Arab Board Community Medicine Part 1 study materials
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Arab Board Community Medicine Part 1 practice questions

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Question 1Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a cohort study of 500 exposed and 500 unexposed persons followed for one year, 50 exposed and 10 unexposed develop the outcome. What is the relative risk?

  1. 1.2
  2. 5.0 Correct answer.
  3. 0.2
  4. 10.0

Explanation

Incidence in exposed is 50/500 = 0.10 and in unexposed is 10/500 = 0.02; relative risk is the ratio 0.10/0.02 = 5.0.

Question 2Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which measure of disease frequency is most appropriate for describing the burden of a chronic condition such as diabetes in a community at a single point in time?

  1. Case fatality rate
  2. Attack rate
  3. Incidence rate
  4. Point prevalence Correct answer.

Explanation

Prevalence counts all existing cases (old and new) in a population at a defined moment, which is the standard way to express the total burden of a chronic disease. Incidence measures only new cases, and case fatality and attack rate describe outcome severity and outbreak spread respectively.

Question 3Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A screening test is applied to 1000 people; 200 truly have the disease. Of these, 180 test positive; of the 800 without disease, 80 test positive. What is the sensitivity?

  1. 20%
  2. 69%
  3. 90% Correct answer.
  4. 10%

Explanation

Sensitivity is true positives divided by all people with disease: 180/200 = 0.90, or 90%. It is computed only among the diseased and is unaffected by the number of disease-free people tested.

Question 4Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which study design is best suited to establish temporality between an exposure and an outcome?

  1. Prospective cohort study Correct answer.
  2. Cross-sectional survey
  3. Ecological study
  4. Case-control study

Explanation

A prospective cohort measures exposure before the outcome occurs, so the temporal sequence is known. Case-control, cross-sectional and ecological designs generally cannot establish that exposure preceded disease at the individual level.

Question 5Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a case-control study, the odds ratio is used primarily because:

  1. It requires no control group
  2. It always equals the relative risk
  3. Incidence cannot be directly estimated from the sampled groups Correct answer.
  4. It removes the effect of confounding

Explanation

Case-control sampling selects on outcome, so the incidence in exposed and unexposed cannot be computed directly; the odds ratio is the estimable measure of association. It approximates the risk ratio only when the outcome is rare.

Question 6Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which of the following is a measure of dispersion rather than central tendency?

  1. Mode
  2. Mean
  3. Standard deviation Correct answer.
  4. Median

Explanation

Standard deviation quantifies spread around the mean, whereas mean, median and mode are all measures of central location. Dispersion measures describe variability, not the typical value.

Question 7Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a randomized controlled trial, randomization primarily serves to:

  1. Eliminate measurement error
  2. Guarantee that the trial is blinded
  3. Increase the sample size needed
  4. Balance known and unknown confounders between groups Correct answer.

Explanation

Random allocation distributes both measured and unmeasured confounders, on average, equally across arms, supporting a causal interpretation. It does not itself ensure blinding, change sample size requirements, or remove measurement error.

Question 8Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A p-value of 0.03 from a statistical test indicates that:

  1. Assuming the null hypothesis is true, a result at least as extreme would occur about 3% of the time Correct answer.
  2. There is a 3% probability that the null hypothesis is true
  3. The result has a 97% chance of being replicated
  4. The effect size is clinically important

Explanation

The p-value is the probability of observing data at least as extreme as those obtained, calculated under the assumption that the null hypothesis holds. It is not the probability that the null is true, nor a measure of effect size or replicability.

Question 9Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A district has a crude death rate of 8 per 1000 and a directly age-standardized rate of 11 per 1000 using national age weights. Assuming the usual increase of mortality with age, which population characteristic most plausibly explains the increase?

  1. Is older than the national population
  2. Has a lower case fatality rate
  3. Is younger than the national population Correct answer.
  4. Has better access to health care

Explanation

Direct standardization applies the standard population age weights to district age-specific death rates. With mortality increasing with age, giving more weight to older groups can raise the rate, consistent with a district younger than the standard population.

