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ABVP Veterinary Practice study materials
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ABVP Veterinary Practice practice questions

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Question 1Avian Practice

In a healthy psittacine bird, which anatomic structure is responsible for producing the voice and is commonly referred to as the song organ?

  1. Syrinx Correct answer.
  2. Bronchial carina
  3. Glottis
  4. Trachea

Explanation

The syrinx is the sound-producing organ located at the tracheobronchial junction in birds. The trachea is a conducting airway, the glottis is the opening at the larynx, and the carina is merely the bifurcation point where the primary bronchi split.

Question 2Avian Practice

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step when a budgerigar presents with a unilateral swelling on the cere and nasal discharge?

  1. Whole-body radiography
  2. Cytology of the nasal exudate Correct answer.
  3. Plasma biochemistry panel
  4. Tracheal wash culture

Explanation

Cytology of nasal exudate is minimally invasive, rapid, and can identify bacterial, fungal, or inflammatory causes of upper respiratory signs. Imaging and deeper sampling are considered after cytology or when signs are refractory.

Question 3Avian Practice

Which of the following best describes the avian renal portal system?

  1. Portal blood bypasses the kidneys and drains directly to the heart
  2. Blood from the caudal body can be shunted through the kidneys before returning to circulation Correct answer.
  3. Renal blood flow is entirely independent of the caudal body
  4. The kidneys receive blood only via the cranial renal arteries

Explanation

The renal portal system allows blood from the caudal body and pelvic limbs to pass through the kidney before entering the systemic circulation. This has practical implications for drug administration into the caudal limb veins.

Question 4Avian Practice

A cockatiel is presented with polyuria and polydipsia. Which finding on urinalysis most reliably distinguishes true polyuria from increased urine water content?

  1. Presence of urate crystals
  2. Urine specific gravity Correct answer.
  3. Urine color
  4. Urine pH

Explanation

Urine specific gravity reflects the concentrating ability of the kidney and helps distinguish polyuria (dilute urine) from other causes of increased urine volume. Color, pH, and urate presence are not measures of concentration.

Question 5Avian Practice

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of avian erythrocytes that differs from mammalian erythrocytes?

  1. They lack hemoglobin
  2. They are biconcave discs
  3. They are nucleated Correct answer.
  4. They are produced in the spleen exclusively

Explanation

Avian erythrocytes are nucleated and oval, unlike mature mammalian erythrocytes. They contain hemoglobin and are produced primarily in the bone marrow.

Question 6Avian Practice

A flock of layer chickens shows a drop in egg production with misshapen eggs and respiratory signs. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm infectious bronchitis?

  1. Serum bile acid measurement
  2. Fecal flotation
  3. RT-PCR on tracheal swabs Correct answer.
  4. Crop cytology

Explanation

Infectious bronchitis virus is best confirmed by molecular testing such as RT-PCR on respiratory or reproductive tract samples. Fecal flotation detects parasites, bile acids assess liver function, and crop cytology evaluates the upper GI tract.

Question 7Avian Practice

Which of the following is the most common clinical presentation of chlamydiosis in psittacine birds?

  1. Lethargy, respiratory signs, and greenish droppings Correct answer.
  2. Sudden blindness
  3. Cutaneous nodules on the wings
  4. Acute paralysis of the legs

Explanation

Avian chlamydiosis typically presents with nonspecific signs including lethargy, respiratory difficulty, and abnormal droppings. Neurologic, cutaneous, or ocular signs are less typical.

Question 8Avian Practice

In a raptor with a fractured humerus, which fixation method is generally preferred to allow early return to flight?

  1. Amputation
  2. Cage rest alone
  3. External coaptation with a figure-eight bandage
  4. Intramedullary pin combined with an external skeletal fixator Correct answer.

Explanation

Combined intramedullary pinning with an external fixator provides stable fixation of avian long bone fractures while permitting early limb use. Bandages alone are less stable, cage rest does not align fractures, and amputation precludes flight.

Question 9Avian Practice

Which of the following is the most appropriate site for venipuncture in a small psittacine bird such as a budgerigar?

  1. Right jugular vein Correct answer.
  2. Caudal tibial vein
  3. Dorsal pedal vein
  4. Basilic vein

Explanation

The right jugular vein is generally the preferred and most accessible site in small psittacines. The caudal tibial vein is not a standard avian venipuncture site, and basilic and dorsal pedal veins are not routinely used in small birds.

