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WELL AP study materials
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WELL AP practice questions

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Question 1Air

Which standard establishes minimum outdoor air ventilation rates for commercial buildings and serves as the reference for WELL's ventilation requirements?

  1. ASHRAE 90.1
  2. ASHRAE 62.1 Correct answer.
  3. ASHRAE 55
  4. ASHRAE 188

Explanation

ASHRAE 62.1, Ventilation and Acceptable Indoor Air Quality, sets minimum outdoor airflow rates and related requirements for commercial buildings. WELL's ventilation features are built on compliance with this standard. The other standards address energy use, thermal comfort, and water system risk management.

Question 2Air

What is the minimum filter rating WELL requires for ventilation systems serving regularly occupied spaces?

  1. MERV 13 Correct answer.
  2. MERV 5
  3. MERV 8
  4. MERV 11

Explanation

WELL's air filtration feature requires filters rated MERV 13 or higher on mechanical ventilation systems serving occupied spaces. MERV 13 captures a substantial share of fine particulate matter and many bioaerosols. Lower ratings leave more of the fine fraction in the supply air.

Question 3Air

A building uses carbon dioxide sensors to raise and lower outdoor air intake as occupancy changes. This strategy is known as:

  1. Displacement ventilation
  2. Economizer cooling
  3. Demand-controlled ventilation Correct answer.
  4. Pressure balancing

Explanation

Demand-controlled ventilation modulates outdoor airflow in response to a measured indicator of occupancy, most often CO2 concentration. Displacement ventilation describes an air distribution pattern, pressure balancing concerns pressure relationships, and economizer cooling uses outdoor air for free cooling based on temperature.

Question 4Air

Radon found inside a building most commonly originates from:

  1. Ozone reacting with cleaning products
  2. Off-gassing of carpet adhesives
  3. Combustion byproducts from boilers
  4. Uranium decay in soil beneath the foundation Correct answer.

Explanation

Radon is a radioactive gas produced by the decay of uranium and radium in soil and rock, and it enters buildings through foundation cracks and openings. It is not a combustion product or a VOC from finishes. Testing the lowest occupiable level is the standard way to verify concentrations.

Question 5Air

Which cooking appliance introduces combustion pollutants into a kitchen when operated without exhaust?

  1. Induction cooktop
  2. Electric resistance oven
  3. Unvented gas range Correct answer.
  4. Microwave

Explanation

Gas cooking appliances burn fuel and release nitrogen dioxide, carbon monoxide, and moisture into the kitchen, particularly when unvented. Electric and induction appliances produce heat without combustion. WELL therefore emphasizes vented or sealed-combustion equipment and effective kitchen exhaust.

Question 6Air

To limit mold and dust mite growth, indoor relative humidity should generally be maintained:

  1. Above 85%
  2. Below 60% Correct answer.
  3. Between 60% and 70%
  4. Between 70% and 85%

Explanation

Microbial growth on building surfaces accelerates when relative humidity stays elevated, so guidance typically keeps indoor relative humidity below roughly 60%. WELL's mold control feature addresses moisture management and humidity limits together. Higher bands create conditions favorable to mold and mites.

Question 7Air

WELL sets a maximum allowable concentration for fine particulate matter. What is that limit for PM2.5?

  1. 35 µg/m³
  2. 15 µg/m³ Correct answer.
  3. 5 µg/m³
  4. 50 µg/m³

Explanation

WELL's air quality standards limit PM2.5 to 15 µg/m³, consistent with health-based guidance for respirable particles. PM2.5 penetrates deep into the respiratory tract and is linked to cardiovascular and respiratory effects. The higher values correspond to looser benchmarks rather than the WELL threshold.

Question 8Air

What is the maximum total volatile organic compound concentration permitted by WELL's air quality standards?

  1. 1,000 µg/m³
  2. 200 µg/m³
  3. 50 µg/m³
  4. 500 µg/m³ Correct answer.

Explanation

WELL caps total volatile organic compounds at 500 µg/m³ as a broad screen for the mixture of organic gases present indoors. TVOC is a screening metric rather than a single toxicant. Concentrations above this level suggest strong source emissions or inadequate ventilation.

Question 9Air

WELL requires an entryway walk-off system at least how long in the primary direction of travel?

