Only the master and officers
  4. Only crew members holding certificates

Explanation

STCW defines a seafarer broadly as any person employed or engaged in any capacity on board a ship. The definition is not limited to officers or certificate holders.

Question 9Chapter I: General provisions

Under STCW, near-coastal voyages are defined as:

  1. Voyages beyond 200 nautical miles from land
  2. Voyages solely inside port limits
  3. Voyages between any two continents
  4. Voyages in the vicinity of a Party, as that Party defines Correct answer.

Explanation

STCW leaves the precise definition of near-coastal voyages to each Party, provided the voyages are in its vicinity. This allows limited geographical qualifications to be applied.

Question 10Chapter I: General provisions

Which statement correctly distinguishes a certificate of competency from a certificate of proficiency?

  1. A certificate of proficiency is the same as a certificate of competency.
  2. A certificate of competency is issued only to ratings.
  3. A certificate of competency permits service as master or officer. Correct answer.
  4. A certificate of proficiency permits service as master.

Explanation

A certificate of competency qualifies the holder to serve in a capacity such as master or officer. A certificate of proficiency evidences that specific training or functional requirements have been met.

Question 11Chapter I: General provisions

What document attests that a flag State recognizes a certificate issued by another Party?

  1. A discharge book
  2. A recognition endorsement Correct answer.
  3. A medical certificate
  4. A company letter

Explanation

When a Party recognizes a certificate issued by another Party, it issues an endorsement attesting that recognition. The endorsement may be a separate document.

Question 12Chapter I: General provisions

Who maintains the register of STCW certificates and endorsements issued?

  1. The recognized organization only
  2. The seafarer's company
  3. The ship's master
  4. The Administration Correct answer.

Explanation

The Administration must maintain a register of certificates and endorsements issued under its authority. The register supports verification and control of seafarers' qualifications.

Question 13Chapter I: General provisions

Who should conduct an STCW assessment of competence?

  1. The seafarer being assessed
  2. A port agent
  3. Any crew member on board
  4. A qualified assessor authorized for the task Correct answer.

Explanation

Assessment of competence must be conducted by a qualified assessor authorized for that purpose. This ensures that the assessment is valid, fair and consistent with STCW standards.

Question 14Chapter I: General provisions

Under STCW, simulators may be used for which purpose?

  1. Setting crew wages
  2. Replacing all sea service
  3. Training and assessment of competence Correct answer.
  4. Issuing certificates without assessment

Explanation

Approved simulators may be used for training and for assessment of competence where they can simulate the required operational conditions. They do not remove the need for other STCW requirements such as approved sea service where applicable.

Question 15Chapter I: General provisions

Which record must a company keep for seafarers under STCW?

  1. Their shopping receipts
  2. Training and familiarization records Correct answer.
  3. Their family contact details
  4. Their personal tax returns

Explanation

Companies must keep records of training, familiarization and competence for seafarers serving on their ships. These records support verification that STCW requirements have been met.

Question 16Chapter I: General provisions

What is the maximum validity of a medical certificate for a seafarer under 18 years old?

  1. Two years
  2. Eighteen months
  3. Three years
  4. One year Correct answer.

Explanation

For a seafarer under 18, the medical certificate has a maximum validity of one year. The shorter period reflects the additional health considerations for younger seafarers.

Question 17Chapter I: General provisions

What is the maximum period for which a dispensation may normally be granted?

  1. Five years
  2. Six months Correct answer.
  3. Two years
  4. Twelve months

Explanation

A dispensation may normally be granted for a period not exceeding six months. It is an exceptional measure and does not replace the appropriate certificate.

Question 18Chapter I: General provisions

Basic safety training is usually evidenced by which document?

  1. A certificate of competency
  2. A medical certificate
  3. A certificate of proficiency Correct answer.
  4. A discharge book

Explanation

Basic safety training is normally evidenced by a certificate of proficiency. It shows that the seafarer has met the required basic training standards.

Question 19Chapter I: General provisions

What must Parties communicate to IMO under STCW?

  1. Only commercial shipping statistics
  2. Information on implementation and training arrangements Correct answer.
  3. Only the names of all seafarers
  4. Only details of ship cargoes

Explanation

Parties must communicate information to IMO on how they implement STCW, including training and certification arrangements. This supports international oversight and consistency.

Question 20Chapter I: General provisions

Which area is included in the quality standards system required by STCW?

  1. Passenger ticket sales
  2. Cargo stowage planning
  3. Watchkeeping procedures Correct answer.
  4. Crew wage accounting

Explanation

STCW quality standards systems cover training, assessment, certification and watchkeeping procedures. The aim is to ensure that these activities meet established standards.