Question 10Avian Practice

An anorexic African grey parrot is presented for evaluation. Which parameter is most useful for assessing hepatic function in this species?

  1. Uric acid
  2. Packed cell volume
  3. Total protein
  4. Serum bile acids Correct answer.

Explanation

Serum bile acids are a sensitive indicator of hepatic function in birds. PCV reflects hydration and erythrocyte mass, uric acid reflects renal function more than hepatic, and total protein is nonspecific.

Question 11Avian Practice

A client asks how to reduce the risk of egg binding in a reproductively active cockatiel. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

  1. Restrict fresh water
  2. Provide continuous bright lighting
  3. Provide adequate dietary calcium and appropriate photoperiod Correct answer.
  4. Increase dietary fat content

Explanation

Adequate calcium and a controlled photoperiod support normal shell formation and reduce reproductive overstimulation. High dietary fat, water restriction, and continuous lighting increase risk rather than reduce it.

Question 12Avian Practice

Which of the following best describes the avian respiratory system's air sacs?

  1. They are lined with alveoli for oxygen uptake
  2. They are the primary site of gas exchange
  3. They are closed cavities with no connection to the lungs
  4. They are non-gas-exchanging reservoirs that help ventilate the lungs Correct answer.

Explanation

Air sacs are thin-walled reservoirs that store air and assist ventilation, but gas exchange occurs in the parabronchi of the lungs. They communicate with the lungs and are not the site of oxygen uptake.

Question 13Avian Practice

What is the appropriate approach to a bird presenting with severe dyspnea and cyanosis?

  1. Provide supplemental oxygen in a quiet, warm environment before handling Correct answer.
  2. Immediately perform a full physical examination
  3. Restrain in dorsal recumbency for auscultation
  4. Administer intramuscular fluids before any handling

Explanation

Critically dyspneic birds should be stabilized with oxygen and minimal stress before any handling. Full examination, restraint, or injections can precipitate fatal decompensation.

Question 14Avian Practice

Which of the following is a common cause of proventricular dilation disease in psittacines?

  1. Bornavirus infection Correct answer.
  2. Mycoplasma infection
  3. Avian poxvirus
  4. Salmonella infection

Explanation

Proventricular dilation disease is associated with avian bornavirus infection. Poxvirus causes cutaneous lesions, Salmonella causes enteritis, and Mycoplasma is associated with respiratory disease.

Question 15Avian Practice

A bird is presented with a firm, distended abdomen. Which diagnostic test is most useful to differentiate a reproductive mass from ascites?

  1. Complete blood count
  2. Fecal Gram stain
  3. Serum glucose measurement
  4. Abdominal radiography and ultrasonography Correct answer.

Explanation

Imaging with radiography and ultrasonography can distinguish a solid reproductive mass from free abdominal fluid. Blood glucose, CBC, and fecal Gram stain do not localize abdominal pathology.

Question 16Avian Practice

Which of the following best explains why birds are more sensitive to inhaled toxins such as aerosolized PTFE fumes?

  1. Their unidirectional airflow and high metabolic rate increase exposure of the lungs to inhaled gases Correct answer.
  2. They have a low respiratory rate
  3. Their lungs are small relative to body size
  4. They lack a diaphragm

Explanation

The avian respiratory system uses unidirectional airflow with air sacs that increase the efficiency of gas exchange, and high metabolic rates increase ventilation. This makes inhaled toxins particularly dangerous. Small lung size, lack of a diaphragm, and low respiratory rate do not explain the sensitivity.

Question 17Beef Cattle Practice

A beef cow herd is vaccinated against bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) using a modified-live product. Which statement best describes the rationale for avoiding use of modified-live BVDV vaccines in pregnant cows unless the product is labeled for that use?

  1. The vaccine virus is inactivated by maternal colostral antibody in the fetus
  2. Fetal infection with vaccine virus can occur and may produce persistently infected calves Correct answer.
  3. The vaccine cannot induce immunity in the presence of a fetus
  4. Modified-live vaccines reliably cause abortion in all trimesters

Explanation

Modified-live BVDV vaccine strains can cross the placenta and infect the fetus; infection early in gestation can establish persistent infection. Products labeled for use in pregnant cows have been demonstrated safe for that indication. Non-pregnant heifers should generally be vaccinated before breeding.

Question 18Beef Cattle Practice

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of acute interdigital necrobacillosis (foot rot) in a feedlot steer?

