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ADF Pilot/Aircrew study materials
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ADF Pilot/Aircrew practice questions

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Question 1Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary purpose of the air data computer (ADC) in an aircraft?

  1. Computing airspeed, altitude, and other pitot-static derived parameters Correct answer.
  2. Controlling the aircraft's electrical generators
  3. Managing fuel distribution between tanks
  4. Providing hydraulic pressure to the flight controls

Explanation

The ADC converts raw pitot-static and temperature inputs into computed air data such as airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, and Mach number for display and other systems. It does not manage electrical, fuel, or hydraulic systems.

Question 2Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During a normal takeoff, at what point is rotation typically initiated?

  1. At the best glide speed
  2. At the computed rotation speed (VR) Correct answer.
  3. At maximum cruise speed
  4. At the stall speed (VS)

Explanation

Rotation is initiated at VR, the speed calculated to allow the aircraft to reach the required lift-off and screen height within the available runway. Stall speed and cruise or glide speeds are unrelated to the takeoff rotation point.

Question 3Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which instrument provides a direct indication of the aircraft's pitch and roll attitude?

  1. Attitude indicator Correct answer.
  2. Vertical speed indicator
  3. Altimeter
  4. Turn coordinator

Explanation

The attitude indicator displays pitch and roll relative to the horizon. The altimeter shows altitude, the turn coordinator shows rate of turn and coordination, and the VSI shows climb or descent rate.

Question 4Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What does a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) require the flight crew to do?

  1. Manoeuvre promptly to satisfy the commanded vertical guidance Correct answer.
  2. Contact ATC before making any change
  3. Continue the current flight path and monitor traffic
  4. Reduce speed to the minimum safe manoeuvring speed

Explanation

An RA is a time-critical instruction, and crews are expected to respond immediately with the commanded vertical manoeuvre, even before notifying ATC. Traffic advisories (TAs) only require visual acquisition and monitoring.

Question 5Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

In a swept-wing jet, what is the main purpose of leading-edge devices such as slats?

  1. To delay stall at high angles of attack by energizing the airflow Correct answer.
  2. To reduce the landing gear retraction time
  3. To increase the maximum cruise Mach number
  4. To provide additional thrust during climb

Explanation

Slats and other leading-edge devices re-energize the boundary layer over the wing, allowing higher angles of attack before stall and improving low-speed lift. They do not affect cruise Mach, gear timing, or thrust.

Question 6Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

An aircraft is on approach at 1,500 ft AGL when the radio altimeter fails. How does this affect an autoland-capable aircraft?

  1. Nothing changes because autoland uses only barometric altitude
  2. The ILS localizer guidance becomes unusable
  3. Autoland capability is lost because radio altitude is required for flare and rollout Correct answer.
  4. The autopilot will automatically climb to a safe altitude

Explanation

Autoland depends on radio altitude for the flare, touchdown, and rollout guidance, so a radio altimeter failure removes that capability and typically requires a go-around or manual approach. Barometric altitude alone cannot support the low-altitude phases of autoland.

Question 7Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the function of the pressurization outflow valve?

  1. To regulate cabin pressure by controlling the rate of air leaving the cabin Correct answer.
  2. To seal the cabin door during flight
  3. To cool the avionics compartment
  4. To supply conditioned air from the engines

Explanation

The outflow valve modulates the exhaust of cabin air to maintain the selected cabin altitude and rate of change. Supply of conditioned air comes from the air conditioning packs, not the outflow valve.

Question 8Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which factor most directly determines the maximum altitude at which an aircraft can maintain level flight?

  1. Length of the runway used for departure
  2. Available thrust versus drag at that altitude Correct answer.
  3. Number of passenger seats
  4. Total fuel capacity

Explanation

The ceiling is reached when available thrust no longer exceeds the drag at a given altitude, so the thrust-to-drag relationship sets the level-flight limit. Fuel capacity, seating, and runway length do not define that aerodynamic limit.

Question 9Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

When would a pilot use the localizer back course on an ILS approach?