  1. 2 m
  2. 5 m
  3. 3 m Correct answer.
  4. 1 m

Explanation

The entryway requirement calls for a walk-off system of at least 3 m (about 10 ft) in the direction people walk, which gives footwear enough contact passes to remove soil and grit. Shorter mats let tracked-in particles reach occupied space. The feature also addresses regular cleaning of the system.

Question 10Air

Where should high-volume printers and copiers be located in a WELL project?

  1. In a dedicated room with dedicated exhaust Correct answer.
  2. In a shared break area
  3. Along the main circulation corridor
  4. In the middle of the open office

Explanation

Printing equipment emits ultrafine particles, ozone, and VOCs, so WELL's source separation approach places it in a dedicated room with its own exhaust and a pressure relationship that keeps emissions from migrating. Open placement allows emissions to disperse directly into occupant breathing zones.

Question 11Air

Which device is prohibited in WELL projects because it intentionally introduces a respiratory irritant?

  1. HEPA filter
  2. Ultraviolet germicidal lamp
  3. Ozone generator Correct answer.
  4. Carbon filter

Explanation

Ozone generators deliberately produce ozone, a gas that irritates the airways and reacts with indoor chemistry to form additional pollutants. Air cleaning strategies that add ozone to occupied space are therefore disallowed. Filtration and properly applied UV systems do not intentionally add ozone.

Question 12Air

WELL's air quality standard limits formaldehyde concentration to which value?

  1. 27 ppb Correct answer.
  2. 100 ppb
  3. 500 ppb
  4. 7 ppb

Explanation

WELL caps formaldehyde at 27 ppb, a level chosen to protect occupants from a known carcinogen and irritant. Formaldehyde is emitted by some composite wood products, adhesives, and combustion. Lower-emission material specifications are the primary control strategy.

Question 13Air

Under the ASHRAE 62.1 Ventilation Rate Procedure, the required breathing zone outdoor airflow is determined by which inputs?

  1. Duct velocity
  2. Window-to-wall ratio
  3. Ceiling height
  4. Area plus occupancy Correct answer.

Explanation

The Ventilation Rate Procedure combines a per-person rate with a per-area rate, so both the design occupancy and the floor area of the zone drive the required outdoor airflow. Distribution parameters such as duct velocity affect delivery, not the calculated requirement itself.

Question 14Air

What carbon monoxide concentration does WELL's air quality standard permit at maximum?

  1. 35 ppm
  2. 1 ppm
  3. 9 ppm Correct answer.
  4. 50 ppm

Explanation

WELL limits carbon monoxide to 9 ppm, a threshold that protects occupants from a colorless gas that binds hemoglobin. CO comes from combustion appliances, attached garages, and fuel-burning equipment. Eliminating unvented combustion and isolating garages are the main controls.

Question 15Air

A project pursues WELL's operable windows feature. What does the feature require of the windows that open?

  1. Be fitted with insect screens Correct answer.
  2. Be locked outside business hours
  3. Replace mechanical ventilation entirely
  4. Face an adjoining building wall

Explanation

Operable windows credited under WELL must be screened against insects and located where outdoor air quality is acceptable, so opening them does not introduce pests or excessive pollution. Mechanical ventilation still has to meet the ventilation requirement independently. Windows opening onto a blank wall or polluted source are not credited.

Question 16Air

WELL's air quality monitoring feature calls for sensors and displays covering which parameters?

  1. Lead and chlorine
  2. NO2 and SO2 only
  3. CO2, PM2.5 and TVOC Correct answer.
  4. Radon and asbestos

Explanation

The monitoring feature requires sensors for carbon dioxide, fine particulate matter, and total volatile organic compounds, with information made visible to occupants. These three indicators span ventilation adequacy, combustion and outdoor particles, and indoor source emissions. Radon and metals are addressed through separate testing or source controls.

Question 17Air

WELL's enhanced ventilation feature requires outdoor air delivery above ASHRAE 62.1 minimum rates by at least:

  1. 20%
  2. 10%
  3. 50%
  4. 30% Correct answer.

Explanation

The enhanced ventilation feature rewards designs that exceed the ASHRAE 62.1 minimum outdoor airflow by 30%, which dilutes occupant-generated bioeffluents and improves perceived air quality. Ten or twenty percent does not reach the credit threshold, and fifty percent exceeds what is required.

