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TS-C (NCCT) practice questions

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Question 1Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which OSI model layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing between networks?

  1. Physical
  2. Transport
  3. Data link
  4. Network Correct answer.

Explanation

Layer 3, the network layer, handles logical addressing such as IP addresses and decides the path packets take between networks. Routers operate primarily at this layer.

Question 2Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which transport-layer protocol is connectionless and does not guarantee delivery of its messages?

  1. TCP
  2. UDP Correct answer.
  3. SCTP
  4. FTP

Explanation

UDP sends datagrams without a handshake, acknowledgments, or retransmission, so delivery is not guaranteed. It is chosen where low overhead matters more than reliability.

Question 3Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which IPv4 address belongs to a range reserved for private use by RFC 1918?

  1. 172.15.0.1
  2. 192.168.1.10 Correct answer.
  3. 203.0.113.5
  4. 8.8.8.8

Explanation

RFC 1918 reserves 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16 for private addressing. The address 192.168.1.10 falls inside the 192.168.0.0/16 block.

Question 4Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which service resolves a host name such as www.example.com into an IP address?

  1. ARP
  2. DNS Correct answer.
  3. DHCP
  4. NAT

Explanation

DNS is the name resolution system that maps host names to IP addresses. Clients query a DNS server to learn the address before opening a connection.

Question 5Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which type of memory loses its stored contents when power is removed?

  1. HDD
  2. SSD
  3. RAM Correct answer.
  4. ROM

Explanation

RAM is volatile memory, so its contents disappear when power is removed. ROM, SSDs, and hard disks all retain their data without power.

Question 6Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which RAID level writes identical copies of data to two or more disks to provide redundancy?

  1. RAID 5
  2. RAID 6
  3. RAID 0
  4. RAID 1 Correct answer.

Explanation

RAID 1 mirrors data across disks, so each disk holds a complete copy and the array survives a single disk failure. It gains no write performance benefit from striping.

Question 7Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which TCP port is used by HTTPS by default?

  1. 21
  2. 443 Correct answer.
  3. 3389
  4. 80

Explanation

HTTPS uses TCP port 443 by default for encrypted web traffic. Plain HTTP uses port 80, FTP control uses 21, and RDP uses 3389.

Question 8Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

In which cloud service model does the customer manage the guest operating system and everything running above it?

  1. SaaS
  2. IaaS Correct answer.
  3. PaaS
  4. DaaS

Explanation

In IaaS the provider supplies virtualized compute, storage, and networking, while the customer patches and administers the guest OS and applications. In PaaS and SaaS, OS management stays with the provider.

Question 9Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which component runs directly on the host hardware with no operating system beneath it?

  1. Type 2 hypervisor
  2. Container engine
  3. Type 1 hypervisor Correct answer.
  4. Emulator

Explanation

A Type 1, or bare-metal, hypervisor installs directly on the hardware and manages guest machines itself. A Type 2 hypervisor runs as an application on top of a conventional operating system.

Question 10Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

A company runs a full backup every Sunday. On weekdays it backs up only the files changed since that Sunday full backup. Which backup type is being used?

  1. Incremental
  2. Differential Correct answer.
  3. Snapshot
  4. Synthetic full

Explanation

A differential backup captures everything changed since the last full backup, so each weekday backup grows until the next full run. An incremental backup would instead capture only changes since the most recent backup of any kind.

Question 11Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which type of malware encrypts a victim's files and demands payment for the decryption key?

  1. Rootkit
  2. Worm
  3. Ransomware Correct answer.
  4. Adware

Explanation

Ransomware encrypts data or locks systems and then demands payment, usually in cryptocurrency, for restoration. Recovery typically depends on backups or published decryption tools.

Question 12Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which process determines which resources an authenticated user is allowed to access?

  1. Accounting
  2. Authentication
  3. Authorization Correct answer.
  4. Identification

Explanation

Authorization applies policy to decide what an already identified and authenticated principal may do. Authentication only proves that the claimed identity is genuine.

Question 13Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

A user enters a password and then a one-time code generated by a mobile app. Which concept does this illustrate?

  1. Single sign-on
  2. Federation
  3. Multi-factor authentication Correct answer.
  4. Delegation

Explanation

Combining something the user knows, the password, with something the user has, the app-generated code, uses two distinct factor categories, which is multi-factor authentication. Two passwords alone would not qualify.

Question 14Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

A user reports that a printer is not working but gives no further detail. Following a standard troubleshooting methodology, which step should the technician take first?

  1. Identify the problem and gather information Correct answer.
  2. Document findings and outcomes
  3. Test the theory to determine the cause
  4. Establish a theory of probable cause

Explanation

The methodology begins by identifying the problem and gathering information from the user and the system before any theory is formed. Testing and documentation occur later in the sequence.