  1. When the glideslope transmitter has failed
  2. When the aircraft's VOR receiver is inoperative
  3. When flying the published back-course approach using reverse-sensing indications Correct answer.
  4. When conducting a circling approach only

Explanation

A back-course approach uses the localizer signal from the opposite direction, and the course deviation indications are reverse-sensed unless a back-course switch is selected. Glideslope failure, circling, or VOR failure do not define back-course use.

Question 10Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary hazard of a microburst encountered on final approach?

  1. A gradual decrease in outside air temperature
  2. A sudden performance-decreasing windshear with downdraft Correct answer.
  3. An increase in indicated airspeed with no altitude change
  4. A steady tailwind that reduces landing distance

Explanation

A microburst produces a strong downdraft with diverging winds, causing a rapid airspeed loss and sink rate increase that can exceed aircraft performance. It is a performance-decreasing windshear, not a benign tailwind or temperature effect.

Question 11Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of an aircraft's minimum equipment list (MEL)?

  1. It allows dispatch with specified inoperative equipment under defined conditions Correct answer.
  2. It defines the aircraft's maximum takeoff weight
  3. It records maintenance actions performed during the last check
  4. It lists all equipment that must always be serviceable

Explanation

The MEL permits operation with particular items inoperative, provided the stated conditions and limitations are met. It is not a list of always-serviceable items, a maintenance log, or a weight document.

Question 12Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the effect of a headwind on the takeoff ground roll compared with still air?

  1. The ground roll is unchanged
  2. The ground roll is increased
  3. The ground roll becomes unpredictable
  4. The ground roll is reduced Correct answer.

Explanation

A headwind provides additional lift at a given ground speed, so the aircraft reaches flying speed after a shorter ground run. A tailwind has the opposite effect, and still air is the reference case.

Question 13Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What does the term 'positive static stability' mean for an aircraft?

  1. The absence of any stability in pitch
  2. The ability to hold altitude without trim
  3. A tendency to return to the original attitude after a disturbance Correct answer.
  4. A tendency to continue increasing a displacement after a disturbance

Explanation

Positive static stability means that after a disturbance the aircraft tends to return toward its original state. Neutral stability maintains the new state, and negative stability diverges further.

Question 14Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During an engine failure after V1 on takeoff, what is the standard crew priority?

  1. Maintain control and climb performance while following the engine-failure procedure Correct answer.
  2. Turn back to the departure runway regardless of altitude
  3. Immediately shut down all remaining engines
  4. Reduce thrust on the operating engine to idle

Explanation

After V1 the takeoff is continued; the crew prioritizes aircraft control, establishes the required climb profile, and runs the engine-failure checklist. Shutting down good engines, an immediate return, or idling the operating engine would worsen the situation.

Question 15Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary function of an aircraft's yaw damper?

  1. To provide artificial feel in the roll axis
  2. To suppress Dutch roll by damping yaw oscillations Correct answer.
  3. To increase rudder authority during crosswind landings
  4. To trim the aircraft in pitch during climb

Explanation

The yaw damper automatically applies rudder inputs to damp yaw oscillations such as Dutch roll, particularly in swept-wing aircraft. It is not a crosswind aid, a pitch trim system, or a roll feel device.

Question 16Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which condition is indicated by a 'gear unsafe' warning after gear selection?

  1. The anti-skid system is active
  2. The landing gear is not in the selected position and locked Correct answer.
  3. The landing gear is fully down and locked
  4. The parking brake is set

Explanation

A gear-unsafe indication shows that the gear has not reached and locked in the commanded position. A fully down-and-locked condition produces a safe indication, and brake or anti-skid status is shown separately.

Question 17Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the purpose of the decision height (DH) on a precision approach?

  1. The altitude at which ATC hands off to tower
  2. The altitude at which landing gear must be retracted
  3. The altitude at which the autopilot must be disconnected
  4. The altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated if required visual reference is not established Correct answer.

Explanation

DH is the specified height at which the crew must decide to continue or go around based on visual reference. It is not tied to autopilot disconnect, gear retraction, or ATC frequency changes.

