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VTNE practice questions

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Question 1Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which NSAID is FDA-approved for the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in dogs?

  1. Aspirin
  2. Ibuprofen
  3. Carprofen Correct answer.
  4. Acetaminophen

Explanation

Carprofen is an NSAID approved for osteoarthritis pain in dogs when used at label doses with appropriate monitoring. Acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are not approved for this indication in dogs, and some carry serious toxicity risks.

Question 2Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which antibiotic class kills bacteria by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. Macrolides
  3. Beta-lactams Correct answer.
  4. Tetracyclines

Explanation

Beta-lactams, including penicillins and cephalosporins, bind penicillin-binding proteins and block peptidoglycan cross-linking in the bacterial cell wall. Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines act on the 30S ribosomal subunit, while macrolides act on the 50S subunit.

Question 3Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which of these drugs is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance in the United States?

  1. Morphine Correct answer.
  2. Diazepam
  3. Acepromazine
  4. Ketamine

Explanation

Morphine is a Schedule II opioid because of its high abuse potential and accepted medical use. Diazepam is Schedule IV, ketamine is Schedule III, and acepromazine is not a controlled substance.

Question 4Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which route of administration generally produces the most rapid onset of action for an emergency drug in a small animal?

  1. Oral
  2. Intravenous Correct answer.
  3. Subcutaneous
  4. Intramuscular

Explanation

Intravenous administration places the drug directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing absorption and producing the fastest onset. Oral, subcutaneous, and intramuscular routes require absorption before the drug reaches the bloodstream.

Question 5Pharmacy and Pharmacology

What is the recommended storage temperature range for most veterinary vaccines?

  1. -20°C
  2. 37°C
  3. 15-25°C
  4. 2-8°C Correct answer.

Explanation

Most vaccines should be refrigerated at 2-8°C (35-46°F) and protected from light. Freezing can damage adjuvanted vaccines, while warmer temperatures accelerate loss of potency.

Question 6Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A 10 kg dog is prescribed a drug at 5 mg/kg. How many milligrams should be administered?

  1. 5 mg
  2. 100 mg
  3. 10 mg
  4. 50 mg Correct answer.

Explanation

Multiply the body weight by the dose: 10 kg × 5 mg/kg = 50 mg. Checking units helps prevent decimal errors when calculating doses.

Question 7Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is a macrocyclic lactone commonly used in heartworm preventives for dogs?

  1. Ivermectin Correct answer.
  2. Praziquantel
  3. Pyrantel pamoate
  4. Fenbendazole

Explanation

Ivermectin is a macrocyclic lactone used at preventive doses to kill heartworm larvae and is included in several monthly heartworm preventives. Praziquantel targets tapeworms, pyrantel targets roundworms and hookworms, and fenbendazole treats several gastrointestinal parasites.

Question 8Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug combination carries the greatest risk of gastrointestinal ulceration in a dog?

  1. Amoxicillin and metronidazole
  2. Carprofen and prednisone Correct answer.
  3. Famotidine and omeprazole
  4. Ivermectin and pyrantel

Explanation

Concurrent use of an NSAID such as carprofen with a corticosteroid such as prednisone increases the risk of gastrointestinal erosion and ulceration. These drugs should generally be avoided together unless the benefit clearly outweighs the risk and the patient is monitored closely.

Question 9Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which route of administration exposes a drug to first-pass hepatic metabolism before it reaches the systemic circulation?

  1. Intravenous
  2. Rectal
  3. Subcutaneous
  4. Oral Correct answer.

Explanation

Drugs absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract enter the portal vein and pass through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is first-pass metabolism. Rectal absorption partially avoids the portal circulation, while subcutaneous and intravenous routes bypass it.

Question 10Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which antibiotic is a common first-line choice for a cat with a bite-wound abscess?

  1. Tetracycline
  2. Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine
  3. Amoxicillin-clavulanate Correct answer.
  4. Enrofloxacin

Explanation

Amoxicillin-clavulanate provides good coverage against Pasteurella species and anaerobic bacteria commonly involved in cat bite wounds. Enrofloxacin is reserved for specific indications because of retinal and cartilage concerns, and the other choices are less ideal for this infection.

Question 11Pharmacy and Pharmacology

What is the primary toxic effect of acetaminophen in cats?

  1. Renal tubular necrosis
  2. CNS excitation
  3. Methemoglobinemia Correct answer.
  4. Acute respiratory distress

Explanation

Cats have limited glucuronidation capacity, so acetaminophen undergoes oxidative metabolism that damages hemoglobin and red blood cells. This produces methemoglobinemia and Heinz body anemia, which can be fatal.

