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Question 1Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which EEG frequency band is most prominent during stage N1 sleep in a healthy adult?

  1. Delta (0.5-2 Hz)
  2. Alpha (8-13 Hz)
  3. Beta (14-30 Hz)
  4. Theta (4-7 Hz) Correct answer.

Explanation

Stage N1 is characterized by low-amplitude, mixed-frequency EEG with prominent theta activity and loss of the alpha rhythm seen in relaxed wakefulness. Delta dominates N3, and beta is typical of wakefulness or REM.

Question 2Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

In polysomnography, an EOG channel placed below the eye typically records which movement as an upward deflection?

  1. Downward eye movement Correct answer.
  2. Upward eye movement
  3. Blink artifact only
  4. Lateral eye movement only

Explanation

Because the eye acts as a dipole with the cornea positive relative to the retina, an electrode below the eye moves closer to the negative retina when the eye looks down, producing an upward deflection on the recording. Upward gaze moves the positive cornea toward the lower electrode, giving a downward deflection.

Question 3Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which finding on a polysomnogram is required to score a respiratory event as an apnea rather than a hypopnea?

  1. A drop in airflow amplitude of at least 90% of baseline Correct answer.
  2. A reduction in airflow lasting at least 30 seconds
  3. A 3% oxygen desaturation
  4. An arousal at event termination

Explanation

An apnea requires a near-complete cessation of airflow, defined as a reduction of at least 90% of the pre-event baseline for at least 10 seconds. Hypopneas involve a smaller reduction (typically 30% or more) often accompanied by desaturation or arousal.

Question 4Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the primary purpose of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) titration study?

  1. To measure daytime sleepiness objectively
  2. To determine the pressure that eliminates respiratory events across sleep stages and positions Correct answer.
  3. To evaluate cardiac arrhythmias during sleep
  4. To diagnose obstructive sleep apnea in a patient with no prior testing

Explanation

A titration study is performed after diagnosis to find the optimal CPAP pressure that resolves apneas, hypopneas, and desaturations in supine and lateral positions and across sleep stages, including REM. Diagnosis is established by a separate diagnostic study.

Question 5Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient's polysomnogram shows a sleep efficiency of 68% with a total sleep time of 300 minutes. What was the total recording (time in bed) period?

  1. 441 minutes Correct answer.
  2. 360 minutes
  3. 510 minutes
  4. 204 minutes

Explanation

Sleep efficiency equals total sleep time divided by time in bed, so time in bed equals 300 divided by 0.68, which is approximately 441 minutes. The other values do not satisfy this ratio.

Question 6Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which sleep stage is defined by the presence of rapid eye movements, low chin EMG tone, and mixed-frequency low-amplitude EEG?

  1. Stage N2
  2. Stage REM Correct answer.
  3. Stage N3
  4. Stage N1

Explanation

REM sleep is identified by three concurrent features: rapid eye movements, the lowest chin EMG tone of the night, and low-amplitude mixed-frequency EEG. N2 is marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes, and N3 by slow waves.

Question 7Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

During a Multiple Sleep Latency Test, how is sleep onset latency defined for each nap opportunity?

  1. Time from lights out to the first epoch of REM sleep
  2. Total time spent asleep during the nap
  3. Time from lights out to the first epoch scored as sleep Correct answer.
  4. Time from the first K-complex to awakening

Explanation

Sleep onset latency on the MSLT is measured from lights out to the first epoch of any sleep stage. The mean across nap opportunities is used to assess excessive daytime sleepiness.

Question 8Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which physiologic change during sleep most directly predisposes to upper airway obstruction in obstructive sleep apnea?

  1. Increased resting lung volume
  2. Decreased cardiac output
  3. Reduced pharyngeal dilator muscle activity during REM Correct answer.
  4. Elevated sympathetic tone

Explanation

Loss of wakefulness-related tone in pharyngeal dilator muscles, particularly during REM, allows the collapsible pharynx to narrow and close. This is a central mechanism of obstructive events.

