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LDS Part 1 study materials
LDS Part 1 study resources

LDS Part 1 practice questions

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Question 1LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which property of a dental material is defined as the stress at which a material undergoes permanent deformation?

  1. Toughness
  2. Yield strength Correct answer.
  3. Hardness
  4. Elastic modulus

Explanation

Yield strength marks the transition from elastic to plastic behaviour, i.e. the stress beyond which permanent deformation occurs. Elastic modulus describes stiffness within the elastic region, toughness is energy absorbed before fracture, and hardness is resistance to indentation.

Question 2LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Enamel derives its high mineral content and radiopacity mainly from which crystalline phase?

  1. Octacalcium phosphate
  2. Collagen fibrils
  3. Amorphous calcium phosphate
  4. Hydroxyapatite Correct answer.

Explanation

Enamel is approximately 96% mineral by weight, predominantly in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals. Collagen is the main organic component of dentine and bone, not enamel.

Question 3LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

A 10-year-old child sustains a crown-root fracture of an upper central incisor with pulp exposure. Which immediate management step is most appropriate?

  1. Replant the fragment with no treatment
  2. Apply a desensitising varnish only
  3. Remove the loose fragment and place a temporary restoration after pulp therapy Correct answer.
  4. Extract the tooth immediately

Explanation

Crown-root fractures with pulp involvement require removal of the mobile fragment, pulp management and provisional restoration to protect the pulp and seal the dentine. Immediate extraction is reserved for unrestorable cases.

Question 4LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which micro-organism is most strongly associated with the initiation of pit-and-fissure caries?

  1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
  2. Porphyromonas gingivalis
  3. Candida albicans
  4. Streptococcus mutans Correct answer.

Explanation

Mutans streptococci, particularly Streptococcus mutans, are strongly implicated in the initiation of caries on smooth and fissure surfaces because of their acidogenicity and adhesion. Lactobacilli are more associated with progression of established lesions.

Question 5LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which local anaesthetic is contraindicated in a patient with a documented true allergy to ester-type anaesthetics but who tolerates amide agents?

  1. Articaine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Mepivacaine
  4. Procaine Correct answer.

Explanation

Procaine is an ester-type local anaesthetic and is contraindicated in patients with ester allergy. Lidocaine, articaine and mepivacaine are amide agents and are not cross-reactive with esters.

Question 6LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which nerve provides sensation to the buccal gingivae of the mandibular molar teeth?

  1. Inferior alveolar nerve
  2. Lingual nerve
  3. Buccal nerve Correct answer.
  4. Mylohyoid nerve

Explanation

The long buccal nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, supplies the buccal soft tissues and buccal gingivae of the mandibular molars. The inferior alveolar and lingual nerves supply other regions.

Question 7LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which clinical finding is characteristic of aggressive periodontitis (now classified as a form of periodontitis with rapid progression) in an adolescent?

  1. Painless swelling of the parotid gland
  2. Localised severe attachment loss on first molars and incisors Correct answer.
  3. Diffuse enamel hypoplasia
  4. Generalised gingival recession only

Explanation

Rapidly progressing periodontitis in young patients classically shows localised severe attachment loss, often around first molars and incisors, with relatively little plaque for the amount of destruction. The other findings are unrelated to periodontal diagnosis.

Question 8LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which factor most increases the risk of osteoradionecrosis following dental extraction in a patient who has received head and neck radiotherapy?

  1. A single dose of prophylactic antibiotics
  2. The patient's age over 30 years
  3. Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline
  4. A radiation dose above 60 Gy to the mandible Correct answer.

Explanation

The risk of osteoradionecrosis rises substantially when the mandible has received high-dose radiotherapy, particularly above 60 Gy, because of endarteritis and impaired healing. Extractions should be planned carefully and often performed before radiotherapy.

Question 9LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement best describes the mode of action of fluoride in caries prevention?

  1. It promotes remineralisation and reduces demineralisation at the tooth surface Correct answer.
  2. It neutralises gastric acid
  3. It physically seals all pits and fissures
  4. It sterilises the oral cavity by killing all bacteria

Explanation

Fluoride works mainly topically by enhancing remineralisation, forming fluorapatite and inhibiting demineralisation during acid challenges. It does not sterilise the mouth or seal fissures.

Question 10LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which tooth is most commonly affected by dens invaginatus?