Question 15Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

In change management, what is the main purpose of a documented rollback plan?

  1. To restore the previous state if the change fails Correct answer.
  2. To record who approved the change
  3. To notify users about upcoming downtime
  4. To schedule the change outside business hours

Explanation

A rollback plan defines how to return systems to their prior working state quickly if a change causes problems. It limits the impact and duration of a failed change.

Question 16Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

What does a service level agreement (SLA) primarily define?

  1. The technical architecture of the service
  2. Expected service levels and response times Correct answer.
  3. The list of approved hardware vendors
  4. The step-by-step data recovery procedure

Explanation

An SLA is a contract that states measurable service expectations, such as uptime targets and response or resolution times. It sets expectations rather than describing technical design.

Question 17Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which statement describes symmetric encryption?

  1. A public key encrypts and a private key decrypts
  2. A hash converts data into a fixed-length digest
  3. A certificate binds a key to an identity
  4. One shared secret key encrypts and decrypts Correct answer.

Explanation

Symmetric algorithms use a single secret key for both encryption and decryption, which makes them fast but requires secure key distribution. Asymmetric cryptography instead uses a key pair.

Question 18Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Why should security patches be applied to production systems promptly?

  1. They close vulnerabilities that attackers could exploit Correct answer.
  2. They reduce the installed size of the operating system
  3. They raise the maximum throughput of network links
  4. They remove the need for antivirus software

Explanation

Vendors publish patches to fix flaws that could otherwise be exploited, and delayed patching leaves known weaknesses exposed. Patching is one part of vulnerability management, alongside other controls.

Question 19Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which file system cannot store a single file larger than 4 GB?

  1. FAT32 Correct answer.
  2. NTFS
  3. exFAT
  4. ext4

Explanation

FAT32 records file size in a 32-bit field, capping an individual file at 4 GB minus one byte. NTFS, exFAT, and ext4 all support far larger individual files.

Question 20Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which device forwards frames within a LAN based on MAC addresses?

  1. Router
  2. Switch Correct answer.
  3. Modem
  4. Hub

Explanation

A switch learns MAC addresses per port and forwards each frame only toward the port where the destination is known. Routers instead forward packets using IP addresses.

Question 21Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

How many usable host addresses does the subnet 192.168.10.0/24 provide?

  1. 255
  2. 512
  3. 254 Correct answer.
  4. 256

Explanation

A /24 leaves 8 host bits, giving 2^8 = 256 total addresses. Subtracting the network address and the broadcast address leaves 254 assignable to hosts.

Question 22Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

How many bits does an IPv6 address contain?

  1. 64
  2. 128 Correct answer.
  3. 48
  4. 32

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long and are written as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits. IPv4 addresses are only 32 bits.

Question 23Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which sequence lists the four DHCP lease messages in the correct order?

  1. Discover, Request, Offer, Acknowledge
  2. Offer, Discover, Request, Acknowledge
  3. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge Correct answer.
  4. Request, Discover, Acknowledge, Offer

Explanation

The client first broadcasts Discover, a server replies with Offer, the client sends Request for the offered lease, and the server confirms with Acknowledge. The order is commonly remembered as DORA.

Question 24Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which capability does a VPN provide to a remote worker connecting to the office?

  1. An encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network Correct answer.
  2. Public IP addresses assigned to every internal host
  3. Filtering of malware at the network perimeter
  4. Higher bandwidth on the local office LAN segment

Explanation

A VPN encapsulates traffic in an encrypted tunnel, so data crossing an untrusted network such as the internet cannot be read or altered in transit. It does not add bandwidth or filter malware by itself.

Question 25Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which task is performed by the operating system kernel?

  1. Mediating access to hardware resources Correct answer.
  2. Compiling application source code
  3. Rendering the desktop and application windows
  4. Serving web pages to remote users

Explanation

The kernel runs in a privileged mode and manages CPU scheduling, memory, and device access, mediating between applications and hardware. User-facing graphics and other services run above it.

Question 26Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which statement describes the behavior of RAM when a computer is powered off?

  1. It keeps its contents after the computer is powered off
  2. It holds the firmware that initializes hardware at startup
  3. It loses its contents when power is removed Correct answer.
  4. It permanently stores the operating system files

Explanation

RAM is volatile memory, so its contents are cleared whenever power is removed. Persistent storage such as an SSD or hard disk is used when data must survive a power cycle.

Question 27Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

A company uses a web-based email service in which the provider manages the application, servers, and updates, while the company manages only its own user accounts. Which cloud service model does this describe?

  1. Function as a Service (FaaS)
  2. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  3. Software as a Service (SaaS) Correct answer.
  4. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Explanation

In SaaS, the provider delivers a complete application and handles the underlying infrastructure and maintenance. The customer is responsible only for its own data, configuration, and user access.