Question 12Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for sedation and analgesia in dogs and cats?

  1. Propofol
  2. Dexmedetomidine Correct answer.
  3. Midazolam hydrochloride
  4. Ketamine

Explanation

Dexmedetomidine is a highly selective alpha-2 agonist that produces sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine, propofol is an injectable anesthetic, and ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic.

Question 13Pharmacy and Pharmacology

What is a typical maintenance fluid rate for an adult dog?

  1. 10 mL/kg/day
  2. 120 mL/kg/day
  3. 60 mL/kg/day Correct answer.
  4. 30 mL/kg/day

Explanation

A common maintenance rate for adult dogs is approximately 60 mL/kg/day, equivalent to about 2.5 mL/kg/hour. Rates of 10 or 30 mL/kg/day are below typical maintenance, while 120 mL/kg/day is excessive unless correcting a specific deficit.

Question 14Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A 20 kg dog is to receive 0.5 mg/kg of a drug supplied as a 1 mg/mL solution. What volume should be administered?

  1. 2 mL
  2. 5 mL
  3. 20 mL
  4. 10 mL Correct answer.

Explanation

First calculate the dose: 20 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 10 mg. Because the concentration is 1 mg/mL, 10 mg equals 10 mL.

Question 15Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is used for thyroid hormone replacement in a dog with hypothyroidism?

  1. Levothyroxine Correct answer.
  2. Prednisone
  3. Methimazole
  4. Propylthiouracil

Explanation

Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroxine (T4) used to replace thyroid hormone in hypothyroid dogs. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are antithyroid drugs used for hyperthyroidism, and prednisone is a corticosteroid.

Question 16Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

  1. Atipamezole
  2. Naloxone Correct answer.
  3. Yohimbine
  4. Flumazenil

Explanation

Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid effects, including respiratory depression and sedation. Atipamezole reverses alpha-2 agonists, flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and yohimbine is an alpha-2 antagonist.

Question 17Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which adverse effect is most associated with aminoglycoside antibiotics?

  1. Hepatotoxicity
  2. GI ulceration
  3. Bone marrow suppression
  4. Nephrotoxicity Correct answer.

Explanation

Aminoglycosides can concentrate in the renal cortex and inner ear, causing nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Renal function and hydration status should be monitored during therapy.

Question 18Pharmacy and Pharmacology

When a veterinarian compounds an oral medication for a patient, which element is required on the dispensing label?

  1. Use human tablets
  2. Omit prescription label
  3. Assign a beyond-use date Correct answer.
  4. Store indefinitely at room temperature

Explanation

Compounded preparations must be labeled with a beyond-use date based on the drug's stability, the formulation, and storage conditions. A prescription label with directions and cautionary information is also required.

Question 19Pharmacy and Pharmacology

A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately what percentage of the original dose remains after 24 hours?

  1. 12.5%
  2. 3.125%
  3. 6.25% Correct answer.
  4. 25%

Explanation

Twenty-four hours represents four half-lives (24 ÷ 6 = 4). After four half-lives, the fraction remaining is (1/2)^4 = 1/16, or 6.25%.

Question 20Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which drug combination can precipitate serotonin syndrome in a dog?

  1. Metronidazole and fenbendazole
  2. Famotidine and omeprazole
  3. Amoxicillin and clavulanate
  4. Fluoxetine and tramadol Correct answer.

Explanation

Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and tramadol also enhances serotonin activity, so combining them can cause serotonin syndrome. Signs include agitation, hyperthermia, tremors, and gastrointestinal upset.

Question 21Pharmacy and Pharmacology

Which anesthetic agent is a dissociative drug that can increase intracranial pressure?

  1. Dexmedetomidine
  2. Isoflurane
  3. Propofol
  4. Ketamine Correct answer.

Explanation

Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure, so it is used cautiously in patients with head trauma. Propofol tends to reduce intracranial pressure, while isoflurane and dexmedetomidine have different hemodynamic effects.

Question 22Pharmacy and Pharmacology

What personal protective equipment is recommended when handling cytotoxic chemotherapy drugs?

  1. Surgical mask only
  2. Double gloves and chemotherapy gown Correct answer.
  3. No special handling precautions are needed
  4. Latex gloves only

Explanation

Cytotoxic drugs require double chemotherapy-tested gloves, a fluid-resistant chemotherapy gown, and eye protection when splash risk exists. Standard latex gloves alone do not provide adequate barrier protection.

Question 23Pharmacy and Pharmacology

In food-producing animals, what does a drug withdrawal time represent?