  1. Sudden onset of severe lameness with swelling and foul odor between the digits Correct answer.
  2. Symmetrical heel erosion with no lameness
  3. Progressive curvature of the hoof wall over several weeks
  4. Bilateral swelling of the coronary band on all four feet

Explanation

Foot rot typically presents as acute, unilateral lameness with swelling of the interdigital skin and a necrotic, foul-smelling lesion. Systemic signs such as fever may accompany it. Involvement is usually of one limb, not all four.

Question 19Beef Cattle Practice

A producer asks about the most reliable method to identify persistently infected (PI) BVDV animals in a herd. Which approach is recommended?

  1. Evaluating body condition score across the herd
  2. Vaccinating the herd and observing for clinical signs
  3. Testing with an antigen-capture ELISA or PCR on skin or serum, with retesting positive animals after several weeks Correct answer.
  4. Single serum antibody titer on all animals

Explanation

PI animals are immunotolerant and typically lack antibody to the infecting strain, so antibody testing is unreliable for identifying them. Antigen detection (ELISA or PCR) on ear notch or serum identifies virus presence. Because acutely infected animals can test positive transiently, positives should be retested after an interval to confirm persistent infection.

Question 20Beef Cattle Practice

In a herd experiencing an outbreak of bovine respiratory disease, which pathogen is a primary bacterial cause commonly implicated in feedlot pneumonia?

  1. Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis
  2. Mannheimia haemolytica Correct answer.
  3. Trichomonas foetus
  4. Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis

Explanation

Mannheimia haemolytica is a leading bacterial pathogen of bovine respiratory disease, often following viral infection and stress. It produces leukotoxin that damages leukocytes and contributes to fibrinous pleuropneumonia. The other listed organisms cause enteric or reproductive disease.

Question 21Beef Cattle Practice

A herd veterinarian is designing a vaccination program for newly received feedlot calves. Which timing principle best supports effective immunization against respiratory pathogens?

  1. Withhold vaccination until after the first antimicrobial treatment
  2. Vaccinate at arrival or processing and boost per label to allow anamnestic response before exposure peaks Correct answer.
  3. Delay all vaccinations until 30 days after arrival to avoid handling stress
  4. Administer all vaccines on the day of arrival and revaccinate only if clinical signs appear

Explanation

Calves should be immunized as early as practical after arrival, with booster doses per label to build protective immunity. Stress and exposure are high early in the feeding period, so delaying vaccination increases risk. Boosters are needed because a single dose in naive animals may not produce adequate protection.

Question 22Beef Cattle Practice

Which finding on physical examination most strongly suggests a diagnosis of traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware disease) in a beef cow?

  1. Brisket edema and jugular distension
  2. High-pitched ping on simultaneous auscultation and percussion of the left flank
  3. Bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge
  4. Worsening of signs when the withers pinch test is applied, with fever and rumen hypomotility Correct answer.

Explanation

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis often produces pain on withers pinch or grunting, fever, and reduced rumen motility due to localized peritonitis. The foreign body penetrates the reticulum and causes inflammation. Other findings listed reflect different conditions.

Question 23Beef Cattle Practice

What is the primary purpose of a preconditioning program for beef calves before sale or transport?

  1. To increase weaning weight by extending the suckling period
  2. To guarantee calves are free of all respiratory pathogens
  3. To prepare calves with vaccination, weaning, and acclimation to reduce stress and disease after marketing Correct answer.
  4. To eliminate the need for any further vaccination after arrival

Explanation

Preconditioning involves vaccination, weaning, and acclimation to feed and handling before shipment, reducing stress and disease incidence after marketing. It improves health outcomes and performance. It does not eliminate the need for later boosters or guarantee pathogen-free status.

Question 24Beef Cattle Practice

A cow with a displaced abomasum is suspected. Which auscultation-percussion finding is most consistent with a left displacement of the abomasum?

  1. A systolic murmur over the left heart base
  2. A high-pitched ping over the left flank in the region of the 9th to 12th intercostal spaces Correct answer.
  3. Absence of rumen contractions with a tympanic left flank
  4. A fluid thrill over the right paralumbar fossa

Explanation

Left displacement of the abomasum produces a characteristic ping on simultaneous auscultation and percussion over the left flank, typically in the upper to middle portion of the 9th to 12th intercostal spaces. The displaced, gas-filled abomasum creates resonant sound. Other findings do not localize to this condition.