Question 28Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

An employee receives an email that appears to come from the IT department and asks the employee to click a link and confirm a password. Which type of attack is this?

  1. Privilege escalation
  2. SQL injection
  3. Phishing Correct answer.
  4. Denial of service

Explanation

Phishing uses fraudulent messages that impersonate a trusted source to trick recipients into revealing credentials or other sensitive data. Links in such messages commonly lead to fake login pages.

Question 29Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which device provides temporary battery power to a computer during a brief electrical outage?

  1. An automatic voltage regulator device
  2. A power supply unit
  3. A surge suppressor
  4. An uninterruptible power supply Correct answer.

Explanation

An uninterruptible power supply contains a battery and inverter that continue supplying power when the main source fails. This gives the system time to shut down cleanly or ride out a short outage.

Question 30Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

What is the primary function of DNS?

  1. Forwarding frames between network segments
  2. Assigning IP addresses automatically to clients
  3. Encrypting traffic between web browsers and servers
  4. Translating host names into IP addresses Correct answer.

Explanation

DNS is a distributed naming system that resolves human-readable host names into the IP addresses devices use to communicate. Without it, users would need to remember numeric addresses.

Question 31Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which TCP port does SSH use by default?

  1. 22 Correct answer.
  2. 23
  3. 21
  4. 25

Explanation

SSH listens on TCP port 22 by default for encrypted remote shell access. Administrators sometimes move it to a nonstandard port to reduce automated scanning noise.

Question 32Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which type of hypervisor runs as an application on top of an already installed operating system?

  1. A type 2 hypervisor Correct answer.
  2. A virtual network switch
  3. A type 1 hypervisor
  4. A container engine

Explanation

A type 2 hypervisor is installed as software within a host operating system and relies on that OS for hardware access. It is common on desktops used for testing and development.

Question 33Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which principle grants users only the permissions needed to perform their job duties?

  1. Separation of duties
  2. Defense in depth
  3. Zero trust
  4. Least privilege Correct answer.

Explanation

Least privilege limits each account to the minimum access required for its tasks, reducing the damage possible if credentials are compromised. Access is expanded only when a documented need exists.

Question 34Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which security device filters incoming and outgoing network traffic according to a configured rule set?

  1. Load balancer
  2. Patch panel
  3. Access point
  4. Firewall Correct answer.

Explanation

A firewall inspects traffic against rules and permits or blocks it based on criteria such as address, port, or application. It is a primary control for segmenting networks and restricting exposure.

Question 35Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

What is the role of UEFI firmware on a motherboard?

  1. It provides antivirus protection for the operating system
  2. It stores user documents between reboots
  3. It initializes hardware and starts the boot process Correct answer.
  4. It assigns IP addresses to network clients

Explanation

UEFI performs power-on self-testing, initializes hardware components, and locates a bootable device to hand control to the operating system. It also provides pre-boot configuration settings.

Question 36Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which IPv4 address belongs to a private address range?

  1. 8.8.8.8
  2. 192.168.1.10 Correct answer.
  3. 172.15.1.1
  4. 203.0.113.100

Explanation

The private IPv4 ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16, so 192.168.1.10 is private. Private addresses are not routed on the public internet and require translation to communicate externally.

Question 37Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

What distinguishes open-source software from proprietary software?

  1. It always runs faster than equivalent proprietary software
  2. It may not be used in a commercial environment
  3. It is always distributed at no charge to users
  4. Its source code is publicly available Correct answer.

Explanation

Open-source software is distributed with a license that makes the source code available for inspection, modification, and redistribution. Proprietary software keeps its source code confidential and restricts modification.

Question 38Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

What is the minimum number of disks required to implement RAID 5?

  1. Five
  2. Three Correct answer.
  3. Two
  4. Four

Explanation

RAID 5 stripes data across disks and stores parity distributed on every member, which requires at least three disks. The array can survive the failure of any single disk.

Question 39Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

Which statement best describes a cryptographic hash?

  1. It is reversible when the correct decryption key is supplied
  2. It creates a fixed-length digest that cannot be reversed Correct answer.
  3. It uses a public key and a private key pair to encrypt data
  4. It uses a single shared secret key to encrypt and decrypt data

Explanation

A hash function maps input of any size to a fixed-length digest and is designed to be one-way. Hashes are used for integrity checks and password verification rather than for recovering the original data.

Question 40Fundamentals, Terminology, and Core Concepts

At which OSI layer does a router primarily operate?

  1. Layer 2, data link
  2. Layer 1, physical
  3. Layer 3, network Correct answer.
  4. Layer 4, transport

Explanation

Routers make forwarding decisions based on logical network addresses such as IP addresses, which are defined at the network layer. This allows them to connect separate networks and choose paths between them.

Question 41Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

What is the primary purpose of a requirements traceability matrix in test planning?