Question 18Air

A new office sits beside a busy highway with high traffic-related particulate levels. Which strategy best protects indoor air quality?

  1. Open operable windows for more dilution
  2. Install ozone generators at entrances
  3. Pressurize with filtered outdoor air Correct answer.
  4. Run exhaust fans continuously

Explanation

Keeping the building under positive pressure relative to outdoors, combined with high-efficiency filtration of incoming air, reduces infiltration of traffic-related particles and gases. Natural ventilation and continuous exhaust both draw unfiltered outdoor air inward. Ozone generators add an irritant rather than removing pollutants.

Question 19Air

Why does WELL require carbon dioxide monitoring when CO2 is not itself a significant health hazard at indoor levels?

  1. It indicates whether ventilation is adequate Correct answer.
  2. It is toxic above 400 ppm
  3. It measures filter loading
  4. It neutralizes volatile organic compounds

Explanation

Carbon dioxide is produced by occupants and rises when outdoor air delivery is insufficient relative to occupancy, making it a practical proxy for ventilation effectiveness. Concentrations also correlate with other occupant-generated bioeffluents that affect comfort and performance. It does not react with or remove other pollutants.

Question 20Air

A space served by a MERV 13 filter still needs a separate control strategy for which contaminant?

  1. Pollen
  2. Mold spores
  3. Fine dust
  4. Carbon monoxide Correct answer.

Explanation

MERV ratings describe a filter's ability to capture airborne particles of different sizes, and gases pass through media filters largely unaffected. Carbon monoxide therefore requires source control, such as removing unvented combustion and isolating garages. Pollen, spores, and fine dust are all particulate and are captured to varying degrees.

Question 21Water

Under the WELL Water concept, which parameter must not exceed 500 mg/L in drinking water?

  1. Free chlorine residual
  2. Total dissolved solids Correct answer.
  3. Turbidity
  4. Dissolved copper

Explanation

WELL sets an acceptability limit of 500 mg/L for total dissolved solids, because elevated TDS affects taste and palatability and can signal contamination. Turbidity, chlorine residual and copper are each governed by separate limits expressed in NTU, mg/L residual and mg/L respectively.

Question 22Water

What pH range does WELL consider acceptable for drinking water?

  1. 5.5 to 7.5
  2. 7.0 to 9.0
  3. 7.5 to 9.5
  4. 6.5 to 8.5 Correct answer.

Explanation

WELL adopts an acceptable pH window of 6.5 to 8.5. Water outside this window can be corrosive and leach metals from plumbing, or scale-forming and impair treatment, and an abnormal pH can also indicate contamination.

Question 23Water

Which statement best describes WELL's threshold for lead in drinking water?

  1. It applies only to water served in bottles
  2. It is set at 0.01 mg/L because lead is neurotoxic Correct answer.
  3. It is set at 0.05 mg/L, the same as arsenic
  4. It matches the 1.5 mg/L standard for copper

Explanation

Lead is a neurotoxicant with no identified safe level of exposure, so WELL sets a stringent limit of 0.01 mg/L. This is well below the copper limit and is applied to water served to occupants regardless of how it is packaged.

Question 24Water

A dispenser sample measures 0.8 NTU for turbidity. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

  1. It is acceptable if a chlorine residual is present
  2. It exceeds the limit and suggests inadequate filtration Correct answer.
  3. Turbidity limits apply only to surface water sources
  4. It is acceptable because it falls below 1 NTU

Explanation

WELL's turbidity limit is 0.3 NTU, so a result of 0.8 NTU is a failure regardless of chlorine residual. Turbidity above the limit points to ineffective filtration, and the particles involved can shield microorganisms from disinfection.

Question 25Water

A drinking water sample contains 4 CFU/100 mL of total coliforms and zero E. coli. How should this be interpreted under WELL?

  1. It fails: total coliforms must be zero Correct answer.
  2. It passes if the sample is a repeat sample
  3. It passes, because E. coli is absent
  4. It passes because the count is under 5 CFU

Explanation

WELL requires zero total coliforms as well as zero E. coli in 100 mL. The presence of any total coliforms signals a possible breach in treatment or distribution integrity and requires investigation, even when E. coli is not detected.