Question 25Beef Cattle Practice

Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for a beef calf with confirmed neonatal diarrhea and signs of dehydration?

  1. Withholding fluids to allow natural recovery
  2. Oral antibiotics for all calves regardless of systemic signs
  3. Oral electrolyte solution for mild dehydration, with intravenous fluids for severe dehydration or inability to stand Correct answer.
  4. Routine administration of corticosteroids

Explanation

Correction of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance is the cornerstone of therapy; oral electrolytes suffice for mild to moderate cases, while intravenous fluids are needed for severe dehydration or recumbency. Antibiotics are reserved for calves with systemic signs such as fever or bloody diarrhea. Supportive care improves survival.

Question 26Beef Cattle Practice

A producer reports that several cows are anestrous and have a history of abortion. Which infectious cause is most consistent with these findings in a beef herd?

  1. Neospora caninum Correct answer.
  2. Mannheimia haemolytica
  3. Clostridium perfringens type A
  4. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus

Explanation

Neospora caninum is a major cause of abortion and reproductive failure in cattle, often with no other signs. Infection can cause fetal loss at various stages of gestation and contribute to infertility. The other organisms are not primary causes of abortion in this pattern.

Question 27Beef Cattle Practice

Which management practice best reduces the risk of introducing bovine tuberculosis into a beef herd?

  1. Allowing wildlife contact with feed and water sources
  2. Routine vaccination with BCG
  3. Feeding unpasteurized milk to calves
  4. Testing and quarantining incoming cattle and maintaining a closed herd where possible Correct answer.

Explanation

Bovine tuberculosis control relies on identifying infected animals through testing and preventing introduction through quarantine and closed-herd management. Wildlife contact and unpasteurized milk can be sources of exposure. Vaccination is not a standard control tool in most cattle programs.

Question 28Beef Cattle Practice

In a beef bull breeding soundness examination, which parameter is most important for evaluating the ability to produce adequate sperm for breeding?

  1. Serum testosterone concentration alone
  2. Hoof conformation alone
  3. Scrotal circumference and sperm morphology/motility Correct answer.
  4. Body condition score alone

Explanation

Breeding soundness evaluation includes scrotal circumference as a predictor of sperm production and puberty, along with assessment of sperm motility and morphology. These parameters together estimate breeding capacity. Other measures alone are insufficient.

Question 29Beef Cattle Practice

Which statement about the use of growth-promoting implants in beef cattle is correct?

  1. Implants have no effect on carcass quality
  2. Implants should be placed in the ear and administered according to label with attention to withdrawal times Correct answer.
  3. Implants are most effective when administered at the end of the feeding period
  4. Implants can be given intramuscularly in the rump for faster absorption

Explanation

Implants are placed subcutaneously in the ear and must be used per label, including adherence to withdrawal periods. Proper technique and timing optimize growth response and minimize residues. Route and site matter for efficacy and food safety.

Question 30Beef Cattle Practice

A beef cow is diagnosed with grass tetany. Which electrolyte abnormality is expected?

  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hypomagnesemia Correct answer.
  3. Hyperphosphatemia
  4. Hypercalcemia

Explanation

Grass tetany results from low magnesium intake or availability, leading to hypomagnesemia and neuromuscular signs. It often occurs in lactating cows on lush pasture. Treatment involves magnesium supplementation.

Question 31Beef Cattle Practice

Which practice is most effective for controlling internal parasites in a beef herd while reducing selection for anthelmintic resistance?

  1. Using targeted selective treatment based on factors such as age, body condition, and fecal egg counts Correct answer.
  2. Treating all animals at fixed intervals regardless of need
  3. Treating only after clinical signs of severe disease appear
  4. Rotating anthelmintics every week

Explanation

Targeted selective treatment reduces unnecessary anthelmintic use and preserves refugia, slowing resistance development. Fecal egg counts and animal factors guide treatment decisions. Uniform whole-herd treatment at fixed intervals increases selection pressure.

Question 32Beef Cattle Practice

Which of the following is a key reason to monitor water intake and quality in feedlot cattle?

  1. Water quality only matters for dairy cattle
  2. Water intake has no effect on feed intake
  3. Reduced water intake can decrease feed intake and growth performance Correct answer.
  4. High water intake guarantees disease prevention

Explanation

Water is essential for rumen function and feed intake; reduced intake or poor quality can depress feed consumption and growth. Monitoring intake and quality supports performance and health. Water management is important in all cattle types.