Question 10Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A new test has sensitivity 95% and specificity 90%. In a population where disease prevalence is 1%, the positive predictive value will be:

  1. High, because sensitivity is high
  2. Equal to the sensitivity
  3. Equal to the specificity
  4. Low, because most positive results are false positives Correct answer.

Explanation

When prevalence is very low, the large number of disease-free people generates many false positives even with good specificity, so most positives are false and PPV is low. Predictive values depend on prevalence, unlike sensitivity and specificity.

Question 11Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which bias is most characteristic of a case-control study that recruits prevalent cases of a disease with long survival?

  1. Prevalence-incidence (survivorship) bias Correct answer.
  2. Interviewer bias
  3. Loss to follow-up bias
  4. Recall bias

Explanation

Using prevalent cases preferentially includes those who survived long enough to be ascertained, and their exposure profile may differ from incident cases, producing prevalence-incidence bias. Recall and interviewer bias can occur in any interview study, and loss to follow-up applies to cohort designs.

Question 12Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a 2x2 table the chi-square statistic is 6.0 with one degree of freedom. Using the critical value of 3.84 at the 5% level, the correct conclusion is that:

  1. A type II error has occurred
  2. The association is not statistically significant
  3. The sample size was too small
  4. The association is statistically significant at the 5% level Correct answer.

Explanation

A chi-square of 6.0 exceeds the 3.84 critical value for one degree of freedom at alpha 0.05, so the null hypothesis of no association is rejected. Degrees of freedom for a 2x2 table are (2-1)(2-1) = 1.

Question 13Epidemiology and Biostatistics

The main advantage of a matched case-control design over an unmatched design is that it:

  1. Increases the prevalence of the disease
  2. Removes the effect of random error
  3. Controls for the matched variables as potential confounders Correct answer.
  4. Eliminates the need for a control group

Explanation

Matching forces controls to resemble cases on selected variables, preventing those variables from confounding the exposure-disease association. It does not alter disease prevalence, remove the need for controls, or eliminate random error.

Question 14Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A 95% confidence interval for a mean difference is (-0.5 to 4.5). The most appropriate interpretation is that:

  1. The sample mean difference is 4.0
  2. The data are compatible with both a decrease and an increase, so the effect is inconclusive Correct answer.
  3. There is a 95% probability the true difference is zero
  4. The result is statistically significant

Explanation

A confidence interval spanning zero includes the null value, so the observed data do not exclude no effect in either direction. The interval describes a range of plausible values for the parameter, not the probability that a specific value is true.

Question 15Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which measure best quantifies the excess risk of disease attributable to an exposure in the exposed group?

  1. Correlation coefficient
  2. Odds ratio
  3. Attributable risk (risk difference) Correct answer.
  4. Prevalence ratio

Explanation

Attributable risk is the difference in incidence between exposed and unexposed, representing the absolute excess risk due to exposure. Ratio measures such as the odds ratio and prevalence ratio express relative, not absolute, excess.

Question 16Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In an outbreak investigation, the epidemic curve shows a single sharp peak within one incubation period after a common event. This pattern most suggests:

  1. A point-source exposure Correct answer.
  2. Seasonal variation
  3. A propagated person-to-person outbreak
  4. A continuing common source

Explanation

A single narrow peak occurring within one incubation period is typical of a brief common exposure affecting many people at once (point source). Propagated outbreaks show successive generations of cases, and continuing sources show a plateau.

Question 17Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A study reports a relative risk of 2.0 with a 95% confidence interval of 1.1 to 3.6. Which statement is correct?

  1. The association is statistically significant at the 5% level Correct answer.
  2. The result cannot be interpreted without a p-value
  3. The exposure causes the outcome in all exposed persons
  4. The association is not statistically significant

Explanation

Because the confidence interval excludes 1.0, the null hypothesis of no association is rejected at the 5% level. The interval also shows the estimate is imprecise, but significance is determined by exclusion of the null value.