Question 26Water

WELL requires a free chlorine residual within a specified range. What does this requirement balance?

  1. Taste and odor against pipe scaling
  2. Disinfection against byproduct and taste concerns Correct answer.
  3. Turbidity removal against corrosion
  4. Water pressure against flow rate

Explanation

A residual disinfectant must be present to protect water in distribution and at the tap, but excessive chlorine produces disinfection byproducts and objectionable taste and odor. WELL therefore sets a range rather than a single minimum.

Question 27Water

WELL addresses proximity of drinking water to occupants. Which reference distance is used?

  1. Within 15 m (50 ft) of every entrance
  2. Within 30 m (100 ft) of all occupants Correct answer.
  3. Within 50 m (165 ft) of every elevator
  4. Within 10 m (33 ft) of every workstation

Explanation

WELL expects at least one drinking water dispenser to be reachable within roughly 30 m (100 ft) walking distance of occupants, so that getting water does not require a long trip. Convenient access is a precondition for actually drinking enough water during the day.

Question 28Water

Which condition must be met for the drinking water a project provides to occupants?

  1. It is filtered at a central plant
  2. It is provided free of charge Correct answer.
  3. It is bottled and branded
  4. It is tested monthly by occupants

Explanation

WELL requires that drinking water be available to occupants at no cost, because cost is a recognized barrier to adequate hydration. Charging for water undermines the intent of the access requirements even when dispensers are present.

Question 29Water

Which strategy best supports WELL's hydration promotion intent?

  1. Posting one hydration poster in the lobby
  2. Offering drinking vessels at every dispenser Correct answer.
  3. Adding a soda fountain next to dispensers
  4. Selling bottled water at a discount

Explanation

Hydration promotion combines convenient access, removal of practical barriers and ongoing communication. Providing clean drinking vessels at dispensers removes the need for occupants to bring their own container, which is one of the most common practical barriers.

Question 30Water

Water samples submitted for WELL compliance should be analyzed by which laboratory?

  1. A laboratory accredited to ISO/IEC 17025 Correct answer.
  2. Any in-house facility maintenance team
  3. The local utility's billing laboratory
  4. A manufacturer of water filters

Explanation

WELL requires testing by a laboratory accredited to ISO/IEC 17025, which provides assurance that methods and instrumentation are competent and traceable. This protects the credibility of compliance results.

Question 31Water

What is the primary purpose of a WELL water quality management plan?

  1. To satisfy insurance requirements for flooding
  2. To document the building's annual water bill
  3. To list the brands of fixtures installed Correct answer.
  4. To define ongoing testing, response actions and roles

Explanation

The plan establishes how water quality is monitored over time: who is responsible, where and how often samples are taken, what thresholds trigger action, and how occupants are informed. It converts a one-time test into a continuing management process.

Question 32Water

When does WELL expect water quality testing to take place?

  1. Every five years
  2. Before occupancy and annually thereafter Correct answer.
  3. Only once, at the design stage
  4. Only when occupants complain

Explanation

Testing is required after construction and before occupants arrive, then repeated on at least an annual basis. Construction can introduce contaminants and building plumbing changes over time, so a single design-phase test is not sufficient.

Question 33Water

A project's water meets every threshold except total dissolved solids, which measures 900 mg/L. Which point-of-use treatment is most appropriate?

  1. Sediment filtration
  2. Reverse osmosis Correct answer.
  3. Water softening
  4. Ultraviolet disinfection

Explanation

Reverse osmosis removes dissolved solids and is the treatment suited to reducing TDS. Sediment filters and UV address particulates and microorganisms, while softening exchanges hardness ions without lowering TDS.

Question 34Water

Chlorine residual at a dispenser is 6 mg/L, above WELL's upper limit, and occupants report a chemical taste. Which action best addresses both problems?

  1. Flush the system weekly only
  2. Increase the disinfectant dose
  3. Install activated carbon at the point of use Correct answer.
  4. Add a sediment prefilter

Explanation

Activated carbon adsorbs dissolved chlorine and many taste- and odor-causing organics, lowering both the residual and the complaints. Sediment filtration and flushing do not remove dissolved chlorine from the water.