Question 9Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which electrode placement is used for the standard central EEG derivation in a sleep study?

  1. C4-M1 Correct answer.
  2. O1-M2
  3. C3-M2
  4. F4-M1

Explanation

The recommended central derivation is C4-M1, with C3-M2 as the backup. Occipital and frontal derivations are used to capture alpha and slow-wave activity respectively.

Question 10Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A technologist observes a K-complex followed by a sleep spindle in the same epoch. Which stage should be scored if no other defining features are present?

  1. Stage N2 Correct answer.
  2. Stage N1
  3. Stage REM
  4. Stage N3

Explanation

The presence of a K-complex unassociated with arousal or a sleep spindle marks the onset of stage N2. Once N2 begins, it continues until a transition to another stage is identified.

Question 11Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which measure best quantifies the severity of sleep-disordered breathing on a diagnostic study?

  1. Apnea-hypopnea index Correct answer.
  2. Periodic limb movement index
  3. Arousal index
  4. Sleep efficiency

Explanation

The apnea-hypopnea index counts respiratory events per hour of sleep and is the standard severity metric for sleep-disordered breathing. The other indices describe different phenomena.

Question 12Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A home sleep apnea test reports an AHI of 12 events per hour with no central events. How is this severity classified?

  1. Severe obstructive sleep apnea
  2. Moderate obstructive sleep apnea
  3. Mild obstructive sleep apnea Correct answer.
  4. Normal finding

Explanation

An AHI of 5 to less than 15 events per hour is classified as mild sleep apnea. Moderate ranges from 15 to 30, and severe is greater than 30.

Question 13Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which artifact on a polysomnogram is most likely caused by a loose chin electrode picking up cardiac activity?

  1. Slow rolling eye movements
  2. ECG artifact in the EMG channel Correct answer.
  3. 60-Hz electrical interference
  4. Sweat artifact in the EEG

Explanation

A poorly applied chin electrode with high impedance can pick up the cardiac electrical field, producing regular QRS-like spikes in the EMG trace. This is a common contamination of the chin channel.

Question 14Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which finding supports a diagnosis of narcolepsy on a Multiple Sleep Latency Test?

  1. A single sleep-onset REM period with normal latency
  2. Predominantly stage N3 sleep during naps
  3. A mean sleep latency over 15 minutes with no REM periods
  4. A mean sleep latency under 8 minutes with two or more sleep-onset REM periods Correct answer.

Explanation

Narcolepsy is supported by a short mean sleep latency (typically under 8 minutes) combined with two or more sleep-onset REM periods across the nap opportunities. Either finding alone is less specific.

Question 15Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

What does the periodic limb movement index measure?

  1. Respiratory events per hour of sleep
  2. Leg movements per hour of sleep Correct answer.
  3. Arousals per hour of sleep
  4. Eye movements per hour of sleep

Explanation

The periodic limb movement index counts periodic limb movements during sleep per hour of total sleep time. It is distinct from the arousal and apnea-hypopnea indices.

Question 16Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which oxygen desaturation criterion is commonly used to score a hypopnea when airflow reduction is at least 30%?

  1. A fall of at least 3% from baseline Correct answer.
  2. A fall of at least 10% from baseline
  3. Any measurable fall regardless of magnitude
  4. A fall of at least 15% from baseline

Explanation

A hypopnea is scored when airflow falls by at least 30% for at least 10 seconds and is accompanied by a desaturation of at least 3% or an arousal. Larger desaturation thresholds are not the standard criterion.

Question 17Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which pattern on a polysomnogram suggests central rather than obstructive sleep apnea?

  1. Increasing effort with worsening obstruction
  2. Paradoxical chest and abdominal movement
  3. Snoring preceding the event
  4. Absent respiratory effort during airflow cessation Correct answer.

Explanation

Central apnea is characterized by cessation of airflow without respiratory effort, reflecting a lack of central drive. Obstructive events show continued or increasing effort against a blocked airway.