Question 18Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a control group in an experimental study?

  1. To provide a comparison that estimates what would have happened without the intervention Correct answer.
  2. To ensure the intervention is delivered correctly
  3. To measure the prevalence of the outcome at baseline
  4. To increase the total number of participants

Explanation

The control group supplies the counterfactual comparison, allowing the effect of the intervention to be separated from background change. Its role is not to enlarge the sample, monitor delivery, or measure baseline prevalence.

Question 19Epidemiology and Biostatistics

The mean systolic blood pressure of a sample is 130 mmHg with a standard error of 2 mmHg. The 95% confidence interval is approximately:

  1. 126 to 134 mmHg Correct answer.
  2. 130 to 132 mmHg
  3. 128 to 132 mmHg
  4. 124 to 136 mmHg

Explanation

The 95% confidence interval is the estimate plus or minus 1.96 standard errors, here 130 +/- 3.92, giving roughly 126 to 134 mmHg. The standard error, not the standard deviation, is used for the interval of the mean.

Question 20Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A screening programme detects a disease earlier and patients appear to live longer from diagnosis, but the age at death is unchanged. This phenomenon is called:

  1. Selection bias
  2. Lead-time bias Correct answer.
  3. Length bias
  4. Information bias

Explanation

Lead-time bias arises because earlier detection advances the date of diagnosis without postponing death, artificially lengthening measured survival. Length bias and other biases involve selection of slower-growing cases or differential data collection.

Question 21Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a cohort study, 20% of exposed and 10% of unexposed develop disease. What is the attributable risk percent (attributable fraction) among the exposed?

  1. 100%
  2. 50% Correct answer.
  3. 10%
  4. 20%

Explanation

Attributable fraction among the exposed equals (risk in exposed minus risk in unexposed) divided by risk in exposed: (0.20-0.10)/0.20 = 0.50, or 50%. It represents the proportion of disease in the exposed that would be avoided if the exposure were removed.

Question 22Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Two observers classify the same patients, and their agreement is 80%, while chance agreement expected is 50%. What is Cohen's kappa?

  1. 0.60 Correct answer.
  2. 0.30
  3. 1.60
  4. 0.80

Explanation

Kappa is (observed agreement minus chance agreement) divided by (1 minus chance agreement): (0.80-0.50)/(1-0.50) = 0.60. It corrects the crude agreement for agreement expected by chance.

Question 23Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a logistic regression model, the exponentiated coefficient for a binary exposure is 2.5. This value is best interpreted as:

  1. A standardized mean difference
  2. A correlation coefficient of the exposure
  3. An adjusted odds ratio comparing exposed with unexposed Correct answer.
  4. An adjusted risk difference of 2.5 cases

Explanation

Exponentiating a logistic regression coefficient yields an odds ratio, here adjusted for the other covariates in the model. It compares the odds of the outcome in the exposed with the unexposed.

Question 24Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A randomized trial reports a number needed to treat of 25. This means that:

  1. One in twenty-five treated patients will experience an adverse event
  2. Twenty-five patients will be harmed by the treatment
  3. Twenty-five patients must be treated for one additional patient to benefit Correct answer.
  4. The treatment reduces risk by 25%

Explanation

Number needed to treat is the reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction; a value of 25 means 25 patients must be treated to prevent one additional adverse outcome. It reflects absolute benefit, not relative reduction or harm.

Question 25Epidemiology and Biostatistics

An ecological study finds that countries with higher average fat intake have higher rates of heart disease. The main limitation of this finding is that:

  1. Group-level associations may not hold at the individual level Correct answer.
  2. Ecological studies require randomization of countries
  3. Ecological studies cannot calculate any rates
  4. Exposure cannot be measured at all in such studies

Explanation

Ecological studies analyse aggregated data, so an association between group averages may not reflect the individual-level relationship, a problem known as the ecological fallacy. Rates can be calculated and randomization is not part of ecological design.