Question 35Water

A building's lead result is 0.03 mg/L, while the municipal supply contains less than 0.005 mg/L. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. The lab used an uncalibrated turbidity meter
  2. Lead is leaching from the building's plumbing Correct answer.
  3. The sample came from a filtered dispenser
  4. The water is naturally high in dissolved oxygen

Explanation

When lead is low at the utility but high at the tap, the usual cause is corrosion of lead-bearing components inside the building, such as solder, brass fittings and older service lines. Corrosion control within the building, not source-water treatment, is the appropriate remedy.

Question 36Water

Which sample best characterizes the contribution of a building's plumbing to lead levels?

  1. A sample collected after 10 minutes of flushing
  2. A sample from a municipal fire hydrant
  3. A composite sample from all restrooms
  4. A first-draw sample after stagnation Correct answer.

Explanation

A first-draw sample taken after water has stood in the pipes captures what the plumbing itself adds to the water. Flushing beforehand would purge the very water in contact with fixtures and piping that the assessment is meant to evaluate.

Question 37Water

One wing of an office building has been vacant for eight months. Which risk is most associated with this stagnation, and what is the first step?

  1. Elevated pH; add acid to the system
  2. Lower turbidity; no action is needed
  3. Increased chlorine residual; reduce dosing
  4. Biofilm growth and lead leaching; flush before occupancy Correct answer.

Explanation

Standing water in unused piping depletes the disinfectant residual, allows biofilm to develop and increases the time available for metals to leach from plumbing. Flushing the system restores fresh water and is the standard first step before reoccupancy.

Question 38Water

Which condition should a WELL moisture management plan primarily address?

  1. Condensation and uncontrolled water intrusion Correct answer.
  2. Rainwater harvesting capacity
  3. Outdoor landscaping irrigation schedules
  4. Water heater fuel type

Explanation

Moisture management focuses on keeping building materials dry in order to prevent mold and deterioration. Condensation on cold surfaces and uncontrolled water intrusion, such as leaks and roof penetration failures, are the primary targets.

Question 39Water

Occupants report a musty odor and staining on ceiling tiles beneath a roof penetration. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Increase the HVAC setpoint for the zone
  2. Test the water supply for coliforms
  3. Fix the moisture source, then dry and remediate Correct answer.
  4. Paint over the staining to restore appearance

Explanation

Mold and musty odors indicate a moisture problem that will recur until the water source is eliminated. The correct sequence is to identify and repair the entry point, then dry the assembly and remove or clean affected materials.

Question 40Water

A scheduled test shows arsenic at 0.02 mg/L at one dispenser. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Discard the result as a single-sample anomaly
  2. Average the result with the other dispensers
  3. Retest in five years as part of the routine schedule
  4. Remove the dispenser from service and remediate Correct answer.

Explanation

The result is twice the WELL threshold for arsenic, so the dispenser must be taken out of service while the cause is investigated and treatment or repair is completed. Service is restored only after testing confirms compliance.

Question 41Nourishment

Which WELL v2 Nourishment feature establishes expectations for making fruits and vegetables available at food service venues?

  1. N01 Fruits and Vegetables Correct answer.
  2. N03 Refined Ingredients
  3. N06 Portion Sizes
  4. N11 Responsible Food Sourcing

Explanation

N01 Fruits and Vegetables is the feature that addresses the provision of produce wherever food is sold or served in the project, making it easier for occupants to meet daily fruit and vegetable intake. The other features deal with grain and sugar quality, serving size and supply chain standards.

Question 42Nourishment

What is the primary intent of the Nutritional Transparency feature in WELL v2?

  1. Restricting the number of food outlets allowed inside the building
  2. Making nutritional information readily available to occupants at the point of choice Correct answer.
  3. Limiting the sale of packaged snack foods to designated areas
  4. Requiring that all meals be prepared from scratch on site

Explanation

Nutritional Transparency is about giving occupants the information they need to compare and select foods, typically through labeling, signage and posted nutritional data at the point of decision. It does not regulate where food is prepared, how many outlets exist or where packaged snacks may be sold.

Question 43Nourishment

A workplace café serves white rice, white bread, sweetened yogurt and sugary soft drinks. Which change would most directly improve its performance against the Refined Ingredients feature?