  1. Maxillary lateral incisor Correct answer.
  2. Mandibular canine
  3. Maxillary central incisor
  4. Mandibular first molar

Explanation

Dens invaginatus most frequently affects the maxillary lateral incisor, which may show an anomalous cingulum or talon cusp and is prone to pulpal infection. Other teeth are much less commonly involved.

Question 11LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which is the most appropriate first-line treatment for a patient with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis in a mature permanent molar?

  1. Direct pulp capping
  2. Extraction
  3. Root canal treatment Correct answer.
  4. Pulpotomy

Explanation

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis in a mature tooth is managed by root canal treatment, which removes the irreversibly inflamed tissue and prevents apical periodontitis. Vital pulp therapies are generally reserved for reversible pulpitis or immature teeth.

Question 12LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which radiographic feature is most consistent with a periapical cyst rather than a periapical granuloma?

  1. Well-defined corticated radiolucency at the apex Correct answer.
  2. Generalised horizontal bone loss
  3. Diffuse radiopacity at the apex
  4. Ill-defined widening of the periodontal ligament space

Explanation

A periapical cyst typically shows a well-defined, corticated radiolucency at the apex, whereas a granuloma often shows a less well-defined lesion. Radiography alone cannot definitively distinguish the two, and histology is required.

Question 13LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which condition is characterised by recurrent oral and genital ulceration with uveitis?

  1. Lichen planus
  2. Sjögren syndrome
  3. Behçet disease Correct answer.
  4. Pemphigus vulgaris

Explanation

Behçet disease is a vasculitis classically presenting with recurrent oral and genital ulcers and ocular inflammation such as uveitis. Sjögren syndrome causes dryness, lichen planus causes white striae, and pemphigus causes bullae and erosions.

Question 14LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which antibiotic is recommended for prophylaxis against infective endocarditis in a patient with a prosthetic heart valve undergoing dental extraction, in the absence of allergy?

  1. Tetracycline
  2. Amoxicillin Correct answer.
  3. Metronidazole
  4. Flucloxacillin

Explanation

Current guidance recommends a single oral dose of amoxicillin for dental procedures involving gingival manipulation in at-risk patients without penicillin allergy. Clindamycin is no longer recommended as an alternative in many guidelines.

Question 15LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement about the pharmacokinetics of a drug describes its half-life?

  1. The fraction of drug bound to plasma proteins
  2. The time taken for plasma concentration to fall by half Correct answer.
  3. The dose required to produce a therapeutic effect
  4. The volume of plasma cleared per unit time

Explanation

Half-life is the time required for plasma concentration to decrease by 50% and reflects clearance and volume of distribution. Clearance is the volume cleared per unit time, and protein binding affects the free fraction.

Question 16LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which local factor most strongly predisposes to secondary caries at a restoration margin?

  1. Use of a rubber dam during placement
  2. Regular fluoride exposure
  3. High salivary calcium concentration
  4. A marginal gap allowing plaque stagnation Correct answer.

Explanation

Secondary caries develops where plaque accumulates at a marginal gap or overhang, creating an acidic environment adjacent to the restoration. Good marginal adaptation and oral hygiene reduce risk.

Question 17LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which tooth numbering system assigns the permanent maxillary right central incisor the number 11?

  1. Universal numbering system
  2. FDI two-digit system Correct answer.
  3. ANB notation
  4. Palmer notation

Explanation

In the FDI two-digit system, the first digit indicates the quadrant (1 = upper right) and the second the tooth position, so the maxillary right central incisor is 11. The Universal system numbers that tooth as 8.

Question 18LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which micro-organism is most commonly implicated in acute dentoalveolar abscesses of odontogenic origin?

  1. A single aerobic species
  2. A pure viral population
  3. A fungal population
  4. A mixed anaerobic and facultative flora Correct answer.

Explanation

Odontogenic abscesses are typically polymicrobial, with a mixture of obligate anaerobes and facultative anaerobes derived from the oral biofilm. Pure cultures are uncommon.

Question 19LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which clinical feature distinguishes a simple bone cyst from an odontogenic keratocyst?

  1. A multilocular radiolucency with cortical expansion
  2. A radiopaque mass with a sunburst pattern
  3. An empty cavity with no epithelial lining Correct answer.
  4. A keratin-filled lumen with a parakeratinised lining

Explanation

A simple bone cyst contains fluid or is empty and lacks an epithelial lining, whereas an odontogenic keratocyst has a keratin-filled lumen and a parakeratinised epithelial lining. This distinction is confirmed histologically.

Question 20LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which component of a dental amalgam restoration reacts with mercury to form the matrix?