Question 18Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the recommended first-line treatment for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea in most adults?

  1. Upper airway surgery
  2. Positive airway pressure therapy Correct answer.
  3. Oral appliance therapy
  4. Positional therapy

Explanation

Positive airway pressure is the first-line therapy for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea because of its strong evidence for reducing events and improving outcomes. Other options are considered when PAP is not tolerated or for specific circumstances.

Question 19Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient has a body mass index of 38 kg/m2 and reports loud snoring with witnessed pauses in breathing. Which next step is most appropriate?

  1. Recommend sleep restriction therapy
  2. Begin bright light therapy
  3. Start a hypnotic medication
  4. Refer for a diagnostic sleep study Correct answer.

Explanation

Obesity, loud snoring, and witnessed apneas strongly suggest obstructive sleep apnea, which warrants diagnostic testing. The other interventions address different sleep problems and could worsen breathing.

Question 20Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which circadian rhythm disorder is characterized by a habitual sleep and wake time that is later than desired, with difficulty advancing the schedule?

  1. Non-24-hour sleep-wake rhythm disorder
  2. Advanced sleep-wake phase disorder
  3. Delayed sleep-wake phase disorder Correct answer.
  4. Irregular sleep-wake rhythm disorder

Explanation

Delayed sleep-wake phase disorder involves a persistent delay in the sleep phase relative to social demands, making early waking difficult. Advanced phase disorder shifts sleep earlier, and irregular rhythm disorder lacks a consistent pattern.

Question 21Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which treatment approach is most appropriate for a patient with delayed sleep-wake phase disorder?

  1. Morning bright light exposure with gradual schedule advancement Correct answer.
  2. Frequent daytime napping
  3. Fixed early bedtime without light therapy
  4. Evening bright light exposure

Explanation

Morning bright light advances the circadian clock, and combining it with gradual advancement of sleep and wake times helps shift the phase earlier. Evening light would further delay the rhythm.

Question 22Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which EEG feature is used to identify stage N3 sleep?

  1. Sawtooth waves occupying at least 20% of the epoch
  2. Alpha rhythm occupying at least 20% of the epoch
  3. Slow waves of 0.5-2 Hz occupying at least 20% of the epoch Correct answer.
  4. Sleep spindles occupying at least 50% of the epoch

Explanation

Stage N3 is scored when slow waves in the 0.5-2 Hz range with peak-to-peak amplitude above 75 microvolts occupy at least 20% of the epoch. Spindles, alpha, and sawtooth waves define other states.

Question 23Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

During a CPAP titration, a patient shows persistent obstructive events in supine REM sleep at 10 cm H2O. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Discontinue titration and prescribe an oral appliance
  2. Increase pressure and continue titrating during supine REM Correct answer.
  3. Accept 10 cm H2O as the final pressure
  4. Reduce pressure to improve comfort

Explanation

Titration aims to find a pressure that resolves events in the most vulnerable conditions, including supine REM sleep. If events persist, the pressure should be increased and the patient kept in supine REM to confirm effectiveness.

Question 24Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which parameter on a polysomnogram most directly reflects fragmentation of sleep continuity?

  1. Arousal index Correct answer.
  2. Apnea-hypopnea index
  3. Sleep efficiency
  4. Oxygen desaturation index

Explanation

The arousal index counts arousals per hour of sleep and directly quantifies sleep fragmentation. The other measures reflect breathing severity, sleep duration, or oxygenation.

Question 25Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient with obesity hypoventilation syndrome shows prolonged hypoxemia during sleep despite adequate obstructive event control. Which additional treatment consideration is most relevant?

  1. Positional therapy alone
  2. Adding a hypnotic to improve sleep continuity
  3. Nocturnal noninvasive ventilation to support alveolar ventilation Correct answer.
  4. Increasing the CPAP pressure further

Explanation

Obesity hypoventilation involves inadequate alveolar ventilation beyond airway obstruction, so bilevel noninvasive ventilation may be needed to support ventilation. Increasing CPAP alone does not correct hypoventilation.