  1. Time to peak plasma concentration
  2. Time from last dose to safe residue levels Correct answer.
  3. Time from administration to clinical effect
  4. Time until drug is completely eliminated from the body

Explanation

Withdrawal time is the interval from the last drug administration until residues in meat or milk are below the established tolerance. It is not the time to peak concentration, complete elimination, or clinical effect.

Question 24Surgical Nursing

At 15 psi, which autoclave setting represents a standard steam sterilization cycle for wrapped surgical instruments?

  1. 100 °C (212 °F) for 5 minutes
  2. 121 °C (250 °F) for 15 minutes Correct answer.
  3. 60 °C (140 °F) for 30 minutes
  4. 160 °C (320 °F) for 2 minutes

Explanation

Steam under 15 psi of pressure reaches approximately 121 °C, and holding that temperature for about 13 to 15 minutes kills bacterial spores and all vegetative organisms. Lower temperatures or shorter times do not reliably sterilize, and dry heat requires much higher temperatures and longer exposure.

Question 25Surgical Nursing

Which instrument is designed to grasp and drive a suture needle through tissue?

  1. Brown-Adson thumb forceps
  2. Kelly hemostatic forceps
  3. Olsen-Hegar needle holder Correct answer.
  4. Mayo dissecting scissors

Explanation

A needle holder has short, stout jaws and a ratchet that grip the needle body firmly without crushing the swaged end. The Olsen-Hegar variation adds a scissor blade so the surgeon can cut suture without changing instruments.

Question 26Surgical Nursing

Which of the following suture materials is nonabsorbable?

  1. Polyglactin 910
  2. Chromic catgut
  3. Poliglecaprone 25
  4. Polypropylene Correct answer.

Explanation

Nonabsorbable sutures retain tensile strength for an extended period and are not broken down by the body, with polypropylene being a synthetic monofilament example. Polyglactin 910, poliglecaprone 25, and chromic catgut all undergo absorption over weeks to months.

Question 27Surgical Nursing

While performing a surgical hand scrub, the hands and forearms should be held:

  1. alternately above and below the elbows to rinse in both directions
  2. at the level of the waist to reduce fatigue during a long scrub
  3. above the level of the elbows throughout the scrub Correct answer.
  4. below the level of the elbows so rinse water runs off the fingers

Explanation

Water and contaminants must flow from the cleanest area, the hands, toward the least clean area, the elbows. Keeping the hands elevated throughout the scrub prevents contaminated rinse water from running back over the fingers.

Question 28Surgical Nursing

When clipping and prepping a surgical site, the antiseptic scrub is first applied:

  1. at the dependent edge of the site and moved toward the head
  2. anywhere within the clipped area, provided the entire surface is covered
  3. at the proposed incision line and then worked outward in a circular pattern Correct answer.
  4. at the outer edge of the clipped area and then worked inward toward the incision

Explanation

Contact with the antiseptic begins at the incision line, the cleanest point, and moves outward concentrically so contaminants from the periphery are not dragged into the planned wound. A fresh sponge is used for each successive circle.

Question 29Surgical Nursing

When handing a scalpel to a surgeon, the instrument should be presented with the:

  1. blade pointed toward the surgeon and the handle toward the assistant
  2. handle toward the surgeon and the blade directed away from the surgeon's hand Correct answer.
  3. blade gripped between the thumb and index finger of the assistant
  4. scalpel laid flat on the instrument tray for the surgeon to pick up

Explanation

The surgeon receives the handle in a predictable orientation while the sharp blade points away, which minimizes the chance of an accidental cut. Sharps should never be passed blade-first or handled directly by the blade.

Question 30Surgical Nursing

Which event occurs first in the sequence of wound healing after a surgical incision?

  1. Hemostasis with clot formation Correct answer.
  2. Fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition
  3. Collagen remodeling and maturation
  4. Wound contraction and epithelialization

Explanation

Immediately after injury, vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produce a fibrin clot that stops hemorrhage and provides a scaffold. Inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling follow in that order.

Question 31Surgical Nursing

During closure of a ventral midline celiotomy, the layer that provides the primary holding strength is the:

  1. subcutaneous fat layer
  2. skin and underlying cutaneous trunci muscle
  3. parietal peritoneum
  4. external sheath of the rectus abdominis forming the linea alba Correct answer.

Explanation

The linea alba is a dense aponeurosis formed by the external sheath of the rectus abdominis and is the strongest layer available for holding sutures. Closure must include this layer to prevent evisceration and incisional hernia.