Question 21Chapter I: General provisions

How often must a Party arrange an independent evaluation of its STCW quality standards system?

  1. Only after a serious accident
  2. At least every ten years
  3. At least every two years
  4. At least every five years Correct answer.

Explanation

Each Party must have its quality standards system independently evaluated at intervals not exceeding five years. The evaluation checks the effectiveness of training, assessment, certification and watchkeeping oversight.

Question 22Chapter I: General provisions

If a medical certificate expires during a voyage, for how long may it remain valid while a replacement is obtained?

  1. Until the ship returns to its home port
  2. It becomes invalid immediately
  3. For a maximum of three months Correct answer.
  4. For a maximum of one year

Explanation

If a medical certificate expires during a voyage, it may remain valid until the next port where a replacement can be obtained, subject to a maximum of three months. This avoids unnecessary disruption while preserving medical oversight.

Question 23Chapter I: General provisions

A dispensation may not normally be granted for which capacity?

  1. Able seafarer deck
  2. Officer in charge of a navigational watch
  3. Master Correct answer.
  4. Cook

Explanation

A dispensation is not normally granted for service as master or chief engineer; only exceptional force majeure circumstances may allow it for the shortest possible period. This protects command responsibility.

Question 24Chapter I: General provisions

When revalidating a certificate of competency, what must a seafarer generally show?

  1. Only payment of a fee
  2. Only a new written examination
  3. Maintained competence and fitness Correct answer.
  4. Only completed sea service

Explanation

Revalidation generally requires evidence that the seafarer has maintained the required standards of competence and medical fitness. Refresher training may also be required where applicable.

Question 25Chapter I: General provisions

Which detail must an STCW certificate of competency contain?

  1. The holder's date of birth Correct answer.
  2. The holder's payroll number
  3. The holder's union number
  4. The holder's home address

Explanation

An STCW certificate of competency must contain personal particulars identifying the holder, including date of birth and photograph. This helps prevent misuse and confirms identity.

Question 26Chapter II: Master and deck department

Which item of equipment is designed to turn an unconscious person in the water face-up and keep the airway clear?

  1. A thermal protective aid
  2. A lifebuoy
  3. An immersion suit
  4. A lifejacket Correct answer.

Explanation

An inherently buoyant lifejacket is shaped so that it rotates the wearer onto the back, keeping the mouth and nose clear of the water even when the casualty is unconscious. It is worn on the body, so the support remains with the person at all times.

Question 27Chapter II: Master and deck department

What does the signal of seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells mean?

  1. General emergency alarm Correct answer.
  2. A fire in the engine room
  3. Abandon ship, boats being lowered
  4. A man overboard on the port side

Explanation

The general emergency alarm is seven short blasts followed by one long blast and calls all persons on board to their muster stations. The nature of the emergency is then announced by voice over the public address system.

Question 28Chapter II: Master and deck department

Which three elements make up the fire triangle that must be present for a fire to burn?

  1. Heat, smoke and fuel
  2. Fuel, heat and oxygen Correct answer.
  3. Fuel, water and air
  4. Oxygen, smoke and heat

Explanation

Combustion requires a combustible material, a source of ignition heat, and oxygen from the air. Removing any one of the three breaks the triangle and extinguishes the fire, which is the principle behind every extinguishing method.

Question 29Chapter II: Master and deck department

Where must the ship's muster list be displayed?

  1. Only in the master's cabin, for the master's reference
  2. Only in the engine control room, for the engineers
  3. At muster stations and other conspicuous places Correct answer.
  4. Only in the ship's office, for the office staff

Explanation

The muster list must be posted in conspicuous places throughout the ship, including on the navigating bridge, in the engine room and in crew accommodation, so that every person can find their station and duties. It assigns each person a muster station, survival craft and specific emergency duties.

Question 30Chapter II: Master and deck department

A survivor is awaiting rescue in cold water. Which action best conserves body heat?

  1. Remove the lifejacket to reduce drag
  2. Swim briskly to generate body heat
  3. Drink a small amount of sea water
  4. Adopt the HELP position and keep still Correct answer.

Explanation

The Heat Escape Lessening Posture keeps the arms tight across the chest and the thighs together, protecting the armpits, chest and groin where heat loss is greatest. Staying still also avoids flushing cold blood from the limbs back to the core.

Question 31Chapter II: Master and deck department

At what rate should chest compressions be given during adult CPR?

  1. 40 to 60 per minute
  2. 100 to 120 per minute Correct answer.
  3. 160 to 180 per minute
  4. 20 to 30 per minute

Explanation

Adult CPR calls for compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute, with the chest allowed to recoil fully between compressions. Rates outside this range reduce the effectiveness of circulation to the brain and heart.