Question 18Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

A crew observes that the standby attitude indicator is powered but shows a slowly eroding horizon during a long turn. What is the most likely cause?

  1. A failed radar altimeter
  2. A total electrical failure of the standby system
  3. Normal erection error of a gyroscopic instrument during sustained acceleration Correct answer.
  4. A blocked pitot tube

Explanation

Gyroscopic attitude indicators can exhibit erection or acceleration errors during sustained turns or acceleration, causing a small horizon drift. Electrical failure, pitot blockage, and radar altimeter faults would present differently.

Question 19Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the standard meaning of a 'stabilized approach'?

  1. The aircraft is on the correct flight path with appropriate speed and configuration by a defined height Correct answer.
  2. The aircraft has engaged the autothrottle
  3. The aircraft has deployed all spoilers
  4. The aircraft is flying at a constant Mach number

Explanation

A stabilized approach requires the aircraft to be on the correct lateral and vertical path, at the target speed, and in landing configuration by a specified height. Spoilers, constant Mach, or autothrottle use do not define stabilization.

Question 20Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between indicated airspeed and true airspeed at higher altitude?

  1. True airspeed is lower than indicated airspeed as altitude increases
  2. True airspeed is higher than indicated airspeed as altitude increases Correct answer.
  3. They remain equal at all altitudes
  4. Indicated airspeed always exceeds true airspeed

Explanation

As air density decreases with altitude, the same true airspeed produces a lower dynamic pressure, so indicated airspeed reads lower than true airspeed. The gap widens with altitude.

Question 21Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary reason for using a reduced thrust (derated or assumed temperature) takeoff?

  1. To extend engine life while still meeting required takeoff performance Correct answer.
  2. To shorten the takeoff ground roll
  3. To lower the cabin altitude
  4. To increase the maximum climb rate

Explanation

Reduced thrust lowers engine wear and maintenance cost by using only the thrust needed for the conditions, provided performance margins are met. It does not shorten ground roll or improve climb rate; it typically lengthens the roll.

Question 22Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During a go-around from an ILS approach, what should the pilot do with the flight director or autopilot?

  1. Remain on the localizer and continue descending
  2. Select the go-around mode to capture the published missed approach track Correct answer.
  3. Disengage all automation and hand-fly without guidance
  4. Reduce thrust to idle and hold altitude

Explanation

Selecting go-around mode applies takeoff/go-around thrust and provides guidance to fly the missed approach procedure. Continuing the descent or idling thrust would be incorrect, and hand-flying without guidance is not the standard procedure.

Question 23Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What does an amber EICAS/ECAM caution message typically indicate?

  1. A routine status message with no action needed
  2. A complete loss of the display system
  3. A condition requiring crew awareness and possible action, not an immediate emergency Correct answer.
  4. A condition requiring immediate memory-item action

Explanation

Amber cautions alert the crew to an abnormal condition that requires awareness and possibly a non-immediate procedure. Red warnings indicate conditions requiring immediate action, and green or white messages are status or advisory.

Question 24Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

An aircraft experiences a rapid depressurization at FL350. What is the correct initial crew action?

  1. Continue cruise and monitor the cabin altitude
  2. Increase cabin pressure manually before descending
  3. Turn off the seatbelt sign and notify passengers only
  4. Don oxygen masks and establish communications, then begin an emergency descent Correct answer.

Explanation

The immediate priority is donning oxygen masks and establishing crew communication, followed by an emergency descent to a breathable altitude. Continuing cruise or delaying descent risks hypoxia.

Question 25Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which of the following describes the correct use of a sidestick or control column during a crosswind takeoff?

  1. Hold full back pressure throughout the roll
  2. Keep the controls neutral until rotation
  3. Apply downwind aileron to lower the upwind wing
  4. Apply into-wind aileron to keep the wings level as speed builds Correct answer.

Explanation

Into-wind aileron counters the crosswind's tendency to lift the upwind wing and keeps the aircraft tracking correctly. Downwind aileron or neutral controls would allow the upwind wing to rise.

Question 26Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What does the term 'V1' represent in takeoff performance?