Question 26Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A community health survey records the number of new cases of type 2 diabetes detected in a district over one calendar year, divided by the mid-year population. Which measure has been calculated?

  1. Standardized mortality ratio
  2. Case fatality rate
  3. Incidence rate Correct answer.
  4. Prevalence proportion

Explanation

Incidence rate measures new cases arising in a population over a defined period, with the population at risk in the denominator. Prevalence counts existing cases at a point or over a period, not new ones.

Question 27Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A researcher wants to describe the spread of a skewed distribution of household income in a community. Which pair of statistics is most appropriate?

  1. Median and interquartile range Correct answer.
  2. Mode and variance
  3. Mean and coefficient of variation
  4. Mean and standard deviation

Explanation

Skewed data are best summarized by the median with the interquartile range, which are resistant to extreme values. Mean and standard deviation are unduly influenced by outliers in skewed distributions.

Question 28Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a cross-sectional survey of 500 adults, 100 report current smoking. What is the estimated prevalence of current smoking?

  1. 25%
  2. 10%
  3. 5%
  4. 20% Correct answer.

Explanation

Prevalence is the number with the condition divided by the total population examined: 100/500 = 0.20, or 20%. The denominator must be the whole sample, not only the smokers.

Question 29Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Which study design measures exposure and outcome at the same point in time and therefore cannot establish temporal sequence?

  1. Randomized controlled trial
  2. Prospective cohort study
  3. Historical cohort study
  4. Cross-sectional study Correct answer.

Explanation

A cross-sectional study assesses exposure and outcome simultaneously, so the temporal order between them cannot be determined. Cohort studies and trials follow participants forward in time or reconstruct exposure before outcome.

Question 30Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a case-control study of a rare cancer, 200 cases and 400 controls are enrolled. Exposure is present in 120 cases and 120 controls. What is the odds ratio?

  1. 2.0
  2. 0.5
  3. 3.0 Correct answer.
  4. 1.5

Explanation

The odds ratio is (a/c)/(b/d) = (120/80)/(120/280) = 1.5/0.4286 = 3.0. It compares the odds of exposure among cases with the odds of exposure among controls.

Question 31Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A cohort study follows 1000 exposed and 1000 unexposed workers. Disease develops in 80 exposed and 20 unexposed workers. What is the relative risk?

  1. 4.0 Correct answer.
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.08
  4. 2.0

Explanation

Relative risk is the incidence in exposed divided by incidence in unexposed: (80/1000)/(20/1000) = 0.08/0.02 = 4.0. It expresses how many times more likely disease is among the exposed.

Question 32Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A screening test is applied to a population with very low disease prevalence. Which property of the test falls markedly as prevalence falls, even when sensitivity and specificity are unchanged?

  1. Sensitivity
  2. Specificity
  3. Positive predictive value Correct answer.
  4. Negative likelihood ratio

Explanation

Positive predictive value depends on prevalence as well as on sensitivity and specificity, and it declines sharply when disease is rare because most positive results are false positives. Sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic test characteristics independent of prevalence.

Question 33Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a clinical trial the observed difference in cure rates between two treatments is 10%, with a 95% confidence interval of -2% to 22%. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

  1. The trial has proven that the treatments are equivalent
  2. A type I error has definitely occurred
  3. The result is compatible with no true difference between treatments Correct answer.
  4. The new treatment is clearly superior to the standard treatment

Explanation

Because the confidence interval includes zero, the data are compatible with no true difference at the 5% significance level. The interval also extends to a clinically meaningful benefit, so the trial is inconclusive rather than proof of equivalence.

Question 34Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A district reports 60 deaths from a disease among 3000 person-years of observation. What is the mortality rate expressed per 1000 person-years?

  1. 5 per 1000 person-years
  2. 20 per 1000 person-years Correct answer.
  3. 2 per 1000 person-years
  4. 50 per 1000 person-years

Explanation

The rate is 60/3000 = 0.02 per person-year, which multiplied by 1000 gives 20 per 1000 person-years. Person-time denominators are used when follow-up duration varies between individuals.