  1. Zinc oxide
  2. Copper-free silica
  3. Silver-tin alloy particles Correct answer.
  4. Resin monomer

Explanation

In amalgamation, mercury reacts with the silver-tin alloy particles to form a matrix phase, while unreacted particles remain as a dispersed phase. Zinc and copper modify properties but do not form the main matrix.

Question 21LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which is the most appropriate management for a tooth with an avulsed permanent incisor that has been stored dry for 90 minutes and has a closed apex?

  1. Discard the tooth and place an implant
  2. Replant immediately without any cleaning
  3. Replant after removing the necrotic pulp and consider delayed root canal treatment Correct answer.
  4. Store the tooth in water before replanting

Explanation

For an extraoral dry time over 60 minutes with a closed apex, the periodontal ligament is likely non-viable, so replantation is followed by root canal treatment to prevent inflammatory resorption. Immediate replantation is ideal only for short dry times.

Question 22LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which primary tooth is most commonly retained beyond its normal exfoliation time?

  1. Maxillary first primary molar
  2. Mandibular second primary molar Correct answer.
  3. Maxillary central primary incisor
  4. Mandibular central primary incisor

Explanation

Retention of primary teeth most often involves the mandibular second primary molar because of ectopic eruption or absence of the successor. The other teeth are less commonly retained.

Question 23LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which is the most appropriate first step in managing a patient with a suspected vasovagal syncope during dental treatment?

  1. Administer intramuscular adrenaline
  2. Place the patient supine and raise the legs Correct answer.
  3. Give oral glucose
  4. Perform a Heimlich manoeuvre

Explanation

Vasovagal syncope results from reduced cerebral perfusion, so laying the patient supine with legs elevated restores venous return. Adrenaline, glucose and airway manoeuvres are reserved for other emergencies.

Question 24LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement about the eruption of permanent mandibular first molars is correct?

  1. They erupt at about 18 years of age with the third molars
  2. They erupt at about 9 years of age after the central incisors
  3. They erupt at about 12 years of age after the premolars
  4. They erupt at about 6 years of age before the permanent incisors Correct answer.

Explanation

Permanent mandibular first molars typically erupt around 6 years of age and are often the first permanent teeth to appear, before the permanent incisors. The other timings are incorrect for this tooth.

Question 25LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement best explains why glass ionomer cement bonds to tooth structure?

  1. It bonds through a resin adhesive layer
  2. It bonds by thermal fusion
  3. It forms ionic bonds with calcium in hydroxyapatite Correct answer.
  4. It relies on micromechanical retention after acid etching

Explanation

Glass ionomer cements bond chemically by ionic interaction between the polyalkenoic acid and calcium ions in enamel and dentine, in addition to some micromechanical retention. Resin-based bonding and thermal fusion are not their mechanism.

Question 26LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of mastication?

  1. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
  2. Trigeminal nerve (V) Correct answer.
  3. Facial nerve (VII)
  4. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

Explanation

The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve supplies the four muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoid). The facial nerve supplies the muscles of facial expression instead.

Question 27LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which type of epithelium lines the buccal mucosa of the oral cavity?

  1. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
  2. Simple columnar epithelium
  3. Stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium Correct answer.
  4. Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium

Explanation

Lining mucosa such as the buccal mucosa is covered by stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium to withstand friction without a keratin layer. Keratinised epithelium is found in masticatory mucosa such as the hard palate and gingiva.

Question 28LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which salivary gland produces the majority of resting saliva?

  1. Submandibular gland Correct answer.
  2. Sublingual gland
  3. Parotid gland
  4. Minor palatal glands

Explanation

The submandibular glands contribute roughly 65-70% of unstimulated salivary flow, while the parotids dominate stimulated flow. This makes the submandibular glands the main source of resting saliva.

Question 29LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which periodontal ligament fibre group is principally responsible for resisting intrusive forces on a tooth?

  1. Horizontal fibres
  2. Alveolar crest fibres
  3. Apical fibres
  4. Oblique fibres Correct answer.

Explanation

Oblique fibres run apically from bone to cementum and are the most numerous group, converting axial (intrusive) loading into tension in the ligament. This arrangement protects the tooth from excessive occlusal force.

Question 30LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of local anaesthetic agents such as lidocaine?