Question 32Chapter II: Master and deck department

What is the correct technique for lifting a heavy box on deck?

  1. Twist the trunk while lifting the load
  2. Lift with a fast jerking movement
  3. Bend the knees and keep the load close Correct answer.
  4. Keep the legs straight and bend at the waist

Explanation

Bending the knees and holding the load close to the body keeps the load over the centre of gravity and uses the strong leg muscles, reducing strain on the lower back. The back should be kept straight and the lift performed smoothly.

Question 33Chapter II: Master and deck department

You see a shipmate working aloft without a safety harness. What is the correct action?

  1. Stop the work, warn the person and report it Correct answer.
  2. Leave the area so as not to disturb the work
  3. Continue working and mention it at the end of the shift
  4. Take a photograph for the safety committee

Explanation

Every seafarer has a duty and the authority to intervene when an unsafe act or condition is observed. The work should be stopped immediately, the person warned, and the officer of the watch informed so the hazard is corrected and recorded.

Question 34Chapter II: Master and deck department

Which extinguishing medium is specifically intended for a deep-fat fryer fire in the galley?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. AFFF foam
  3. Wet chemical Correct answer.
  4. Water jet

Explanation

Wet chemical reacts with the hot fat to form a soap-like blanket that seals the surface and cools it, which is why it is the designated medium for galley deep-fat fryers. Fixed galley extinguishing systems and portable units in galleys use this agent.

Question 35Chapter II: Master and deck department

How often must each crew member take part in an abandon ship drill and a fire drill?

  1. Once every three months
  2. At least once every month Correct answer.
  3. Every week
  4. Once every six months

Explanation

SOLAS requires each crew member to participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month. If more than 25 per cent of the crew has changed, the drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port.

Question 36Chapter II: Master and deck department

Where should the jet of an extinguisher be directed when attacking a fire?

  1. Into the smoke above the fire
  2. At the base of the flames Correct answer.
  3. At the top of the flames
  4. At the bulkhead just above the fire

Explanation

The burning material is at the base of the flames, so the extinguishing agent must reach that seat of the fire to cool it or exclude oxygen. Attacking from upwind and working across the base prevents the fire from being driven back.

Question 37Chapter II: Master and deck department

A crew member sees a person fall overboard from the port side. What is the immediate first action?

  1. Run to the bridge and report to the master
  2. Raise the alarm, keep sight and throw a lifebuoy Correct answer.
  3. Throw a lifebuoy as far from the casualty as possible
  4. Launch the rescue boat without telling anyone

Explanation

The alarm must be raised at once, a lifebuoy with light and smoke thrown near the casualty, and the person kept in sight continuously to preserve the datum for the recovery. The bridge then manoeuvres the ship according to the man overboard procedure.

Question 38Chapter II: Master and deck department

Within what time must an immersion suit be capable of being donned, together with associated clothing?

  1. Five minutes
  2. Ten minutes
  3. Two minutes Correct answer.
  4. Thirty seconds

Explanation

SOLAS requires an immersion suit to be capable of being unpacked and donned, with any associated clothing, within two minutes. The suit must also allow the wearer to jump from a height of at least 4.5 metres without injury.

Question 39Chapter II: Master and deck department

What is the correct first aid for a small superficial burn?

  1. Cover the burn with a thick layer of dry cotton wool and a bandage
  2. Cool with clean running water for ten minutes Correct answer.
  3. Burst any blisters as they form
  4. Coat the burn with butter or oil

Explanation

Cooling with clean running water for at least ten minutes limits the depth of tissue damage and relieves pain. The burn is then covered with a clean, non-adherent dressing while jewellery and loose clothing are removed from the area before swelling begins.

Question 40Chapter II: Master and deck department

An unconscious casualty is breathing normally and has no suspected spinal injury. How should they be positioned?

  1. Sitting up and leaning forward
  2. In the recovery position Correct answer.
  3. Flat on the back with the legs raised
  4. Face down with the head turned away

Explanation

The recovery position places the casualty on their side with the head slightly lower, so the airway stays open and vomit or the tongue cannot obstruct breathing. The casualty must then be monitored continuously while help is summoned.

Question 41Chapter II: Master and deck department

What must be ensured before a person enters an enclosed space such as a cargo tank?

  1. A dust mask allows a person to enter alone
  2. Leaving the hatch open for a few minutes is enough before entry
  3. A torch and a radio are all the equipment needed
  4. Test the atmosphere, ventilate and post a standby man Correct answer.

Explanation

An enclosed space must be ventilated and tested for oxygen and toxic or flammable gases, with the results recorded, before any entry. A responsible person must remain at the entrance in continuous communication with the entrant, and a permit to enter is normally required.