Question 35Epidemiology and Biostatistics

Investigators wish to reduce selection bias when recruiting controls for a case-control study of a disease. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Select controls from patients attending hospital for conditions related to the exposure
  2. Select controls only from volunteers responding to a public advertisement
  3. Select controls from the same source population that gave rise to the cases Correct answer.
  4. Select controls from a different geographic region with lower disease incidence

Explanation

Controls should be drawn from the same underlying population as the cases so that exposure distribution is comparable apart from disease status. This is the principle of comparable selection, which limits selection bias.

Question 36Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A clinician wants to compare mean birth weight between two independent groups of 30 mothers each, where birth weight is approximately normally distributed. Which test is most appropriate?

  1. Chi-square test
  2. Independent samples t-test Correct answer.
  3. Mann-Whitney U test as the first choice
  4. Paired t-test

Explanation

An independent samples t-test compares means of two unrelated groups when the outcome is approximately normal. The paired t-test applies only to matched or repeated measurements.

Question 37Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A study finds a correlation coefficient of -0.75 between hours of physical activity and body mass index. Which interpretation is correct?

  1. The association is weak and likely due to chance
  2. There is a moderately strong inverse linear association between the two variables Correct answer.
  3. About 75% of the variation in body mass index is explained by activity
  4. Increased activity causes a reduction in body mass index

Explanation

A correlation of -0.75 indicates a fairly strong negative linear relationship, meaning higher activity tends to accompany lower body mass index. Correlation quantifies association only and does not establish causation.

Question 38Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a meta-analysis, a funnel plot shows marked asymmetry with small studies scattered widely on one side of the pooled estimate. Which problem does this most suggest?

  1. Random misclassification of exposure
  2. Overmatching of controls
  3. Loss to follow-up
  4. Publication bias Correct answer.

Explanation

Funnel plot asymmetry, especially when small studies cluster on one side, suggests that studies with null or unfavourable results were not published. This is a classic graphical signal of publication bias.

Question 39Epidemiology and Biostatistics

A researcher plans a study and sets power at 80% and two-sided alpha at 0.05. If the required sample size is calculated and the investigator then decides to accept a power of 90% instead, what happens to the required sample size?

  1. It decreases
  2. It increases Correct answer.
  3. It stays the same
  4. It becomes impossible to determine

Explanation

Power is the probability of detecting a true effect, and higher power requires a larger sample to reduce the chance of a type II error. Increasing power from 80% to 90% therefore increases the required sample size.

Question 40Epidemiology and Biostatistics

In a community trial the observed number of cases is 45 and the number expected from national age-specific rates is 30. What is the standardized incidence ratio and its interpretation?

  1. 0.15, indicating a small excess
  2. 0.67, indicating fewer cases than expected
  3. 15, indicating a very large excess
  4. 1.5, indicating 50% more cases than expected Correct answer.

Explanation

The standardized incidence ratio is observed divided by expected: 45/30 = 1.5, meaning 50% more cases occurred than would be expected from the reference rates. Values above 1 indicate excess incidence.

Question 41Public Health and Preventive Medicine

Which measure of disease frequency is most appropriate for describing the proportion of a population that has diabetes at a single point in time?

  1. Point prevalence Correct answer.
  2. Incidence rate
  3. Attack rate
  4. Case fatality rate

Explanation

Prevalence counts all existing cases (old and new) in a population at a defined moment, so it expresses the burden of disease at a point in time. Incidence measures new cases over a period and case fatality describes deaths among cases.

Question 42Public Health and Preventive Medicine

In a cohort study, which measure directly quantifies the excess risk of disease attributable to an exposure?

  1. Standardized mortality ratio
  2. Attributable risk Correct answer.
  3. Prevalence ratio
  4. Odds ratio

Explanation

Attributable risk (risk difference) is the incidence in the exposed minus the incidence in the unexposed, giving the absolute excess risk due to exposure. The odds ratio and prevalence ratio are relative measures and do not give absolute excess.