  1. Opening of potassium channels to hyperpolarise the axon
  2. Agonism at peripheral opioid receptors
  3. Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels in nerve membranes Correct answer.
  4. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction

Explanation

Local anaesthetics are weak bases that enter the axon and block voltage-gated sodium channels from within, preventing depolarisation and propagation of the action potential. This produces reversible conduction blockade.

Question 31LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

A patient with a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin requires antibiotic prophylaxis. Which agent is the recommended alternative?

  1. Erythromycin
  2. Clindamycin Correct answer.
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Cephalexin

Explanation

For patients with a documented severe penicillin allergy, clindamycin has traditionally been used as the alternative prophylactic agent for dental procedures. Amoxicillin and cephalosporins carry cross-reactivity risk and are avoided.

Question 32LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which type of study design provides the strongest evidence for a causal relationship between an exposure and an outcome?

  1. Case-control study
  2. Cross-sectional survey
  3. Case series
  4. Randomised controlled trial Correct answer.

Explanation

Randomisation minimises confounding and selection bias, allowing stronger causal inference than observational designs. This places the randomised controlled trial near the top of the evidence hierarchy.

Question 33LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

In a screening test, which property is defined as the proportion of truly diseased individuals who test positive?

  1. Sensitivity Correct answer.
  2. Positive predictive value
  3. Specificity
  4. Negative predictive value

Explanation

Sensitivity is the probability of a positive test result given that disease is present. It reflects the test's ability to detect disease among those who have it.

Question 34LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which tooth surface is most commonly affected by caries in the permanent dentition?

  1. Palatal surfaces of maxillary incisors
  2. Occlusal pits and fissures of molars Correct answer.
  3. Smooth proximal surfaces of incisors
  4. Cervical margins of canines

Explanation

Pit and fissure surfaces of molars and premolars retain plaque and are the most frequent site of caries in permanent teeth. Their morphology makes cleaning difficult and predisposes to demineralisation.

Question 35LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which dietary factor is considered most cariogenic?

  1. Frequency of sugar consumption Correct answer.
  2. Total protein intake
  3. Consumption of dietary fibre
  4. Total fat intake

Explanation

The frequency with which fermentable carbohydrate is consumed determines the number and duration of acid challenges to enamel. Frequent snacking therefore carries greater cariogenic risk than the total amount consumed.

Question 36LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement about the mechanism of action of chlorhexidine in plaque control is correct?

  1. It chelates calcium to prevent pellicle formation
  2. It inhibits cyclo-oxygenase enzymes
  3. It disrupts bacterial cell membranes and has substantivity Correct answer.
  4. It blocks bacterial protein synthesis at the ribosome

Explanation

Chlorhexidine is a cationic bisbiguanide that binds to bacterial membranes and to oral surfaces, providing a prolonged substantivity. This residual binding gives it its persistent antiplaque effect.

Question 37LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

A patient presents with a firm, painless swelling at the angle of the mandible that is mobile and covered by normal mucosa. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Pyogenic granuloma
  2. Fibroepithelial polyp Correct answer.
  3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
  4. Squamous cell carcinoma

Explanation

A firm, painless, mobile nodule covered by normal mucosa is characteristic of a benign fibrous overgrowth such as a fibroepithelial polyp. Malignancy would typically show ulceration, induration or fixation.

Question 38LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which radiographic view is most appropriate for assessing the relationship of impacted mandibular third molars to the inferior alveolar canal?

  1. Bitewing radiograph
  2. Panoramic radiograph Correct answer.
  3. Periapical radiograph
  4. Occlusal radiograph

Explanation

A panoramic radiograph provides a broad view of the mandible and allows assessment of the third molar's proximity to the inferior alveolar canal. Additional views such as cone-beam CT may be used if the relationship is unclear.

Question 39LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which is a recognised radiographic feature of a dentigerous cyst?

  1. Generalised widening of the periodontal ligament space
  2. Well-defined radiolucency attached to the cementoenamel junction of an unerupted tooth Correct answer.
  3. Multiple small radiopaque flecks within a radiolucency
  4. Ill-defined radiolucency with a sunburst pattern of bone

Explanation

A dentigerous cyst encloses the crown of an unerupted tooth and attaches at the cementoenamel junction, producing a well-defined radiolucency. This attachment point distinguishes it from other odontogenic cysts.

Question 40LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement about the temporomandibular joint is correct?

  1. It is a ball-and-socket joint
  2. It lacks a joint capsule
  3. It is a synovial joint with a fibrocartilaginous disc Correct answer.
  4. It is a fibrous synarthrosis

Explanation

The temporomandibular joint is a synovial joint containing a fibrocartilaginous articular disc that divides it into two compartments. This permits both rotation and translation during jaw movement.