  1. Replacing white rice and white bread with whole-grain versions and cutting added-sugar items Correct answer.
  2. Adding a gluten-free label to the white bread
  3. Reducing the total number of menu items offered each day
  4. Switching from bottled soft drinks to fountain soft drinks

Explanation

Refined Ingredients targets the quality of carbohydrate sources and the level of added sugars, so substituting whole grains and removing sugar-sweetened items addresses the feature directly. Package format, allergen labeling and menu length do not change how refined a food is.

Question 44Nourishment

A cafeteria wants to increase the amount of produce occupants actually take. Which merchandising approach best supports that goal?

  1. Displaying produce prominently at eye level near entrances and checkouts Correct answer.
  2. Offering produce only at the evening meal service
  3. Keeping fruit behind the counter so staff can control portions
  4. Pricing fruit and vegetables higher than packaged snacks to signal premium quality

Explanation

Visibility and convenience are strong drivers of food choice, so placing produce where occupants encounter it first supports increased consumption. Restricting access, raising prices or limiting availability to one meal works against that aim.

Question 45Nourishment

Which action best aligns with the intent of the Artificial Ingredients feature?

  1. Serving only raw, uncooked foods
  2. Reformulating recipes to remove artificial colors, flavors and preservatives Correct answer.
  3. Removing all frozen, canned and packaged foods from the menu entirely
  4. Replacing added sugar in all beverages with artificial sweeteners such as sucralose

Explanation

The feature targets artificial colors, flavors, sweeteners and preservatives in the food supply, so reformulating toward recognizable ingredients is the direct response. Swapping sugar for artificial sweeteners moves in the opposite direction, and freezing, canning or cooking are preservation methods rather than artificial additives.

Question 46Nourishment

The Portion Sizes feature in WELL v2 encourages food service operators to:

  1. Offer smaller or half-size portions and use smaller plates and bowls Correct answer.
  2. Standardize every dish to one large serving size
  3. Remove all snacks from vending machines
  4. Provide unlimited free refills on all sugar-sweetened beverages in the café

Explanation

Portion size strongly influences how much people eat, so offering smaller and half-size servings, along with smaller serviceware, helps occupants moderate intake without removing choice. Unlimited refills and standardized large servings work against that intent.

Question 47Nourishment

What is the main goal of the Nutrition Education feature?

  1. Publishing the food service operator's quarterly financial results for occupants
  2. Building occupants' knowledge and skills for healthy eating and cooking Correct answer.
  3. Requiring occupants to log every meal in a tracking application
  4. Certifying all kitchen staff in food safety and hygiene handling

Explanation

Nutrition Education is about equipping occupants with information and practical skills, typically through classes, workshops, demonstrations and similar programming. Meal logging, financial disclosure and food safety certification serve other purposes.

Question 48Nourishment

Which combination of strategies best reflects the Mindful Eating feature?

  1. Labeling common food allergens on every menu item and packaged food item
  2. Providing a dedicated eating space and encouraging meal breaks away from desks Correct answer.
  3. Scheduling regular lunch-and-learn sessions on nutrition and healthy cooking topics
  4. Posting calorie counts beside every item on the café menu board and shelves

Explanation

Mindful Eating focuses on the setting and pacing of meals: a comfortable place to eat and breaks long enough to step away from work support attention to food and appetite cues. Calorie posting, education sessions and allergen labeling belong to other Nourishment features.

Question 49Nourishment

The Special Diets feature most directly helps occupants by:

  1. Labeling common allergens and providing suitable alternatives Correct answer.
  2. Requiring at least one plant-based option at every meal service
  3. Removing foods that contain any animal products from all menus
  4. Requiring occupants to register dietary restrictions in advance

Explanation

Special Diets is about making it possible for occupants with allergies, intolerances or other dietary restrictions to identify suitable food and to find an alternative when their usual choice is unavailable. It does not mandate a plant-based menu, advance registration or removal of animal products.

Question 50Nourishment

Which Nourishment feature addresses occupant access to kitchen and food preparation facilities?

  1. N05 Artificial Ingredients
  2. N10 Food Preparation Correct answer.
  3. N14 Red and Processed Meats
  4. N06 Portion Sizes

Explanation

N10 Food Preparation covers the provision of spaces and equipment, such as kitchens, sinks, refrigeration and preparation surfaces, that let occupants prepare or assemble their own food. The other features address additives, serving sizes and meat offerings.