Question 26Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which sleep stage is characterized by a background EEG of low-amplitude, mixed-frequency activity with sawtooth waves and episodic rapid eye movements?

  1. Stage N3
  2. Stage N1
  3. Stage R Correct answer.
  4. Stage N2

Explanation

Stage R sleep is defined by low-amplitude, mixed-frequency EEG, rapid eye movements, and low chin EMG tone; sawtooth waves are a common feature. Stage N1 has slow eye movements and no rapid eye movements, while N2 and N3 have distinct EEG features.

Question 27Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which EEG frequency band is most prominent during stage N3 sleep?

  1. Theta (4–7 Hz)
  2. Delta (0.5–2 Hz) Correct answer.
  3. Beta (14–30 Hz)
  4. Alpha (8–13 Hz)

Explanation

Stage N3 sleep is defined by the presence of slow-wave activity in the delta frequency range (0.5–2 Hz) with peak-to-peak amplitude >75 µV, occupying at least 20% of the epoch. Alpha, theta, and beta activities are characteristic of other stages or wakefulness.

Question 28Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which physiologic event is most characteristic of obstructive sleep apnea?

  1. Cessation of airflow with absent respiratory effort
  2. Periodic deep breaths followed by apnea
  3. Cessation of airflow with continued respiratory effort Correct answer.
  4. Sustained increase in airflow with increased effort

Explanation

Obstructive sleep apnea is characterized by repetitive episodes of upper airway collapse during sleep, leading to cessation or reduction of airflow despite continued respiratory effort. Central apnea, by contrast, involves absent respiratory effort.

Question 29Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the primary mechanism by which positive airway pressure (PAP) therapy treats obstructive sleep apnea?

  1. It stimulates the genioglossus muscle directly
  2. It increases lung volume and reduces loop gain
  3. It provides a pneumatic splint to keep the upper airway open Correct answer.
  4. It delivers oxygen to bypass the obstruction

Explanation

PAP therapy acts as a pneumatic splint, maintaining positive pressure in the upper airway to prevent collapse during sleep. It does not directly stimulate muscles or deliver oxygen as a primary mechanism.

Question 30Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which sleep stage typically occupies the greatest percentage of total sleep time in a healthy adult?

  1. Stage N3
  2. Stage N1
  3. Stage N2 Correct answer.
  4. Stage R

Explanation

In healthy adults, stage N2 sleep accounts for approximately 45–55% of total sleep time, making it the most abundant sleep stage. Stage R occupies about 20–25%, and N3 about 15–25%.

Question 31Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating the circadian sleep-wake cycle?

  1. Insulin
  2. Cortisol
  3. Melatonin Correct answer.
  4. Thyroxine

Explanation

Melatonin, secreted by the pineal gland, is a key hormone in regulating circadian rhythms and is suppressed by light. Cortisol has a diurnal rhythm but is not the primary regulator of the sleep-wake cycle.

Question 32Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which montage is standard for recording eye movements in polysomnography?

  1. Chin EMG
  2. ECG
  3. F4-M1, C4-M1, O2-M1
  4. E1-M2 and E2-M1 Correct answer.

Explanation

Electrooculogram (EOG) channels are typically placed as E1-M2 and E2-M1 to detect eye movements, with one electrode below and one above the eye. EEG derivations are used for brain activity, chin EMG for muscle tone, and ECG for cardiac monitoring.

Question 33Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the recommended minimum duration for a diagnostic polysomnogram in adults?

  1. At least 4 hours
  2. At least 8 hours
  3. At least 6 hours Correct answer.
  4. At least 2 hours

Explanation

A diagnostic polysomnogram should record at least 6 hours of sleep to provide adequate data for interpretation. Shorter durations may not capture sufficient sleep or respiratory events.

Question 34Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient's polysomnogram shows an apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) of 25 events per hour. How is the severity of sleep apnea classified?