Question 33Canine & Feline Practice

Which vaccine is considered a core vaccine for all dogs under AAHA/AVMA guidelines?

  1. Leptospira interrogans
  2. Canine influenza virus
  3. Bordetella bronchiseptica
  4. Canine distemper virus Correct answer.

Explanation

Core vaccines are those recommended for all dogs regardless of lifestyle because the diseases are severe, widely distributed, and the vaccines are safe and effective. Canine distemper is one of the universally recommended core vaccines alongside parvovirus, adenovirus-2, and rabies. The others are lifestyle or risk-based vaccines.

Question 34Canine & Feline Practice

A 3-year-old male cat presents with acute urinary obstruction. Which electrolyte abnormality is most immediately life-threatening?

  1. Hyperkalemia Correct answer.
  2. Hypochloremia
  3. Hyperphosphatemia
  4. Hypernatremia

Explanation

Urethral obstruction causes retention of potassium, producing hyperkalemia that can trigger fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate stabilization requires addressing the potassium before relieving the obstruction. The other abnormalities may occur but are not the acute lethal concern.

Question 35Canine & Feline Practice

What is the normal resting heart rate range for an adult dog?

  1. 150 to 220 beats per minute
  2. 60 to 140 beats per minute Correct answer.
  3. 20 to 60 beats per minute
  4. 200 to 260 beats per minute

Explanation

The accepted normal resting heart rate for adult dogs is approximately 60 to 140 beats per minute, varying with size and temperament. Smaller dogs tend to have higher rates than large dogs. Rates outside this range warrant further evaluation.

Question 36Canine & Feline Practice

A 6-year-old dog is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which finding is most consistent with this condition?

  1. Decreased serum glucose
  2. Elevated serum total T4
  3. Decreased serum total T4 Correct answer.
  4. Elevated serum cortisol

Explanation

Primary hypothyroidism results from thyroid gland destruction, leading to reduced production of thyroid hormones and low total T4. Confirmatory testing often includes TSH. Elevated T4 would suggest hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.

Question 37Canine & Feline Practice

Which parasite is the most common cause of heartworm disease in dogs in the United States?

  1. Dirofilaria immitis Correct answer.
  2. Toxocara canis
  3. Ancylostoma caninum
  4. Dipylidium caninum

Explanation

Dirofilaria immitis is the filarial nematode transmitted by mosquitoes that causes canine heartworm disease. The other organisms are intestinal parasites with different life cycles and clinical presentations.

Question 38Canine & Feline Practice

A cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and glucosuria with persistent hyperglycemia. Which condition is most likely?

  1. Diabetes mellitus Correct answer.
  2. Diabetes insipidus
  3. Chronic kidney disease
  4. Hyperthyroidism

Explanation

Persistent hyperglycemia with glucosuria in a cat with polyuria and polydipsia strongly suggests diabetes mellitus. Stress hyperglycemia in cats is transient and typically not accompanied by sustained glucosuria. Other causes of PU/PD lack the glucosuria-hyperglycemia combination.

Question 39Canine & Feline Practice

What is the recommended first-line treatment for a dog with status epilepticus?

  1. Intravenous diazepam Correct answer.
  2. Intramuscular dexamethasone
  3. Oral phenobarbital
  4. Oral potassium bromide

Explanation

Benzodiazepines such as intravenous diazepam are the first-line therapy for terminating an active seizure because of their rapid onset. Phenobarbital and bromide are maintenance anticonvulsants with slower onset. Steroids are not indicated for seizure control.

Question 40Canine & Feline Practice

Which of the following is a core vaccine for cats according to AAHA guidelines?

  1. Feline panleukopenia virus Correct answer.
  2. Feline leukemia virus
  3. Chlamydia felis
  4. Bordetella bronchiseptica

Explanation

Feline panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, feline calicivirus, and rabies are the core vaccines for cats. FeLV is recommended based on lifestyle risk, and the others are non-core.

Question 41Canine & Feline Practice

A dog presents with acute vomiting, bloody diarrhea, and severe dehydration. Parvovirus is suspected. What supportive therapy is most important initially?

  1. Oral antibiotics
  2. Antiemetic monotherapy alone
  3. Fasting for 48 hours
  4. Intravenous fluid resuscitation Correct answer.

Explanation

Parvovirus causes profound gastrointestinal losses and hypovolemia; aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation is the cornerstone of initial management. Antibiotics may be added for secondary sepsis but do not replace fluids. Antiemetics alone do not correct volume deficits.