Question 32Surgical Nursing

A Penrose drain is best described as:

  1. a sump drain with two lumens for continuous lavage
  2. a passive drain relying on gravity and capillary action Correct answer.
  3. an active suction drain with a closed reservoir
  4. a rigid drain used only within the thoracic cavity

Explanation

A Penrose drain is a soft latex tube that creates a tract allowing fluid to escape by gravity and capillary action, and it is not attached to suction. It is typically managed with a bandage and is removed as drainage decreases.

Question 33Surgical Nursing

What is the purpose of the patient return (dispersive) pad during monopolar electrosurgery?

  1. It grounds the anesthesia machine against static electricity
  2. It gives current a large exit path back to the generator, preventing burns Correct answer.
  3. It concentrates current at the surgical site to increase cutting effect
  4. It measures the patient's core temperature during the procedure

Explanation

Monopolar current enters through a small active electrode and must leave the body through a large pad so current density falls and heat is not generated at the exit point. Poor pad contact concentrates current and can cause a full-thickness burn.

Question 34Surgical Nursing

Which suture size has the greatest tensile strength among the following?

  1. 3-0
  2. 0 Correct answer.
  3. 2-0
  4. 4-0

Explanation

Suture size decreases as the number of zeros increases, so size 0 is larger and stronger than 2-0, 3-0, or 4-0. The smallest suture that adequately holds the tissue should be selected.

Question 35Surgical Nursing

Which needle type is the standard choice for suturing skin?

  1. Reverse cutting needle Correct answer.
  2. Taper (round-bodied) needle
  3. Spatula needle
  4. Blunt-point needle

Explanation

A reverse cutting needle has a sharp edge on the outer curve, which lets it pass dense skin with less bending while the flat inner curve reduces the risk of cutting out through tissue. Taper needles are for friable organs and spatula needles are for the eye.

Question 36Surgical Nursing

Which antiseptic should be kept out of the middle ear because of its potential for ototoxicity?

  1. Isopropyl alcohol
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Povidone-iodine
  4. Chlorhexidine gluconate Correct answer.

Explanation

Chlorhexidine can reach the inner ear through a ruptured tympanic membrane and cause sensorineural deafness, so it is avoided for deep ear or periauricular preps. Povidone-iodine is generally preferred when the tympanic membrane may be compromised.

Question 37Surgical Nursing

A surgical wound created under controlled conditions in which the respiratory, alimentary, or urogenital tract is entered without significant spillage is classified as:

  1. Clean
  2. Dirty or infected
  3. Clean-contaminated Correct answer.
  4. Contaminated

Explanation

Clean-contaminated wounds involve elective entry into a hollow viscus with minimal leakage, which raises infection risk above a clean wound but far below a contaminated one. Wound class guides the decision to use prophylactic antibiotics and the expected complication rate.

Question 38Surgical Nursing

Which sequence correctly describes preparation for a sterile surgical procedure?

  1. Sterile gloves, gown, cap and mask, scrub
  2. Cap and mask, surgical hand scrub, sterile gown, sterile gloves Correct answer.
  3. Gown, then cap and mask, then scrub, then gloves
  4. Scrub, cap and mask, sterile gloves, sterile gown

Explanation

Head and facial coverings are applied first, followed by the hand scrub, then the sterile gown, and finally the sterile gloves. Gloves are always last because they are donned onto the cuffs of the sterile gown.

Question 39Surgical Nursing

Which suture characteristic matters most when closing a wound that is already contaminated?

  1. It is a large gauge that fills the wound
  2. It is braided so knots hold securely
  3. It is nonabsorbable to provide permanent support
  4. It is monofilament so bacteria cannot harbor in interstices Correct answer.

Explanation

Bacteria become trapped within the interstices of braided multifilament sutures and persist despite lavage, which is why monofilament material is preferred in contaminated fields. Monofilament sutures also slide through tissue with less drag and harbor less biofilm.

Question 40Surgical Nursing

Immediately after a procedure, soiled surgical instruments should be:

  1. rinsed free of blood and debris with hinges opened before cleaning Correct answer.
  2. scrubbed with a wire brush to remove all residue
  3. placed in a closed cabinet until the end of the day
  4. soaked in cold water with hinges closed for 24 hours

Explanation

Blood, saline, and organic debris cause corrosion and pitting if allowed to dry on instruments, so they are rinsed promptly and processed with box locks open. Hinges are left open so the cleaning agent and sterilant can reach all surfaces.

Question 41Surgical Nursing

Which statement best reflects Halsted's principle of gentle tissue handling?

  1. Using the finest suture available regardless of tissue strength
  2. Extending the incision so the procedure can be completed quickly
  3. Avoiding crushing, excessive tension, and desiccation of tissues Correct answer.
  4. Palpating tissue repeatedly with bare fingertips to judge tension

Explanation

Halsted's principles hold that tissues heal best when handled atraumatally, kept moist, and not crushed or strangulated. Adhering to them reduces edema, devitalization, and the risk of dehiscence or infection.