Question 42Chapter II: Master and deck department

Under the ISPS Code, what does Security Level 2 indicate?

  1. The level applied only while in port
  2. The normal level maintained at all times
  3. A security incident is probable or imminent
  4. Heightened risk of a security incident Correct answer.

Explanation

Security Level 2 is the heightened level, declared when there is a heightened risk of a security incident, and it requires additional protective measures to be maintained for a period of time. Level 1 is normal operation and Level 3 applies when an incident is probable or imminent.

Question 43Chapter II: Master and deck department

Why should doors, hatches and ventilation openings be closed in a compartment that is on fire?

  1. To allow the fire to be seen more easily
  2. To stop the sprinkler system from operating
  3. To prevent water damage to the space
  4. To restrict the supply of oxygen to the fire Correct answer.

Explanation

Closing the boundaries of a burning compartment starves the fire of oxygen and limits the spread of smoke and heat to adjacent spaces. It also protects the escape routes and allows the fixed firefighting system to work effectively once the space is sealed.

Question 44Chapter II: Master and deck department

Where is a lifebuoy fitted with a self-activating smoke and light signal normally kept?

  1. Kept in the galley next to the fire locker
  2. Near the bridge for quick release Correct answer.
  3. Stowed inside the engine room workshop
  4. Locked in the crew mess room cupboard

Explanation

At least one lifebuoy with a self-igniting light and smoke signal is kept on each side of the navigating bridge in a quick-release holder. This allows the watchkeeper to mark a man overboard position immediately, day or night.

Question 45Chapter II: Master and deck department

What is the purpose of a Search and Rescue Transponder (SART)?

  1. To show the craft on a searching ship's radar Correct answer.
  2. To give weather forecasts to the craft
  3. To transmit automatic voice on VHF channel 16
  4. To provide drinking water for survivors

Explanation

A SART responds to a radar transmission from a searching vessel by producing a line of blips on that vessel's radar screen, indicating the bearing and range of the survival craft. It is normally stowed inside the survival craft and switched on once clear of the ship.

Question 46Chapter II: Master and deck department

What is the main purpose of the painter on an inflatable liferaft?

  1. To tow the liferaft astern of the sinking ship
  2. To hold the raft alongside until boarding Correct answer.
  3. To lift the liferaft back on board
  4. To anchor the liferaft to the seabed

Explanation

The painter is used to secure the raft to the ship's rail so that, after being thrown overboard, it inflates and stays alongside while the crew board. It is then cut or released at the last moment so the raft can clear the ship.

Question 47Chapter II: Master and deck department

What is the greatest immediate danger to a person who suddenly falls into cold water?

  1. Immediate freezing of the muscles
  2. The gasp reflex causing water to be inhaled Correct answer.
  3. Loss of consciousness within one minute
  4. Hypothermia developing within a few seconds

Explanation

Sudden immersion in cold water triggers an uncontrollable gasp and rapid breathing, so the person may inhale water and drown within seconds, long before hypothermia develops. Controlling the breathing and keeping the airway clear is the first priority.

Question 48Chapter II: Master and deck department

Which item must be included in an abandon ship drill?

  1. Firing a rocket parachute flare into the wind
  2. Launching every lifeboat and rescue boat
  3. Mustering and checking lifejackets are correctly worn Correct answer.
  4. Testing the fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system

Explanation

Each abandon ship drill must include mustering at the stations, checking that every person is correctly dressed and has donned a lifejacket properly, and giving instructions on the operation of survival craft equipment. Lowering at least one lifeboat is required in subsequent drills, not necessarily in every one.

Question 49Chapter II: Master and deck department

A fire has been burning in a sealed compartment with little ventilation. Why is opening the door dangerous?

  1. Water from the hoses will enter
  2. Air rushing in may cause a backdraught Correct answer.
  3. The fire will safely go out
  4. The smoke will clear without danger

Explanation

In an oxygen-starved space the fire produces large amounts of unburnt combustible gases, and an inrush of air when the boundary is opened can ignite them explosively. Fire parties therefore cool the boundary first and open up only under controlled conditions with charged hoses in place.

Question 50Chapter II: Master and deck department

A 406 MHz EPIRB alerts rescue authorities through which system?

  1. Cospas-Sarsat satellites Correct answer.
  2. Inmarsat satellites only
  3. AIS shore stations only
  4. VHF channel 16 repeaters

Explanation

The 406 MHz EPIRB transmits a digital distress alert with the vessel's identity and position to the Cospas-Sarsat satellite system, which passes it to a rescue coordination centre. A lower-power 121.5 MHz transmission is also provided for homing by searching aircraft and vessels.