  1. To record defect density found in each module
  2. To capture skills required by the test team
  3. To schedule test execution across environments
  4. To link requirements to the tests that verify them Correct answer.

Explanation

A traceability matrix records bidirectional links between requirements and the test cases, design elements, or code that satisfy them. This supports coverage measurement and impact analysis when requirements change. It is not a defect metric, a scheduling tool, or a staffing inventory.

Question 42Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

Which characteristic makes a requirement suitable as a test basis?

  1. It is documented in a wiki
  2. It is approved by the project sponsor
  3. It is measurable and unambiguous Correct answer.
  4. It is written by the business analyst

Explanation

A requirement can serve as a test basis only when it is specific enough to derive verifiable expected results. Measurable and unambiguous wording allows a tester to determine pass or fail objectively. Approval, storage location, and authorship do not by themselves make a requirement testable.

Question 43Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

An input field accepts whole-number ages from 18 to 65 inclusive. Applying equivalence partitioning, how many valid equivalence classes should a tester identify?

  1. Forty-eight
  2. One Correct answer.
  3. Two
  4. Three

Explanation

All values from 18 to 65 are expected to be processed the same way, so they form a single valid equivalence class. The invalid partitions lie below 18 and above 65, which are handled separately. The number of individual values in the range does not determine the number of classes.

Question 44Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

A numeric field accepts values from 1 to 100 inclusive. Which values are the boundary values of the valid range?

  1. 50 and 51
  2. 0 and 101
  3. 1, 50 and 100
  4. 1 and 100 Correct answer.

Explanation

Boundary values are the values at the edges of an equivalence class, which for the range 1 to 100 are 1 and 100. These are where off-by-one defects most often appear. Values such as 0 and 101 lie outside the valid range, and 50 and 51 are interior values.

Question 45Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

Which item is an example of an entry criterion for a system test level?

  1. Residual risk has been accepted by stakeholders
  2. All critical defects have been closed
  3. All component tests have been completed Correct answer.
  4. The test summary report has been signed off

Explanation

Entry criteria are the preconditions that must be satisfied before a test level can begin, such as completion of the preceding test level. Defect closure, report sign-off, and risk acceptance are typically exit criteria or completion conditions. Confusing the two leads to testing starting too early or being declared finished prematurely.

Question 46Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

A decision table has four condition stubs, each with two possible values. How many rules does a complete decision table contain?

  1. Thirty-two
  2. Sixteen Correct answer.
  3. Eight
  4. Four

Explanation

A complete decision table lists every combination of condition values, so the rule count is two raised to the power of the number of conditions. Four binary conditions therefore produce 2^4, which is sixteen rules. Each rule becomes a candidate test case.

Question 47Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

An order moves through Created, Paid, Shipped, and Closed, and it may also move from Paid to Cancelled. Which technique is most appropriate for testing the allowed and disallowed transitions?

  1. State transition testing Correct answer.
  2. Decision table testing
  3. Boundary value analysis
  4. Equivalence partitioning

Explanation

State transition testing models the states an object can occupy, the events that trigger changes, and the resulting transitions, including invalid ones. The order lifecycle is naturally expressed as such a model. Equivalence partitioning, decision tables, and boundary analysis do not model sequences of states.

Question 48Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

Which content belongs in a test plan rather than in a test design specification?

  1. Expected result for each test case
  2. Schedule and resource estimates Correct answer.
  3. Preconditions for each test procedure
  4. Test data selected for each condition

Explanation

A test plan describes the scope, approach, schedule, resources, and risks for a testing project or level. A test design specification instead identifies test conditions and the coverage items derived from the test basis. Expected results, test data, and procedure preconditions are design and implementation artifacts.

Question 49Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

A project has limited test time. Feature A has high likelihood of failure and high business impact, while Feature B has low likelihood and medium impact. Which action aligns with risk-based testing?

  1. Test Feature B first because its impact is easier to measure
  2. Test both features with an identical number of test cases
  3. Test Feature A more thoroughly and earlier than B Correct answer.
  4. Defer all testing of Feature A until regression testing begins

Explanation

Risk-based testing combines likelihood of failure with business impact to set test priority and depth. Feature A scores higher on both factors, so it should receive deeper and earlier testing. Equal effort ignores the differing risk, and deferring the higher-risk feature increases exposure.

Question 50Planning, Design, and Requirements Analysis

A requirement states: 'The system shall respond quickly to user queries.' Which review finding is most appropriate?

  1. It lacks a measurable performance criterion Correct answer.
  2. It duplicates an existing functional requirement
  3. The requirement is not traceable to a design element
  4. It is outside the scope of the project charter

Explanation

Words such as 'quickly' cannot be verified because no threshold or measurement conditions are stated. A testable version would specify a response time under defined load and data conditions. The finding is therefore about verifiability, not traceability, duplication, or scope.