  1. The speed at which the aircraft becomes airborne
  2. The speed at which the aircraft rotates
  3. The maximum speed at which a rejected takeoff can be initiated Correct answer.
  4. The minimum control speed on the ground

Explanation

V1 is the decision speed: below V1 a rejected takeoff can be safely accomplished, while above V1 the takeoff must be continued. It is determined from accelerate-stop and accelerate-go distances. Rotation speed (VR) and liftoff speed (VLOF) are separate and typically higher.

Question 27Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which of the following is the primary purpose of an aircraft's anti-skid system?

  1. To automatically apply the brakes upon touchdown
  2. To shorten the landing distance by allowing maximum braking without wheel lock Correct answer.
  3. To prevent the wheels from spinning up after takeoff
  4. To provide steering during taxi

Explanation

Anti-skid systems modulate brake pressure to prevent wheel lock-up, preserving directional control and allowing braking at the limit of tire traction. This typically reduces stopping distance on contaminated or dry runways. Automatic braking and nosewheel steering are separate systems.

Question 28Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the function of the cabin altitude warning horn or aural alert?

  1. To alert the crew that the pressurization system is in manual mode
  2. To indicate that the cabin pressure is exceeding the maximum differential
  3. To signal that the outflow valve is fully closed
  4. To warn that the cabin altitude has exceeded a preset threshold, typically 10,000 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

The cabin altitude warning activates when cabin pressure altitude climbs above a specified limit (often 10,000 ft), prompting crew action to don oxygen masks and address the pressurization failure. It is a warning of insufficient cabin pressure, not of overpressure or valve position.

Question 29Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During a precision approach, what does the glideslope provide?

  1. Distance to the runway threshold
  2. Missed approach point identification
  3. Vertical guidance to a predetermined descent path Correct answer.
  4. Lateral guidance to the runway centerline

Explanation

The glideslope is the vertical guidance component of a precision approach, typically defining a 3-degree descent path to the touchdown zone. Lateral guidance is provided by the localizer. Distance information comes from DME or markers, and the missed approach point is separately defined.

Question 30Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the takeoff/landing configuration warning?

  1. To warn of an unsafe gear indication
  2. To signal that the autopilot is engaged during takeoff
  3. To alert the crew if the aircraft is not configured properly for takeoff or landing Correct answer.
  4. To indicate that the flaps have reached the selected position

Explanation

Configuration warning systems alert the crew when the aircraft is not properly configured (e.g., flaps, speedbrakes, trim) for the phase of flight, helping prevent takeoff or landing accidents. Gear warning and flap position indication are separate functions.

Question 31Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary purpose of the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?

  1. To provide two-way voice communication with rescue services
  2. To transmit a distress signal on a designated frequency after a crash Correct answer.
  3. To jam enemy radar in military operations
  4. To broadcast the aircraft's altitude and airspeed to ATC

Explanation

The ELT automatically or manually activates after a crash to transmit a distress signal (e.g., on 406 MHz and 121.5 MHz) that helps search and rescue locate the aircraft. It is not a voice communication device nor a radar jammer.

Question 32Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What does the term 'angle of attack' (AOA) refer to?

  1. The angle of bank during a turn
  2. The angle between the wing and the fuselage
  3. The angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind Correct answer.
  4. The angle between the aircraft's longitudinal axis and the horizon

Explanation

Angle of attack is the angle between the wing's chord line and the oncoming relative wind. It directly determines lift and is the critical parameter for stall. Pitch attitude and bank angle are different concepts.

Question 33Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which of the following is the correct action if a pilot experiences a laser illumination in the cockpit?

  1. Shield the eyes, look away from the beam, and notify ATC Correct answer.
  2. Look directly at the source to identify it
  3. Turn on all exterior lights to deter the source
  4. Increase altitude immediately to escape the beam

Explanation

The recommended response to laser illumination is to avoid looking directly at the beam, shield the eyes, and inform ATC so the source can be reported. Looking at the laser can cause temporary flash blindness. Exterior lights and altitude changes are not standard mitigations.