Question 41LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which factor is most important in determining the success of a direct pulp cap?

  1. Absence of pulpal inflammation and bacterial contamination Correct answer.
  2. Presence of a pre-existing restoration
  3. Use of a rubber dam
  4. Age of the patient over 60 years

Explanation

Direct pulp capping succeeds best when the exposed pulp is free of inflammation and the site is protected from bacterial ingress. Bacterial contamination is the main cause of failure.

Question 42LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which property of a dental material describes its resistance to fracture under a single applied load?

  1. Fracture toughness Correct answer.
  2. Hardness
  3. Wear resistance
  4. Creep

Explanation

Fracture toughness measures a material's resistance to crack propagation and fracture. It is distinct from hardness, which describes surface resistance to indentation.

Question 43LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which setting reaction describes a conventional glass ionomer cement?

  1. Sintering of metal particles
  2. Addition polymerisation of dimethacrylate monomers
  3. Free-radical polymerisation initiated by camphorquinone
  4. Acid-base reaction between polyalkenoic acid and glass particles Correct answer.

Explanation

Conventional glass ionomer cements set by an acid-base reaction between a polyalkenoic acid and fluoroaluminosilicate glass powder. This releases fluoride over time as a useful property.

Question 44LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which is the most appropriate management for a retained root fragment with no symptoms in an elderly patient with significant medical comorbidities?

  1. Leave in situ with monitoring and review Correct answer.
  2. Immediate surgical removal under general anaesthesia
  3. Refer for orthodontic extrusion
  4. Extraction with a simple forceps technique

Explanation

An asymptomatic retained root in a medically compromised patient may be left in situ to avoid the risks of surgery. Regular radiographic review ensures no adverse change occurs.

Question 45LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which nerve injury during lower third molar surgery would most likely cause altered sensation to the lower lip?

  1. Lingual nerve
  2. Inferior alveolar nerve Correct answer.
  3. Mylohyoid nerve
  4. Long buccal nerve

Explanation

The inferior alveolar nerve provides sensation to the lower lip and chin, so injury causes altered sensation in these areas. The lingual nerve instead supplies the tongue and floor of the mouth.

Question 46LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which systemic condition is most strongly associated with gingival overgrowth?

  1. Iron-deficiency anaemia
  2. Epilepsy treated with phenytoin Correct answer.
  3. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
  4. Hypothyroidism

Explanation

Phenytoin, along with ciclosporin and calcium channel blockers, is a well-recognised cause of drug-induced gingival overgrowth. Good plaque control reduces the severity of the overgrowth.

Question 47LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which organism is associated with the initiation of dental caries on smooth surfaces?

  1. Candida albicans
  2. Streptococcus mutans Correct answer.
  3. Porphyromonas gingivalis
  4. Actinomyces israelii

Explanation

Streptococcus mutans is a key acidogenic and aciduric organism in caries initiation, particularly on smooth surfaces. It produces glucans from sucrose that enhance adherence.

Question 48LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which statement about the mechanism of action of tetracycline antibiotics is correct?

  1. They inhibit cell wall synthesis
  2. They inhibit DNA gyrase
  3. They disrupt the bacterial cell membrane
  4. They bind the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit protein synthesis Correct answer.

Explanation

Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and block the addition of amino acids to the growing peptide chain. This is a bacteriostatic mechanism.

Question 49LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

A patient has a bleeding disorder and requires a simple extraction. Which preoperative measure is most appropriate?

  1. Delay extraction indefinitely regardless of severity
  2. Proceed immediately without investigation
  3. Prescribe aspirin postoperatively
  4. Check a recent full blood count and clotting profile and liaise with the haematologist Correct answer.

Explanation

Assessing the severity of the bleeding disorder through recent blood tests and haematological advice allows safe planning, including any needed factor replacement or local haemostatic measures. This minimises the risk of prolonged haemorrhage.

Question 50LDS Part 1 curriculum domains (not enumerated in source)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a bitewing radiograph?

  1. To visualise the temporomandibular joint
  2. To assess interproximal caries and alveolar bone levels Correct answer.
  3. To assess root development of third molars
  4. To assess the entire mandible and maxilla

Explanation

Bitewing radiographs show the crowns of upper and lower posterior teeth together with the crestal bone, making them ideal for detecting interproximal caries and monitoring bone levels.