  1. Normal
  2. Severe
  3. Mild
  4. Moderate Correct answer.

Explanation

An AHI of 15–30 events per hour is classified as moderate sleep apnea. Mild is 5–15, and severe is greater than 30.

Question 35Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

During a CPAP titration, the technologist increases pressure and observes the disappearance of obstructive events. What is this pressure called?

  1. Maximum CPAP pressure
  2. Auto-titrating pressure
  3. Subtherapeutic pressure
  4. Optimal CPAP pressure Correct answer.

Explanation

The optimal CPAP pressure is the lowest pressure that eliminates obstructive respiratory events in all sleep stages and positions. Subtherapeutic pressure would not eliminate events, and maximum pressure is not the goal.

Question 36Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which artifact is characterized by a slow, rhythmic oscillation on the EEG channels at a frequency of about 0.5–2 Hz?

  1. Pulse artifact
  2. ECG artifact
  3. Respiration artifact
  4. Sweat artifact Correct answer.

Explanation

Sweat artifact appears as very slow, high-amplitude oscillations (0.25–0.5 Hz) on EEG channels due to changes in skin impedance from perspiration. ECG artifact is sharp and regular, pulse artifact is related to heartbeat, and respiration artifact is slower and linked to breathing.

Question 37Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient presents with excessive daytime sleepiness and a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) showing a mean sleep latency of 6 minutes and one sleep-onset REM period (SOREMP). Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Narcolepsy type 1
  2. Insufficient sleep syndrome
  3. Obstructive sleep apnea
  4. Idiopathic hypersomnia Correct answer.

Explanation

Idiopathic hypersomnia is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness with a mean sleep latency of less than 8 minutes on MSLT and fewer than two SOREMPs. Narcolepsy typically shows two or more SOREMPs and a mean sleep latency of 8 minutes or less.

Question 38Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which treatment is considered first-line for restless legs syndrome (RLS)?

  1. Dopamine agonists
  2. Iron supplementation if ferritin is low Correct answer.
  3. Opioids
  4. Benzodiazepines

Explanation

For RLS, iron supplementation is recommended if ferritin levels are low (typically <75 µg/L), as iron deficiency is a common contributor. Dopamine agonists are used but can cause augmentation and are not first-line for all patients.

Question 39Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

What is the primary purpose of a maintenance of wakefulness test (MWT)?

  1. To diagnose sleep apnea
  2. To measure sleep architecture
  3. To assess the ability to stay awake Correct answer.
  4. To assess the ability to fall asleep

Explanation

The MWT measures a patient's ability to remain awake during the day, typically used to assess response to treatment for excessive sleepiness. The MSLT measures sleep latency, and polysomnography assesses sleep architecture and apnea.

Question 40Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A polysomnogram shows a respiratory event with a 30% drop in airflow, a 4% oxygen desaturation, and an arousal. How should this event be scored?

  1. Mixed apnea
  2. Hypopnea Correct answer.
  3. Central apnea
  4. Obstructive apnea

Explanation

A hypopnea is scored when there is a ≥30% drop in airflow for at least 10 seconds with a ≥4% oxygen desaturation or an arousal. Apneas require a ≥90% drop in airflow.

Question 41Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which medication class is most commonly associated with REM sleep suppression?

  1. Proton pump inhibitors
  2. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) Correct answer.
  3. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
  4. Beta-blockers

Explanation

SSRIs and other antidepressants are known to suppress REM sleep, often increasing REM latency and decreasing REM percentage. NSAIDs, beta-blockers, and proton pump inhibitors do not have this effect as a class.

Question 42Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient with insomnia is instructed to keep a sleep diary. Which parameter is most important to record?

  1. Sleep latency and total sleep time Correct answer.
  2. Diet and exercise
  3. Dream content
  4. Blood pressure and heart rate

Explanation

A sleep diary primarily tracks sleep-wake patterns, including sleep latency, total sleep time, awakenings, and daytime naps. These data help diagnose insomnia and monitor treatment response.

