ACVO Veterinary Ophthalmology study materials
ACVO Veterinary Ophthalmology study resources

ACVO Veterinary Ophthalmology cheat sheet

ACVO Veterinary Ophthalmology · Keep the key ideas within reach.

Quick reference

General Veterinary Ophthalmology

  • The tear film has three layers: lipid (meibomian glands), aqueous (lacrimal and third eyelid glands), and mucin (goblet cells); deficiency of any layer causes qualitative or quantitative dry eye.

  • Normal Schirmer tear test I values in dogs are approximately 15-25 mm/min; values below 10 mm/min support keratoconjunctivitis sicca, and below 5 mm/min is strongly diagnostic.

  • Intraocular pressure in normal dogs is roughly 10-25 mmHg by applanation or rebound tonometry; values above 25-30 mmHg warrant glaucoma investigation, and below 10 mmHg suggests uveitis or globe rupture.

  • The menace response is a learned cortical response that is absent in very young puppies and can be absent in normal cats; pupillary light reflex tests the subcortical pathway and is present earlier.

  • Direct pupillary light reflex afferent limb is the optic nerve (CN II) and efferent limb is the oculomotor nerve (CN III); a swinging flashlight test localizes the lesion.

  • The corneal reflex afferent limb is the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) and efferent limb is the facial nerve (CN VII).

  • Dazzle reflex afferent is CN II and efferent is CN VII; it is subcortical and can persist when the menace response is absent from cortical disease.

  • Aqueous humor is produced by the ciliary body and drains mainly via the iridocorneal angle through the pectinate ligament into the scleral venous plexus in dogs.

  • The tapetal fundus reflects light via the tapetum lucidum; the nontapetal region is pigmented, and the optic disc is located in the nontapetal fundus in dogs and cats.

Quick reference

Ocular Pharmacology and Toxicology

  • Topical atropine (1%) is a muscarinic antagonist causing mydriasis and cycloplegia; systemic absorption via the nasolacrimal duct can cause dry mouth, tachycardia, and ileus, especially in small patients.

  • Tropicamide (0.5-1%) produces rapid, short-acting mydriasis useful for fundic examination; duration is roughly 4-6 hours versus 1-3 days for atropine.

  • Timolol 0.5% is a nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist that reduces aqueous production; it is contraindicated in patients with cardiac disease or asthma because of systemic beta blockade.

  • Latanoprost, a prostaglandin F2-alpha analog, increases uveoscleral outflow and is potent for IOP reduction but can cause conjunctival hyperemia and miosis-associated side effects.

  • Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist that causes miosis and increases trabecular outflow; it can cause ocular irritation and systemic cholinergic signs.

  • Topical corticosteroids reduce inflammation but delay corneal epithelial healing and increase risk of corneal melting and fungal infection when the cornea is ulcerated.

  • Fluorescein dye is used to detect corneal epithelial defects; it stains exposed stroma but not intact epithelium, and Seidel testing detects aqueous leakage.

  • Systemic ivermectin toxicity in dogs with MDR1/ABCB1 mutation causes mydriasis, hypersalivation, ataxia, and tremors from GABA-gated chloride channel overactivity.

  • Topical fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides are concentration-dependent in the tear film; frequent application improves efficacy against susceptible corneal pathogens.

Quick reference

Common Ocular Conditions

  • Keratoconjunctivitis sicca presents with mucoid discharge, corneal vascularization, and low Schirmer tear test values; treatment includes tear stimulants such as cyclosporine or tacrolimus.

  • Corneal ulcers are classified by depth: superficial loss of epithelium, deep stromal loss, and descemetocele where stroma is lost to Descemet membrane; descemetocele requires surgical stabilization.

  • Indolent (boxer) ulcers have loose epithelial edges, fail to heal in 7-10 days, and respond to debridement, grid keratotomy, or diamond burr superficial keratectomy.

  • Uveitis signs include miosis, aqueous flare, hypopyon, ciliary spasm, and hypotony; treatment targets underlying cause plus topical corticosteroids and atropine.

  • Primary angle-closure glaucoma in dogs presents with a fixed dilated pupil, episcleral congestion, corneal edema, and IOP often above 40 mmHg; it is an emergency.

  • Cataracts are graded by extent (incipient, immature, mature, hypermature); phacoclastic uveitis results from lens capsule rupture and lens protein exposure.

  • Entropion is inward rolling of the eyelid margin causing trichiasis and corneal irritation; correction may require temporary tacking in young dogs before definitive surgery.

  • Prolapsed third eyelid gland (cherry eye) is treated by gland replacement rather than excision to preserve tear production and reduce risk of keratoconjunctivitis sicca.

  • Sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome causes acute blindness with mydriasis and absent menace in older dogs; fundus may appear normal initially and electroretinography confirms loss of function.

Quick reference

Canine Eye Disease Screening and Genetics (ACVO CAER)

  • CAER stands for Companion Animal Eye Registry, operated by the American College of Veterinary Ophthalmologists, and screens breeding dogs for heritable eye disease.

  • CAER examinations are performed by board-certified veterinary ophthalmologists and generate a standardized form with breed-specific and diagnosis-specific coding.

  • CAER screening is done with indirect ophthalmoscopy, slit-lamp biomicroscopy, and tonometry; results are recorded for registry submission and breeding decisions.

  • The ACVO Genetics Committee maintains breed-specific recommendations for screening age and frequency, and some breeds require examination at defined intervals.

  • Collie eye anomaly is an autosomal recessive disorder associated with a NHEJ1 gene variant causing choroidal hypoplasia, coloboma, and retinal detachment.

  • Progressive retinal atrophy in many breeds is inherited and progressive; the prcd form is autosomal recessive and genetic testing guides breeding decisions.

  • Multifocal retinal dysplasia and other inherited developmental anomalies are recorded on CAER forms and may be considered breeding exclusions depending on breed guidance.

  • Persistent hyperplastic tunica vasculosa lentis and persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous are congenital anomalies that can appear on CAER examinations in predisposed breeds.

  • CAER results are reported as normal, affected, or breeder option, and the registry database supports tracking of heritable ocular disease prevalence over time.