Question 34Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

An aircraft is flying at a constant indicated airspeed at higher altitude. What happens to the true airspeed?

  1. It decreases as altitude increases
  2. It remains the same as indicated airspeed
  3. It fluctuates with altitude but averages the same
  4. It increases as altitude increases Correct answer.

Explanation

True airspeed is higher than indicated airspeed at altitude because the air is less dense. For a given indicated airspeed, the true airspeed increases approximately 2% per 1,000 feet. This affects navigation and fuel planning.

Question 35Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the effect of a tailwind on the landing ground roll compared with still air?

  1. It has no effect on ground roll
  2. It shortens the ground roll only if the runway is dry
  3. It lengthens the ground roll Correct answer.
  4. It shortens the ground roll

Explanation

A tailwind increases the aircraft's groundspeed at touchdown, so the aircraft travels a greater distance along the runway before stopping. This increases landing distance and is a significant performance consideration. Headwinds have the opposite effect.

Question 36Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During a climb, what is the effect of reducing the climb speed below the best rate-of-climb speed (VY)?

  1. The climb angle increases but the rate of climb decreases Correct answer.
  2. Both rate of climb and climb angle decrease
  3. The rate of climb increases but the climb angle decreases
  4. Both rate of climb and climb angle increase

Explanation

Best angle-of-climb speed (VX) is lower than VY. Flying slower than VY, toward VX, steepens the climb angle but reduces the rate of climb. This is why VX is used to clear obstacles and VY for fastest altitude gain.

Question 37Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary purpose of the rudder during a coordinated turn?

  1. To control pitch attitude
  2. To increase the rate of turn
  3. To maintain coordinated flight by counteracting adverse yaw Correct answer.
  4. To deploy speedbrakes

Explanation

The rudder is used to coordinate the turn by countering adverse yaw created by aileron deflection. Proper coordination minimizes slip and skid. Pitch is controlled by the elevator, and speedbrakes are separate surfaces.

Question 38Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the purpose of the minimum descent altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach?

  1. To specify the altitude for glideslope interception
  2. To indicate the altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated
  3. To define the altitude below which descent is not permitted unless the required visual references are in sight Correct answer.
  4. To mark the beginning of the final approach segment

Explanation

MDA is the lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the required visual references are acquired. If the runway environment is not in sight at the missed approach point, a missed approach must be executed. It is not a decision height, which applies to precision approaches.

Question 39Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the effect of a constant-speed propeller in maintaining a selected RPM during a climb?

  1. It eliminates the need for mixture control
  2. It keeps the throttle setting constant
  3. It prevents the engine from overspeeding during descent
  4. It automatically adjusts blade angle to maintain RPM as airspeed changes Correct answer.

Explanation

A constant-speed propeller changes blade pitch to absorb varying power and maintain the selected RPM as airspeed and load change. The pilot controls power with the throttle and RPM with the propeller control. Mixture and overspeed protection are separate functions.

Question 40Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary hazard of icing on the leading edge of a wing?

  1. It only affects the tailplane
  2. It increases lift and decreases drag
  3. It has no effect on lift but increases weight
  4. It decreases lift and increases drag Correct answer.

Explanation

Leading-edge ice disrupts the smooth airflow, reducing lift and increasing drag, and can lead to stall at higher speeds. It also adds weight and can affect control surfaces. The primary aerodynamic effect is loss of lift and increased drag.

Question 41Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During a rapid depressurization at high altitude, what is the correct initial crew action?

  1. Attempt to troubleshoot the pressurization system first
  2. Turn off all electrical equipment
  3. Don oxygen masks and establish communication Correct answer.
  4. Initiate an immediate emergency descent

Explanation

The first priority is to don oxygen masks and establish crew communication, then initiate an emergency descent as required. Troubleshooting comes after essential actions. This ensures the crew remains conscious and able to manage the situation.

Question 42Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What does a 'no smoking' sign illuminated in the cabin typically indicate?