Question 42Surgical Nursing

Which suture material and pattern combination is most appropriate for a single-layer closure of a small intestinal anastomosis?

  1. Polypropylene in a continuous pattern
  2. Monofilament absorbable suture in a simple continuous appositional pattern Correct answer.
  3. Braided silk in an interrupted pattern
  4. Chromic catgut in a continuous pattern

Explanation

A monofilament absorbable suture apposes the intestinal wall without harboring bacteria and disappears as healing completes, while a simple continuous appositional pattern minimizes luminal narrowing. Braided and nonabsorbable materials increase reactivity and infection risk in the face of gut flora.

Question 43Surgical Nursing

Why does chromic catgut lose tensile strength faster in an infected wound than in a clean wound?

  1. The suture swells and physically dissolves in the excess wound fluid
  2. Bacteria produce enzymes that digest suture material only in infected tissue
  3. Inflammation increases phagocytosis and proteolytic enzyme activity, accelerating absorption Correct answer.
  4. The patient's elevated body temperature melts the suture coating

Explanation

Catgut is absorbed by tissue enzymes and phagocytic cells rather than by simple hydrolysis. Infection and inflammation intensify this response, so the suture loses strength prematurely and closure may fail.

Question 44Surgical Nursing

After an exploratory celiotomy, in what order should the incision layers be closed?

  1. Skin, subcutaneous tissue, then linea alba
  2. Parietal peritoneum, skin, then subcutaneous tissue
  3. Linea alba, subcutaneous tissue, then skin Correct answer.
  4. Subcutaneous tissue, linea alba, then skin

Explanation

Closure proceeds from the deepest structural layer to the most superficial, so the body wall is reconstructed first and the skin is apposed last. This order restores the strength layer before superficial closure seals the wound.

Question 45Surgical Nursing

Which preoperative laboratory finding is most strongly associated with impaired wound healing and incisional dehiscence?

  1. Mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase
  2. Mild eosinophilia on the leukogram
  3. Hypoalbuminemia with a serum albumin of 1.8 g/dL Correct answer.
  4. Slightly increased blood urea nitrogen

Explanation

Albumin is a marker of visceral protein reserves, and marked hypoalbuminemia predicts poor collagen synthesis, tissue edema, and reduced wound strength. Such patients are at higher risk for delayed healing and dehiscence and may benefit from nutritional support.

Question 46Surgical Nursing

Which suture pattern is commonly used for primary repair of a severed tendon?

  1. Purse-string pattern around the tendon ends
  2. Locking loop pattern such as the Bunnell-Mayer Correct answer.
  3. Subcuticular continuous pattern in the skin only
  4. Simple interrupted pattern placed in the tendon sheath

Explanation

Tendons must withstand early tensile loading, so a locking loop pattern grips the tendon fibers and distributes tension across the repair. Tendon healing also depends on careful sheath preservation and often on temporary immobilization.

Question 47Dentistry

How many permanent teeth does a normal adult dog have?

  1. 28
  2. 30
  3. 42 Correct answer.
  4. 36

Explanation

An adult dog has 42 permanent teeth, with 20 in the maxilla and 22 in the mandible. These replace the smaller set of deciduous teeth during the first several months of life.

Question 48Dentistry

Which structure forms the hardest tissue in the mammalian body?

  1. Cementum
  2. Dentin
  3. Alveolar bone
  4. Enamel Correct answer.

Explanation

Enamel is roughly 96% mineral by weight and covers the crown of the tooth, making it the hardest tissue in the body. Dentin, cementum, and bone are all less mineralized and therefore softer.

Question 49Dentistry

Which oral condition is the most commonly diagnosed in dogs?

  1. Oronasal fistula
  2. Enamel hypoplasia
  3. Periodontal disease Correct answer.
  4. Oral malignant melanoma

Explanation

Periodontal disease is the most common oral disorder in dogs, with the majority of animals over three years of age affected to some degree. It begins as plaque-induced gingivitis and may progress to attachment and bone loss.

Question 50Dentistry

Why should human toothpaste never be used when brushing a pet's teeth?

  1. It abrades the gingival margin quickly
  2. It accelerates calculus deposition
  3. It permanently stains the tooth enamel
  4. It contains fluoride toxic if swallowed Correct answer.

Explanation

Human toothpastes contain fluoride and sometimes xylitol, both of which can cause serious toxicity when swallowed by pets that cannot rinse and spit. Veterinary enzymatic toothpastes are formulated to be safely swallowed.