Question 43Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which sleep disorder is characterized by dream enactment behavior during REM sleep?

  1. REM sleep behavior disorder Correct answer.
  2. Sleep paralysis
  3. Sleepwalking
  4. Night terrors

Explanation

REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) involves loss of normal REM atonia, leading to acting out dreams. Sleepwalking and night terrors occur in non-REM sleep, and sleep paralysis is a brief inability to move upon awakening.

Question 44Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

During a polysomnogram, a technologist notes a sudden increase in chin EMG tone accompanied by an increase in EEG frequency. What is this event called?

  1. K-complex
  2. Arousal Correct answer.
  3. Sleep spindle
  4. Vertex sharp wave

Explanation

An arousal is defined as an abrupt shift in EEG frequency (including alpha, theta, and/or frequencies >16 Hz) lasting at least 3 seconds, often accompanied by increased EMG tone during REM sleep. Sleep spindles and K-complexes are features of N2 sleep, and vertex sharp waves are seen in N1.

Question 45Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which parameter on a polysomnogram is used to calculate the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI)?

  1. Number of limb movements per hour of sleep
  2. Number of apneas and hypopneas per hour of sleep Correct answer.
  3. Number of arousals per hour of sleep
  4. Number of oxygen desaturations per hour of sleep

Explanation

The AHI is calculated by dividing the total number of apneas and hypopneas by the total sleep time in hours. Arousal index, oxygen desaturation index, and periodic limb movement index are separate measures.

Question 46Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient with treated OSA on CPAP returns for follow-up. Which finding on the CPAP download indicates good adherence?

  1. Use for at least 4 hours per night on 70% of nights Correct answer.
  2. Use for at least 2 hours per night on 50% of nights
  3. Use for at least 8 hours per night on 10% of nights
  4. Use for at least 6 hours per night on 30% of nights

Explanation

Good adherence to CPAP is generally defined as use for at least 4 hours per night on 70% of nights. Lower usage is considered suboptimal and may not provide full benefit.

Question 47Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which sleep stage is most associated with memory consolidation?

  1. Stage N2
  2. Stage N3
  3. Stage R Correct answer.
  4. Stage N1

Explanation

REM sleep is particularly important for memory consolidation, especially procedural and emotional memory. Slow-wave sleep (N3) also plays a role in declarative memory consolidation, but REM is most classically associated with memory processing.

Question 48Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient with narcolepsy type 1 is being evaluated. Which finding on polysomnography is most supportive of the diagnosis?

  1. Prolonged sleep latency
  2. Frequent arousals
  3. Sleep-onset REM period (SOREMP) Correct answer.
  4. Increased slow-wave sleep

Explanation

A sleep-onset REM period (SOREMP), defined as REM sleep occurring within 15 minutes of sleep onset, is a characteristic polysomnographic finding in narcolepsy. Prolonged sleep latency and frequent arousals are nonspecific.

Question 49Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

Which artifact is most likely to appear on an EEG channel when the patient is sweating?

  1. High-frequency muscle artifact
  2. Slow, rolling baseline sway Correct answer.
  3. 50/60 Hz interference
  4. Sharp, regular spikes

Explanation

Sweat artifact causes a slow, rolling baseline sway due to changes in skin impedance. Muscle artifact is high-frequency, ECG artifact is sharp and regular, and 50/60 Hz interference is a fast, regular oscillation.

Question 50Sleep Technology (content domains not enumerated in source)

A patient with obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS) is started on CPAP. Which parameter should be monitored to assess treatment efficacy?

  1. Oxygen saturation and end-tidal CO2 Correct answer.
  2. Sleep latency
  3. Periodic limb movement index
  4. Apnea-hypopnea index

Explanation

In OHS, the goal is to improve hypoventilation, which is reflected by oxygen saturation and CO2 levels. While AHI is important for OSA, OHS requires monitoring of gas exchange.