Question 43Public Health and Preventive Medicine

A screening test has high sensitivity but low specificity. What is the main consequence when applied in a population with low disease prevalence?

  1. Few false positives and high positive predictive value
  2. Equal numbers of false positives and false negatives
  3. Many false negatives and low negative predictive value
  4. Many false positives and low positive predictive value Correct answer.

Explanation

Low specificity means many people without disease test positive, and when prevalence is low these false positives dominate, so the positive predictive value falls. Sensitivity affects the detection of true cases, not the proportion of positives who are truly diseased.

Question 44Public Health and Preventive Medicine

Which study design is best suited to establish temporality between an exposure and a rare disease outcome?

  1. Prospective cohort study Correct answer.
  2. Ecological study
  3. Case-control study
  4. Cross-sectional survey

Explanation

A prospective cohort follows exposed and unexposed people forward in time, so exposure is documented before outcome, establishing temporality. Case-control and cross-sectional designs assess exposure and outcome at similar times and cannot confirm sequence.

Question 45Public Health and Preventive Medicine

Which of the following is the most important criterion for judging whether an observed association is causal rather than due to confounding?

  1. A statistically significant p value
  2. Use of a validated questionnaire
  3. Consistency of the association across studies Correct answer.
  4. A large sample size

Explanation

Consistency, meaning replication of the association in different populations and by different designs, supports causality by making confounding and bias less likely. Sample size, measurement tools and p values affect precision but not the causal interpretation.

Question 46Public Health and Preventive Medicine

In a randomized controlled trial, what is the primary purpose of randomization?

  1. To balance known and unknown confounders between groups Correct answer.
  2. To increase the sample size
  3. To eliminate measurement bias in outcome assessment
  4. To guarantee that the trial is double-blinded

Explanation

Random allocation distributes both measured and unmeasured confounders evenly between groups so that differences in outcome can be attributed to the intervention. It does not affect sample size, measurement bias or blinding.

Question 47Public Health and Preventive Medicine

Which of the following is a primary prevention activity?

  1. Screening for cervical cancer using Pap smears
  2. Immunization of children against measles Correct answer.
  3. Early treatment of hypertension to prevent complications
  4. Rehabilitation after a stroke

Explanation

Primary prevention acts before disease occurs by removing or reducing exposure or increasing resistance, as with vaccination. Screening and early treatment act on existing but asymptomatic disease, and rehabilitation acts after disease has caused disability.

Question 48Public Health and Preventive Medicine

What does herd immunity protect?

  1. Health workers who handle vaccines
  2. Only individuals who have been vaccinated
  3. People who have already recovered from the infection
  4. Unvaccinated individuals by reducing transmission in the community Correct answer.

Explanation

When a sufficient proportion of a population is immune, chains of transmission are interrupted, indirectly protecting those who are not immune. It does not act through individual protection of vaccinated people, whose immunity is direct.

Question 49Public Health and Preventive Medicine

Which vaccine is contraindicated in a person with severe immunodeficiency?

  1. Inactivated influenza vaccine
  2. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
  3. Hepatitis B vaccine
  4. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine Correct answer.

Explanation

Live attenuated vaccines such as MMR can replicate and cause disease in severely immunocompromised people, so they are contraindicated. Inactivated and toxoid vaccines do not carry this risk.

Question 50Public Health and Preventive Medicine

Which of the following is the most appropriate indicator of the overall health status of a population?

  1. Number of hospital beds
  2. Infant mortality rate Correct answer.
  3. Total health expenditure
  4. Number of physicians per capita

Explanation

Infant mortality rate reflects the combined effect of socioeconomic conditions, nutrition, environment and health care on a vulnerable group, making it a sensitive summary measure of population health. The other options describe health system inputs or resources rather than health outcomes.