  1. That smoking is prohibited at all times Correct answer.
  2. That the aircraft is above 10,000 feet
  3. That the fasten seatbelt sign is also on
  4. That the cabin is pressurized

Explanation

The no smoking sign indicates that smoking is prohibited in the cabin, and it is typically on whenever the seatbelt sign is on. It does not directly indicate altitude or pressurization status. Modern aircraft often have it permanently on.

Question 43Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the purpose of the terrain awareness and warning system (TAWS)?

  1. To guide the aircraft along a preselected route
  2. To provide warnings of imminent terrain impact Correct answer.
  3. To manage the autopilot during approach
  4. To alert the crew of traffic conflicts

Explanation

TAWS, such as EGPWS, alerts the crew when the aircraft is predicted to fly into terrain, providing aural and visual warnings. Navigation and traffic alerts are provided by other systems like FMS and TCAS.

Question 44Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary function of the horizontal situation indicator (HSI)?

  1. To show engine parameters
  2. To display aircraft heading and navigation course information Correct answer.
  3. To control the autopilot
  4. To indicate vertical speed

Explanation

The HSI combines a heading indicator with a course deviation indicator, showing the aircraft's heading relative to a selected navigation course. Engine parameters and vertical speed are displayed on other instruments.

Question 45Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the effect of increasing bank angle beyond 45 degrees in a level turn?

  1. The load factor increases and stall speed increases Correct answer.
  2. The stall speed remains constant
  3. The load factor remains constant
  4. The load factor decreases and stall speed decreases

Explanation

As bank angle increases, the load factor increases to maintain level flight, which raises the stall speed. At 60 degrees bank, the load factor is 2 and stall speed increases by about 41%. This is a critical consideration for turn performance.

Question 46Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

Which of the following correctly describes the use of the VOR (VHF omnidirectional range) for navigation?

  1. It provides precision approach guidance
  2. It provides traffic advisory information
  3. It provides bearing information from the station to the aircraft Correct answer.
  4. It provides distance measuring from the station

Explanation

VOR provides magnetic bearing (radial) information from the station, allowing the aircraft to determine its position relative to the station. Distance is provided by DME, and precision approach guidance is provided by ILS or GLS.

Question 47Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the purpose of the engine fire detection system?

  1. To automatically extinguish an engine fire
  2. To warn the crew of a fire in the engine compartment Correct answer.
  3. To control engine fuel flow
  4. To monitor engine oil pressure

Explanation

The fire detection system senses overheating or fire and alerts the crew, who then discharge the fire extinguishing agent. Extinguishing is a separate action, and oil pressure and fuel flow are monitored by other systems.

Question 48Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the effect of a forward center of gravity on aircraft performance?

  1. It has no effect on stall speed
  2. It decreases stall speed and increases cruise efficiency
  3. It increases the maximum lift-to-drag ratio
  4. It increases stall speed and reduces cruise efficiency Correct answer.

Explanation

A forward CG increases the load on the tailplane, requiring more downforce and increasing stall speed and drag, which reduces cruise efficiency. An aft CG generally improves performance but can reduce stability.

Question 49Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

During a rejected takeoff, what is the primary consideration for brake energy absorption?

  1. The brakes absorb energy linearly with speed
  2. The brakes must absorb the kinetic energy of the aircraft, which increases with the square of the speed Correct answer.
  3. Brake energy is only a concern on wet runways
  4. Brake energy is independent of aircraft weight

Explanation

Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of the velocity, so a rejected takeoff at high speed generates significantly more brake energy and heat. This is why accelerate-stop distances and brake energy limits are critical performance factors. Weight also directly affects energy.

Question 50Role-specific assessment (Pilot/Aircrew)

What is the primary purpose of the yaw damper?

  1. To prevent Dutch roll and improve ride comfort Correct answer.
  2. To automatically trim the rudder for engine-out conditions
  3. To limit rudder deflection during crosswind landings
  4. To provide turn coordination during all flight phases

Explanation

The yaw damper suppresses Dutch roll by countering unwanted yaw oscillations, improving stability and passenger comfort. It operates independently of pilot rudder input and does not provide automatic engine-out trimming.