Question 42Canine & Feline Practice

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of feline hyperthyroidism?

  1. Severe anemia with jaundice
  2. Weight loss with polyphagia Correct answer.
  3. Weight gain with anorexia
  4. Bradycardia with hypothermia

Explanation

Hyperthyroidism increases metabolic rate, so cats commonly eat well yet lose weight. Other findings include tachycardia and hyperactivity. Weight gain and bradycardia suggest hypothyroidism, which is rare in cats.

Question 43Canine & Feline Practice

A dog has a positive fecal float for roundworm eggs. Which zoonotic concern should be discussed with the owner?

  1. Lyme disease transmission
  2. Heartworm transmission
  3. Visceral larva migrans in humans Correct answer.
  4. Rabies exposure

Explanation

Toxocara canis eggs can infect humans and cause visceral larva migrans, particularly in children. This makes deworming and hygiene counseling important. The other conditions are not associated with roundworm infection.

Question 44Canine & Feline Practice

Which antibiotic class is generally avoided in young growing dogs because of cartilage and tendon effects?

  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Fluoroquinolones Correct answer.
  4. Tetracyclines

Explanation

Fluoroquinolones can cause arthropathy in growing animals and are generally avoided in young dogs. Penicillins and cephalosporins are considered safer in this population. Tetracyclines have their own concerns such as dental staining.

Question 45Canine & Feline Practice

A cat with chronic kidney disease has a hematocrit of 22 percent. Which mechanism best explains the anemia?

  1. Bone marrow neoplasia
  2. Iron deficiency from blood loss
  3. Immune-mediated hemolysis
  4. Decreased erythropoietin production Correct answer.

Explanation

The kidneys produce erythropoietin, so chronic kidney disease commonly causes a non-regenerative anemia from inadequate erythropoietin. Other causes should be ruled out, but this is the classic mechanism. Hemolysis and neoplasia would produce different findings.

Question 46Canine & Feline Practice

What is the primary purpose of a heartworm antigen test in dogs?

  1. Detecting antibodies to heartworm
  2. Detecting adult female heartworm infection Correct answer.
  3. Detecting microfilariae in blood
  4. Measuring heartworm larval burden

Explanation

Antigen tests detect proteins from adult female Dirofilaria immitis, making them the preferred screening test in dogs. Microfilaria testing detects circulating larvae but can be negative in occult infections. Antibody tests are not the standard for canine screening.

Question 47Canine & Feline Practice

A dog is presented after ingesting a large amount of chocolate. Which clinical sign is most expected?

  1. Tachycardia and hyperactivity Correct answer.
  2. Bradycardia and sedation
  3. Hypoglycemia and lethargy
  4. Coagulopathy and hemorrhage

Explanation

Chocolate contains methylxanthines (theobromine and caffeine) that stimulate the central nervous system and heart, producing tachycardia, hyperactivity, and potentially seizures. Bradycardia and sedation are opposite effects. Coagulopathy is not typical of chocolate toxicosis.

Question 48Canine & Feline Practice

Which finding on urinalysis most suggests a urinary tract infection in a dog?

  1. Low urine specific gravity
  2. Alkaline urine pH alone
  3. Bacteriuria with pyuria Correct answer.
  4. Struvite crystals alone

Explanation

The combination of bacteria and white blood cells in urine supports infection, ideally confirmed by culture. Crystals, pH, or specific gravity alone do not establish infection. Definitive diagnosis requires urine culture and susceptibility.

Question 49Dairy Practice

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the milk ejection reflex in dairy cattle?

  1. Progesterone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Prolactin
  4. Oxytocin Correct answer.

Explanation

Milk let-down is mediated by oxytocin released from the posterior pituitary, which causes myoepithelial cells around alveoli to contract. Prolactin supports lactogenesis, while progesterone and estrogen are more associated with pregnancy and mammary development.

Question 50Dairy Practice

A dairy cow is 60 days in milk and producing well but has lost substantial body condition. Which management response is most appropriate?

  1. Add more concentrate abruptly to the whole herd
  2. Delay breeding until condition recovers fully
  3. Restrict feed to reduce milk production
  4. Increase energy density and monitor body condition score Correct answer.

Explanation

Early lactation cows commonly mobilize body reserves, so the goal is to support energy intake with a denser ration while tracking body condition score to prevent excessive loss. Abrupt herd-wide changes or deliberately reducing production are not appropriate.